ISTQB Learning

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2018v3.1 - Exam 4

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1. During a project following Agile methods, you find a discrepancy between the developer’s interpretation of an acceptance criteria and the product owner’s interpretation, which you bring up during a user story refinement session. Which of the following is a benefit of test independence exemplified by this situation?

Select ONE option.

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2. Which of the following statements is true?

Select ONE option.

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3. Which of the following is a typical test objective?

Select ONE option.

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4. You are working as a tester on an Agile team and have participated in over two dozen user story refinement sessions with the product owner and the developers on the team at the start of each iteration. As the reviews have gotten more effective at detecting defects in user stories and the product owner more proficient at correcting those defects, you and the team notice that the team’s velocity, as shown in your burndown charts, has started to increase. Which of the following is a benefit of static testing that is MOST DIRECTLY related to the team’s increased velocity?

Select ONE option.

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5. Which of the following metrics would be MOST useful to monitor during test execution?

Select ONE option.

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6. Which of the following statements BEST compares the purposes of confirmation testing and regression testing?

Select ONE option.

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7. Prior to an iteration planning session, you are studying a user story and its acceptance criteria, deriving test conditions and associated test cases from the user story as a way of applying the principle of early QA and test. What test technique are you applying?

Select ONE option.

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8. Which of the following should NOT be a trigger for maintenance testing?

Select ONE option.

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9. What is quality?

Select ONE option.

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10. You are working as a project manager on an in-house banking software project. To prevent rework and excessive find/fix/retest cycles, the following process has been put in place for resolving a defect once it is found in the test lab:

1. The assigned developer finds and fixes the defect, then creates an experimental build
2. A peer developer reviews, unit tests, and confirmation tests the defect fix on his/her desktop
3. A tester – usually the one who found the defect – confirmation tests the defect fix in the development environment
4. Once a day, a new release with all confirmed defect fixes included, is installed in the test environment
5. The same tester from step 3 confirmation tests the defect fix in the test environment

Nevertheless, a large number of defects which the testers confirmed as fixed in the development environment (in step 3) are somehow failing confirmation testing in the test environment, with the resulting rework and cycle time outcomes. You have the highest confidence in your testers and have ruled out mistakes or omissions in step 3.

Which of the following is the MOST likely part of the process to check next?

Select ONE option.

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11. You are working as a tester on an online banking system. Availability is considered one of the top products (quality) risks for the system. You find a reproducible failure that results in customers losing their connections to the bank Web site when transferring funds between common types of accounts and being unable to reconnect for between three and five minutes.

Which of the following would be a good summary for a defect report for this failure, one that captures both the essence of the failure and its impact on stakeholders?

Select ONE option.

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12. You are testing a mobile app that allows users to find a nearby restaurant, based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (smaller number is high priority), and dependencies, in the following format:

Which of the following is a possible test execution schedule that considers both priorities and dependencies?

Select ONE option.

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13. During an Agile development effort, a product owner discovers a previously unknown regulatory requirement that applies to most of the user stories within a particular epic. The user stories are updated to provide for the necessary changes in software behavior. The programmers on the team are modifying the code appropriately. As a tester on the team, what types of tests will you run?

Select ONE option.

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14. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independent testing?

Select ONE option.

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15. A video application has the following requirement: The application shall allow playing a video on the following display resolution:

1. 640x480
2. 1280x720
3. 1600x1200
4. 1920x1080

Which of the following list of test cases is a result of applying the equivalence partitioning test technique to test this requirement?

Select ONE option.

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16. You have just completed a pilot project for a regression testing tool. You understand the tool much better and have tailored your testing process to it. You have standardized an approach to using the tool and its associated work products. Which of the following is a typical test automation pilot project goal that remains to be carried out?

Select ONE option.

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17. Which of the following descriptions of statement coverage is CORRECT?

Select ONE option.

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18. Consider the following testing activities:

1. Selecting regression tests
2. Evaluating completeness of test execution
3. Identifying which user stories have open defect reports
4. Evaluating whether the number of tests for each requirement is consistent with the level of product risk

Consider the following ways traceability can help testing:

A. Improve understandability of test status reports to include status of test basis items
B. Make testing auditable
C. Provide information to assess process quality
D. Analyze the impact of changes

Which of the following best matches the testing activity with how traceability can assist that activity?

Select ONE option.

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19. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units.

Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field?

Select ONE option.

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20. Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PRODUCT risk?

Select ONE option.

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21. Which of the following is MOST likely to be used as a reason for using a pilot project to introduce a tool into an organization?

Select ONE option.

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22. Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques?

1. Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test object
2. The processing within the test object is checked
3. Tests are based on defects’ likelihood and their distribution
4. Deviations from the requirements are checked
5. User stories are used as the test basis

Using notation for the following 4 options:

Black - Black-box test techniques
White - White-box test techniques
Experience - Experience-based test techniques

Select ONE option.

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23. Given the following test activities and tasks:

A. Test design
B. Test implementation
C. Test execution
D. Test completion

1. Entering change requests for open defect reports
2. Identifying test data to support the test cases
3. Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data
4. Analyzing discrepancies to determine their cause

Which of the following BEST matches the activities with the tasks?

Select ONE option.

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24. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of product risk analysis CORRECTLY influencing the testing?

Select ONE option.

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25. Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the test manager?

Select ONE option.

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26. Given the following test activities and test tools:

1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis
2. Test execution and logging
3. Management of testing and testware
4. Test design
A. Code coverage tools

B. Dynamic analysis tools
C. Test data preparation tools
D. Defect management tools

Which of the following BEST matches the activities and tools?

Select ONE option.

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27. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and debugging?

Select ONE option.

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28. A phone ringing momentarily distracts a programmer, causing the programmer to improperly program the logic that checks the upper boundary of an input variable. Later, during system testing, a tester notices that this input field accepts invalid input values. The improperly coded logic for the upper boundary check is:

Select ONE option.

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29. Consider the following state transition diagram for a credit-card only, unattended gasoline pump:

Assume that you want to develop the minimum number of tests to cover each transition in the state transition diagram. Assume further that each test must start at the beginning state, waiting for customer, and each test ends when a transition arrives at the beginning state. How many tests do you need?

Select ONE option.

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30. Which of the following provides the BEST description of exploratory testing?

Select ONE option.

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31. Which of the following are two factors that can be used to determine the level of risk?

Select ONE option.

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32. A company's employees are paid bonuses if they work more than a year in the company and achieve a target which is individually agreed before.

These facts can be shown in a decision table:

Which of the following test cases represents a situation that can happen in real life, and is missing in the above decision table?

Select ONE option.

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33. You are defining the process for carrying out product risk analysis as part of each iteration on an Agile project. Which of the following is the proper place to document this process in a test plan?

Select ONE option.

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34. Which of the following is a defect rather than a root cause in a fitness tracker?

Select ONE option.

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35. Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria:

1. The original testing budget of $30,000 plus contingency of $7,000 has been spent
2. 96% of planned tests for the drawing package have been executed and the remaining tests are now out of scope
3. The trading performance test environment has been designed, set-up and verified
4. Current status is no outstanding critical defects and two high-priority ones
5. The autopilot design specifications have been reviewed and reworked
6. The tax rate calculation component has passed unit testing.

Which of the following BEST categorizes them as entry and exit criteria:

Select ONE option.

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36. Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester?

Select ONE option.

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37. Consider the following list of undesirable outcomes that could occur on a mobile app development effort:

A. Incorrect totals on screens
B. Change to acceptance criteria during acceptance testing
C. Users find the soft keyboard too hard to use with your app
D. System responds too slowly to user input during search string entry
E. Testers not allowed to report test results in daily standup meetings

Which of the following properly classifies these outcomes as project and product risks?

Select ONE option.

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38. Programmers often write and execute unit tests against code which they have written. During this self-testing activity, which of the following is a tester mindset that programmers should adopt to perform this unit testing effectively?

Select ONE option.

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39. Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review?

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40. Consider the following types of defects that a test level might focus on:

a) Defects in separately testable modules or objects
b) Not focused on identifying defects
c) Defects in interfaces and interactions
d) Defects in the whole test object

Which of the following list correctly matches test levels from the Foundation syllabus with the defect focus options given above?

Select ONE option.

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