2018v3.1 – Exam 4 – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 25, 2024 By

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2018v3.1 - Exam 4

Name

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1. Given that the testing being performed has the following attributes:

• Based on interface specifications
• Focused on finding failures in communication
• The test approach uses both functional and structural test types

Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed?

a) Integration testing

b) Acceptance testing

c) System testing

d) Component testing

Select ONE option.

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2. During a project following Agile methods, you find a discrepancy between the developer’s interpretation of an acceptance criteria and the product owner’s interpretation, which you bring up during a user story refinement session. Which of the following is a benefit of test independence exemplified by this situation?

a) Recognizing different kinds of failures

b) Taking primary responsibility for quality

c) Removing a defect early

d) Challenging stakeholder assumptions

Select ONE option.

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3. In a formal review, what is the role name for the participant who runs an inspection meeting?

a) Facilitator

b) Programmer

c) Author

d) Project manager

Select ONE option.

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4. Which of the following is MOST likely to be used as a reason for using a pilot project to introduce a tool into an organization?

a) The need to evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices and determining what would need to change

b) The need to evaluate the test automation skills and training, mentoring and coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool

c) The need to evaluate whether the tool provides the required functionality and does not duplicate existing test tools

d) The need to evaluate the tool vendor in terms of the training and other support they provide

Select ONE option.

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5. A smart home app measures the average temperature in the house over the previous week and provides feedback to the occupants on their environmental friendliness based on this temperature.

The feedback for different average temperature ranges (to the nearest °C) should be:

Up to 10°C - Icy Cool!
11°C to 15°C - Chilled Out!
16°C to 19°C - Cool Man!
20°C to 22°C - Too Warm!
Above 22°C - Hot & Sweaty!

Using BVA (only Min- and Max values), which of the following sets of test inputs provides the highest level of boundary coverage?

a) 0°C, 11°C, 20°C, 22°C, 23°C

b) 9°C, 15°C, 19°C, 23°C, 100°C

c) 10°C, 16°C, 19°C, 22°C, 23°C

d) 14°C, 15°C, 18°C, 19°C, 21°C, 22°C

Select ONE option.

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6. Which of the following is a defect rather than a root cause in a fitness tracker?

a) Because the author of the requirements was unfamiliar with the domain of fitness training, he therefore wrongly assumed that users wanted heartbeat in beats per hour

b) The tester of the smartphone interface had not been trained in state transition testing, so missed a major defect

c) An incorrect configuration variable implemented for the GPS function could cause location problems during daylight saving times

d) Because the designer had never worked on wearable devices before, she as designer of the user interface therefore misunderstood the effects of reflected sunlight

Select ONE option.

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7. You have been asked to take part in a checklist-based review of the following excerpt from the requirements specification for a library system:

Librarians can:

1. Register new borrowers
2. Return books from borrowers
3. Accept fines from borrowers
4. Add new books to the system with their ISBN, author and title
5. Remove books from the system
6. Get system responses within 5 seconds

Borrowers can:

7. Borrow a maximum of 3 books at one time
8. View the history of books they have borrowed/reserved
9. Be fined for failing to return a book within 3 weeks
10. Get system responses within 3 seconds
11. Borrow a book at no cost for a maximum of 4 weeks
12. Reserve books (if they are on-loan)

All users (librarians and borrowers):

13. Can search for books by ISBN, author, or title
14. Can browse the system catalogue
15. The system shall respond to user requests within 3 seconds
16. The user interface shall be easy-to-use

You have been assigned the checklist entry that requires you to review the specification for inconsistencies between individual requirements (i.e., conflicts between requirements).

Which of the following CORRECTLY identifies inconsistencies between pairs of requirements?

a) 6-10, 6-15, 7-12

b) 6-15, 9-11

c) 6-10, 6-15, 9-11

d) 6-15, 7-12

Select ONE option.

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8. Given the following test activities and test tools:

1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis
2. Test execution and logging
3. Management of testing and testware
4. Test design
A. Code coverage tools

B. Dynamic analysis tools
C. Test data preparation tools
D. Defect management tools

Which of the following BEST matches the activities and tools?

a) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A

b) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D

c) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C

d) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – C

Select ONE option.

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9. Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

a) Risk level is calculated by adding together the probabilities of all problem situations and the financial harm that results from them

b) Risk level is estimated by multiplying the likelihood of a threat to the system by the chance that the threat will occur and will result in financial damage

c) Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable event and the expected impact of that event

d) Risk level is the sum of all potential hazards to a system multiplied by the sum of all potential losses from that system

Select ONE option.

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10. Which of the following statements on the use of checklists in a formal review is CORRECT?

a) As part of the review planning, the reviewers create the checklists needed for the review

b) As part of the issue communication, the reviewers fill in the checklists provided for the review

c) As part of the review meeting, the reviewers create defect reports based on the checklists provided for the review

d) As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists needed for the review

Select ONE option.

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11. Which of the following statements about test types and test levels is CORRECT?

a) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing

b) Functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component testing

c) It is possible to perform functional, non-functional and white-box testing at any test level

d) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing

Select ONE option.

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12. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units.

Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field?

a) 10.0, 28.0

b) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1

c) 0.2, 0.9, 29.5

d) 12.3

Select ONE option.

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13. A product owner says that your role as a tester on an Agile team is to catch all the bugs before the end of each iteration. Which of the following is a testing principle that could be used to respond to this (false) statement?

a) Defect clustering

b) Testing shows the presence of defects

c) Absence of error fallacy

d) Root cause analysis

Select ONE option.

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14. Which of the following can affect and be part of the (initial) test planning?

a) Budget limitations

b) Test log

c) Failure rate

d) Use cases

Select ONE options.

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15. Which of the following statements is a valid objective for testing?

a) The test should start as late as possible so that development had enough time to create a good product

b) To validate whether the test object works as expected by the users and other stakeholders

c) To prove that all possible defects are identified

d) To prove that any remaining defects will not cause any failures

Select ONE option.

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16. Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester?

a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and set the tools usage guidelines

b) The test manager plans, coordinates, and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests

c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides on the release of the test object

d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester executes the tests

Select ONE option.

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17. Which of the following lists contains only typical exit criteria from testing?

a) Reliability measures, test coverage, schedule and status about fixing defect and remaining risks

b) Reliability measures, test coverage, degree of tester’s independence and product completeness

c) Reliability measures, test coverage, test cost, availability of test environment, time to market and product completeness

d) Time to market, remaining defects, tester qualification, availability of testable use cases, test coverage and test cost

Select ONE option.

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18. You are testing a mobile app that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. You are running a test suite that involves evaluating each screen and each field on each screen against a general list of user interface best practices, derived from a popular book on the topic, that maximize attractiveness, ease-of-use, and accessibility for such apps. Which of the following options BEST categorizes the test technique you are using?

a) Specification-based

b) Exploratory

c) Checklist-based

d) Error guessing

Select ONE option.

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19. Which of the following provides the definition of the term test case?

a) Subset of the value domain of a variable within a component or system in which all values are expected to be treated the same based on the specification

b) A set of preconditions, inputs, actions, expected results and post conditions, developed based on test conditions

c) Work products produced during the test process for use in planning, designing, executing, evaluating, and reporting on testing

d) A source to determine an expected result to compare with the actual result of the system under test

Select ONE option.

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20. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an incremental development model?

a) Defining requirements, designing software and testing are done in phases where in each phase a piece of the system is added

b) A phase in the development process should begin when the previous phase is complete

c) Testing is viewed as a separate phase which takes place after development has been completed

d) Testing is added to development as an increment

Select ONE option.

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21. You are performing system testing of a train reservation system. Based on the test cases performed, you have noticed that the system occasionally reports that no trains are available, although this should be the case. You have provided the developers with a summary of the defect and the version of the tested system. They recognize the urgency of the defect and are now waiting for you to provide further details.

In addition to the information already provided, the following additional information is given:

1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect
2. Identification of the test object
3. Details of the test environment
4. Urgency/priority to fix
5. Actual results
6. Reference to test case specification

Which of this additional information is most useful to include in the defect report?

a) 1, 2, 6

b) 1, 4, 5, 6

c) 2, 3, 4, 5

d) 3, 5, 6

Select ONE option.

22 / 40

22. Given the following priorities and dependencies for these test cases:

Which of the following test execution schedules BEST considers the priorities and technical and logical dependencies?

a) TC1 – TC3 – TC4 – TC6 – TC2 – TC5

b) TC4 – TC3 – TC1 – TC2 – TC5 – TC6

c) TC4 – TC1 – TC3 – TC5 – TC6 – TC2

d) TC4 – TC2 – TC5 – TC1 – TC3 – TC6

Select ONE option.

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23. Which one of the following is the characteristic of a metrics-based approach for test estimation?

a) Budget which was used by a previous similar test project

b) Overall experience collected in interviews with test managers

c) Estimation of effort for test automation agreed in the test team

d) Average of calculations collected from business experts

Select ONE option.

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24. Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PRODUCT risk?

a) The expected security features may not be supported by the system architecture

b) The developers may not have time to fix all the defects found by the test team

c) The test cases may not provide full coverage of the specified requirements

d) The performance test environment may not be ready before the system is due for delivery

Select ONE option.

25 / 40

25. You are running a performance test with the objective of finding possible network bottlenecks in interfaces between components of a system. Which of the following statements describes this test?

a) A functional test during the integration test level

b) A non-functional test during the integration test level

c) A functional test during the component test level

d) A non-functional test during the component test level

Select ONE option.

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26. Which of the following statements about static testing are MOST true?

a) Static testing is a cheap way to detect and remove defects

b) Static testing makes dynamic testing less challenging

c) Static testing makes it possible to find run-time problems early in the lifecycle

d) When testing safety-critical system, static testing has less value because dynamic testing finds the defects better

Select ONE options.

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27. A fitness app measures the number of steps that are walked each day and provides feedback to encourage the user to keep fit.

The feedback for different numbers of steps should be:

Up to 1000 - Couch Potato!
Above 1000, up to 2000 - Lazy Bones!
Above 2000, up to 4000 - Getting There!
Above 4000, up to 6000 - Not Bad!
Above 6000 - Way to Go!

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the BEST equivalence partition coverage?

a) 0, 1000, 2000, 3000, 4000

b) 1000, 2001, 4000, 4001, 6000

c) 123, 2345, 3456, 4567, 5678

d) 666, 999, 2222, 5555, 6666

Select ONE option.

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28. An employee’s bonus is to be calculated. It cannot be negative, but it can be calculated down to zero. The bonus is based on the length of employment:

• Less than or equal to 2 years
• More than 2 years but less than 5 years
• 5 to 10 years inclusively
• Longer than 10 years

What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for calculating the bonus?

a) 3

b) 5

c) 2

d) 4

Select ONE option.

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29. A daily radiation recorder for plants produces a sunshine score based on a combination of the number of hours a plant is exposed to the sun (below 3 hours, 3 to 6 hours or above 6 hours) and the average intensity of the sunshine (very low, low, medium, high).

Given the following test cases:

What is the minimum number of additional test cases that are needed to ensure full coverage of ALL VALID INPUT equivalence partitions?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

Select ONE option.

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30. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Impact analysis is useful for confirmation testing during maintenance testing

b) Confirmation testing is useful for regression testing during system design

c) Impact analysis is useful for regression testing during maintenance testing

d) Confirmation testing is useful for impact analysis during maintenance testing

Select ONE option.

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31. Consider the following state transition diagram for a credit-card only, unattended gasoline pump:

Assume that you want to develop the minimum number of tests to cover each transition in the state transition diagram. Assume further that each test must start at the beginning state, waiting for customer, and each test ends when a transition arrives at the beginning state. How many tests do you need?

a) 4

b) 7

c) 1

d) Infinite

Select ONE option.

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32. In what way can testing be part of Quality Assurance?

a) It ensures that requirements are detailed enough

b) Testing reduces the risk of poor software quality

c) It ensures that standards in the organization are followed

d) It measures the quality of software in terms of number of executed test cases

Select ONE option.

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33. Which one of the following is the description of statement coverage?

a) It is a metric, which is the percentage of test cases that have been executed

b) It is a metric, which is the percentage of statements in the source code that have been executed

c) It is a metric, which is the number of statements in the source code that have been executed by test cases that are passed

d) It is a metric, that gives a true/false confirmation if all statements are covered or not

Select ONE option.

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34. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of product risk analysis CORRECTLY influencing the testing?

a) The potential impact of security flaws has been identified as being particularly high, so security testing has been prioritized ahead of some other testing activities

b) Testing has found the quality of the network module to be higher than expected, so additional testing will be performed in that area

c) The users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, so additional usability testing is planned for the replacement system

d) The time needed to load web pages is crucial to the success of the new website, so an expert in performance testing has been employed for this project

Select ONE option.

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35. What is decision coverage?

a) The coverage of condition outcomes

b) Decision coverage is a synonym for statement coverage

c) The coverage of executable statements

d) The coverage of decision outcomes

Select ONE option.

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36. Which of the following is a common test metric often used to monitor BOTH test preparation and test execution?

a) Test case status

b) Defect find/fix rates

c) Test environment preparation

d) Estimated cost to find the next defect

Select ONE option.

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37. You will be invited to a review. The work product to be reviewed is a description of the in-house document creation process. The aim of the description is to present the work distribution between the different roles involved in the process in a way that can be clearly understood by everyone.

You will be invited to a checklist-based review. The checklist will also be sent to you. It includes the following points:

i. Is the person who performs the activity clearly identified for each activity?
ii. Are the entry criteria clearly defined for each activity?
iii. Are the exit criteria clearly defined for each activity?
iv. Are the supporting roles and their scope of work clearly defined for each activity?

In the following we show an excerpt of the work result to be reviewed, for which you should use the checklist above:

"After checking the customer documentation for completeness and correctness, the software architect creates the system specification. Once the software architect has completed the system specification, he invites testers and verifiers to the review. A checklist describes the scope of the review. Each invited reviewer creates review comments - if necessary - and concludes the review with an official review done-comment."

Which of the following statements about your review is correct?

a) Point ii) of the checklist has been violated because it is not clear which condition must be fulfilled to invite to the review

b) You notice that in addition to the tester and the verifier, the validator must also be invited. Since this item is not part of your checklist, you do not create a corresponding comment

c) Point iii) of the checklist has been violated as it is not clear what marks the review as completed

d) Point i) of the checklist has been violated because it is not clear who is providing the checklist for the invitation to the review

Select ONE option.

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38. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY reflects the value of static testing?

a) By introducing reviews, we have found that both the quality of specifications and the time required for development and testing have increased

b) Using static testing means we have better control and cheaper defect management due to the ease of detecting defects later in the lifecycle

c) Now that we require the use of static analysis, missed requirements have decreased and communication between testers and developers has improved

d) Since we started using static analysis, we find coding defects that might have not been found by performing only dynamic testing

Select ONE option.

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39. A phone ringing momentarily distracts a programmer, causing the programmer to improperly program the logic that checks the upper boundary of an input variable. Later, during system testing, a tester notices that this input field accepts invalid input values. The improperly coded logic for the upper boundary check is:

a) The root-cause

b) The failure

c) The error

d) The defect

Select ONE option.

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40. Which of the following statements comparing component testing and system testing is TRUE?

a) Component testing verifies the functionality of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system

b) Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications or use cases

c) Component testing only focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics

d) Component testing is the responsibility of the testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system

Select ONE option.

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