0% 2 12345678910111213141516171819202122232425262728293031323334353637383940 Created on June 25, 2024 By Admin 2018v3.1 - Exam 4 Name 1 / 40 1. You are testing an unattended gasoline pump that only accepts credit cards. Once the credit card is validated, the pump nozzle placed into the tank, and the desired grade selected, the customer enters the desired amount of fuel in gallons using the keypad. The keypad only allows the entry of digits. Fuel is sold in tenths (0.1) of a gallon, up to 50.0 gallons. Which of the following is a minimum set of desired amounts that covers the equivalence partitions for this input? a) 0.0, 20.0, 60.0 b) 0.0, 0.1, 50.0 c) 0.0, 0.1, 50.0, 70.0 d) -0.1, 0.0, 0.1, 49.9, 50.0, 50.1 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There are three equivalence partitions: • No sale completed (0.0 gallons) • A valid sale occurs (0.1 to 50.0 gallons) • An invalid amount is selected (50.1 or more gallons) Thus: a) Is correct. This set of input values has exactly one test per equivalence partition b) Is not correct. This set of input values has does not cover the invalid amount partition c) Is not correct. This set of input values has two tests for the valid sale equivalence partition, which is not the minimum d) Is not correct. This set of input values covers the three-point boundary values for the two boundaries, not the minimum number required to cover the equivalence partitions 2 / 40 2. Which of the following provides the definition of the term test case? a) Subset of the value domain of a variable within a component or system in which all values are expected to be treated the same based on the specification b) A set of preconditions, inputs, actions, expected results and post conditions, developed based on test conditions c) Work products produced during the test process for use in planning, designing, executing, evaluating, and reporting on testing d) A source to determine an expected result to compare with the actual result of the system under test Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Based on definition of equivalence partition b) Is correct. Based on definition from Glossary c) Is not correct. Based on Glossary definition of testware d) Is not correct. Based on definition of test oracle 3 / 40 3. Consider the following decision table for the portion of an online airline reservation system that allows frequent flyers to redeem points for reward travel: Suppose that there are two equivalence partitions for the condition where “Account/password okay” is not true, one where the account is invalid and another where the account is valid, but the password is invalid. Suppose that there is only one equivalence partition corresponding to the condition where “Account/password okay” is true, where both the account and password are valid. If you want to design tests to cover the equivalence partitions for “Account/password okay” and also for this portion of the decision table, what is the minimum number of tests required? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 9 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There is at least one test for each column in the decision table. However, column one requires two tests, one where the account is invalid and another where the account is valid, but the password is invalid, so the minimum number of tests is four. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is correct d) Is not correct 4 / 40 4. Which of the following is a true statement about exploratory testing? a) More experienced testers who have tested similar applications and technologies are likely to do better than less experienced testers at exploratory testing b) Exploratory testing does not identify any additional tests beyond those that would result from formal test techniques c) The time required to complete an exploratory testing session cannot be predicted in advance d) Exploratory testing can involve the use of black-box techniques but not white-box techniques Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Exploratory testing is a form of experience-based testing, which benefits from the skills and experience of the tester b) b) Is not correct. Exploratory testing is useful to complement formal testing techniques c) Is not correct. In session-based test management, exploratory testing is conducted within a defined time-box, and the tester uses a test charter containing test objectives to guide the testing d) Is not correct. Exploratory testing can incorporate the use of other black-box, white-box, and experience-based techniques referenced in this syllabus 5 / 40 5. Consider the following types of defects that a test level might focus on: a) Defects in separately testable modules or objects b) Not focused on identifying defects c) Defects in interfaces and interactions d) Defects in the whole test object Which of the following list correctly matches test levels from the Foundation syllabus with the defect focus options given above? a) 1 = performance test; 2 = component test; 3 = system test; 4 = acceptance test b) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = system test; 4 = integration test c) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = integration test; 4 = system test d) 1 = integration test; 2 = system test; 3 = component test; 4 = acceptance test Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Performance testing is a test type, not a test level. Component testing focuses on defects in separately testable modules or objects, integration testing on defects in interfaces and interactions, system testing on defects in the whole test object, and acceptance testing is not typically focused on identifying defects. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is correct d) Is not correct 6 / 40 6. Which of the following descriptions of decision coverage is CORRECT? a) Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of possible paths through the source code exercised by tests b) Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of business flows through the component exercised by tests c) Decision coverage is a measure of the ‘if’ statements in the code that are exercised with both the true and false outcomes d) Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes in the source code exercised by tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. A path through source code is one potential route through the code from the entry point to the exit point that could exercise a range of decision outcomes. Two different paths may exercise all but one of the same decision outcomes, and by just changing a single decision outcome a new path is followed. Test cases that would achieve decision coverage are typically a tiny subset of the test cases that would achieve path coverage. In practice, most non-trivial programs (and all programs with unconstrained loops, such as ‘while’ loops) have a potentially infinite number of possible paths through them and so measuring the percentage covered is practically infeasible b) Is not correct. Coverage of business flows can be a focus of use case testing, but use cases rarely cover a single component. It may be possible to cover the decisions within business flows, but only if they were specified in enough detail, however this option only suggests coverage of “business flows” as a whole. Even if business flows would cover some decisions, the measure “Decision Coverage” don’t measure the percentage of business flows, but the percentage of decision outcomes exercised by the business flows c) Is not correct. Achieving full decision coverage does require all ‘if’ statements to be exercised with both true and false outcomes, however, there are typically several other decision points in the code (e.g., ‘case’ statements and the code controlling loops) that also need to be taken into consideration when measuring decision coverage d) Is correct. Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes exercised (normally presented as a percentage) 7 / 40 7. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units. Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field? a) 10.0, 28.0 b) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1 c) 0.2, 0.9, 29.5 d) 12.3 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There are three equivalence partitions, with the boundaries as shown: • Invalid too low (0.4 and below) • Valid (0.5 to 25.0) • Invalid too high (25.1 and above) Thus: a) Is not correct. Only two of the equivalence partitions are covered in this set of tests b) Is not correct. Each of those four boundary values are included in this set of tests, but the question asked for equivalence partition coverage with minimal tests, so either 0.5 or 25.0 should be dropped c) Is correct. Each of these three equivalence partitions are covered in this set of tests d) Is not correct. Only one of those equivalence partitions is covered by this test 8 / 40 8. You have just completed a pilot project for a regression testing tool. You understand the tool much better and have tailored your testing process to it. You have standardized an approach to using the tool and its associated work products. Which of the following is a typical test automation pilot project goal that remains to be carried out? a) Learn more details about the tool b) See how the tool would fit with existing processes and practices c) Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing, and maintaining the tool and the test assets d) Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This is an objective for a pilot, but you have achieved it because you understand the tool much better due to the pilot b) Is not correct. This is an objective for a pilot, but you have achieved it because you have tailoring your testing processes c) Is not correct. This is an objective for a pilot, but you have achieved it because you have standardized an approach to using the tool and its associated work products d) Is correct. Assessing the benefits and configuring the metrics collection are the two objectives missing from this list 9 / 40 9. You are testing a mobile app that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. You are running a test suite that involves evaluating each screen and each field on each screen against a general list of user interface best practices, derived from a popular book on the topic, that maximize attractiveness, ease-of-use, and accessibility for such apps. Which of the following options BEST categorizes the test technique you are using? a) Specification-based b) Exploratory c) Checklist-based d) Error guessing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The book provides general guidance, and is not a formal requirements document, a specification, or a set of use cases, user stories, or business processes b) Is not correct. While you could consider the list as a set of test charters, it more closely resembles the list of test conditions c) Is correct. The list of user interface best practices is the list of test conditions d) Is not correct. The tests are not focused on failures that could occur, but rather on knowledge about what is important for the user, in terms of usability 10 / 40 10. Given that the testing being performed has the following attributes: • Based on interface specifications • Focused on finding failures in communication • The test approach uses both functional and structural test types Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed? a) Integration testing b) Acceptance testing c) System testing d) Component testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering the scenario: 1. ‘testing is based on interface specifications’ – the test basis for integration testing includes interface specifications (along with communication protocol specification), while these are not included for any of the other test levels 2. ‘testing is focused on finding failures in communication’ - failures in the communication between tested components is included as a typical failure for integration testing, but failures in communication is not included for any of the other test levels 3. ‘the test approach uses both functional and structural test types’ - functional and structural test types are both included as possible approaches for integration testing, and would also be appropriate for any of the other test levels, although they are only otherwise explicitly mentioned in the syllabus for system testing Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 11 / 40 11. Which of the following are two factors that can be used to determine the level of risk? a) Testing and development b) Dynamic and reactive c) Statement and decision d) Likelihood and impact Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The level of risk will be determined by the likelihood of an adverse event happening and the impact (the harm) from that event. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 12 / 40 12. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes a role of impact analysis in Maintenance Testing? a) Impact analysis is used when deciding if a fix to a maintained system is worthwhile b) Impact analysis is used to identify how data should be migrated into the maintained system c) Impact analysis is used to decide which hot fixes are of most value to the user d) Impact analysis is used to determine the effectiveness of new maintenance test cases Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Impact analysis may be used to identify those areas of the system that will be affected by the fix, and so the extent of the impact (e.g., necessary regression testing) can be used when deciding if the change is worthwhile b) Is not correct. Although testing migrated data is part of maintenance testing (see conversion testing), impact analysis does not identify how this is done c) Is not correct. Impact analysis shows which parts of a system are affected by a change, so it can show the difference between different hot fixes in terms of the impact on the system, however it does not give any indication of the value of the changes to the user d) Is not correct. Impact analysis shows which parts of a system are affected by a change; it cannot provide an indication of the effectiveness of test cases 13 / 40 13. As a test manager you are responsible for testing the following parts of requirements: • R1 - Process anomalies • R2 - Synchronization • R3 - Approval • R4 - Problem solving • R5 - Financial data • R6 - Diagram data • R7 - Changes to the user profile Notation: Logical requirement dependencies (A -> B means, that B depends on A): Which one of the following options structures the test execution schedule according to the requirement dependencies? a) R1 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 b) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R4 ; R7 ; R5 ; R6 c) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R4 ; R7 d) R1 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. R4 is dependent on R2, so R2 should be tested before R4 b) Is not correct. R4 is dependent on R2, R5 and R6, so R5 and R6 should be tested before R4 c) Is correct. The tests are specified in a sequence that takes the dependencies into account d) Is not correct. R2 is dependent on R3, so R3 should be tested before R2 14 / 40 14. You are performing system testing of a train reservation system. Based on the test cases performed, you have noticed that the system occasionally reports that no trains are available, although this should be the case. You have provided the developers with a summary of the defect and the version of the tested system. They recognize the urgency of the defect and are now waiting for you to provide further details. In addition to the information already provided, the following additional information is given: 1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect 2. Identification of the test object 3. Details of the test environment 4. Urgency/priority to fix 5. Actual results 6. Reference to test case specification Which of this additional information is most useful to include in the defect report? a) 1, 2, 6 b) 1, 4, 5, 6 c) 2, 3, 4, 5 d) 3, 5, 6 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering each of the pieces of information: 1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect – the developers are already aware of the problem and are waiting to fix it, so this is a less important piece of information. 2. Identification of the test object – as the developers are already aware of the problem and you are performing system testing, and you have already provided the version of the system you are testing you can assume they know the object that was being tested, so this is a less important piece of information. 3. Details of the test environment – the set-up of the test environment may have a noticeable effect on the test results, and detailed information should be provided, so this is an important piece of information. 4. Urgency/priority to fix – the developers are already aware of the problem and are waiting to fix it, so this is a less important piece of information. 5. Actual results – the actual results may well help the developers to determine what is going wrong with the system, so this is an important piece of information. 6. Reference to test case specification – this will show the developers the tests you ran, including the test inputs that caused the system to fail (and expected results), so this is an important piece of information. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 15 / 40 15. Which one of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test execution tools? a) It is easy to create regression tests b) It is easy to maintain version control of test assets c) It is easy to design tests for security testing d) It is easy to run regression tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The benefits are not when creating regressions tests, more in executing them b) Is not correct. This is done by configuration management tools c) Is not correct. This needs specialized tools d) Is correct. Reduction in repetitive manual work (e.g., running regression tests, environment set up/tear down tasks, re-entering the same test data, and checking against coding standards), thus saving time 16 / 40 16. Which of the following statements is true? a) Impact analysis is useful for confirmation testing during maintenance testing b) Confirmation testing is useful for regression testing during system design c) Impact analysis is useful for regression testing during maintenance testing d) Confirmation testing is useful for impact analysis during maintenance testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While impact analysis is useful during maintenance testing it is not necessary for confirmation testing since confirmation testing is on the intended effects of a bug fix or other change b) Is not correct. Confirmation and regression testing are two separate activities, and confirmation testing is not part of system design c) Is correct. Impact analysis can be used to select regression tests for maintenance testing d) Is not correct. Confirmation testing is not part of impact analysis, though confirmation testing will typically happen during maintenance testing 17 / 40 17. Which of the following statements is a valid objective for testing? a) The test should start as late as possible so that development had enough time to create a good product b) To validate whether the test object works as expected by the users and other stakeholders c) To prove that all possible defects are identified d) To prove that any remaining defects will not cause any failures Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Contradiction to principle 3: “Early testing saves time and money” b) Is correct. This is one objective of testing c) Is not correct. Principle #2 states that exhaustive testing is impossible, so one can never prove that all defects were identified d) Is not correct. To make an assessment whether a defect will cause a failure or not, one must detect the defect first. Saying that no remaining defect will cause a failure implicitly means that all defects were found. This again contradicts principle #2 18 / 40 18. Which one of the statements below describes the most common situation for a failure discovered during testing or in production? a) The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box b) The wrong version of a compiled source code file was included in the build c) The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables d) The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. A crash is clearly noticeable by the user b) Is not correct. This is a defect, not a failure since there is something wrong in the code. It may not result in a visible or noticeable failure, for example if the changes in the source code file are only in comments c) Is not correct. The use of wrong input variables may not result in a visible or noticeable failure, for example if nobody uses this particular algorithm; or if the wrong input variable has a similar value to the correct input variable; or if the FALSE result of the algorithm is not used d) Is not correct. This type of fault will not necessarily lead to a failure; for example, if no one uses this special algorithm 19 / 40 19. A daily radiation recorder for plants produces a sunshine score based on a combination of the number of hours a plant is exposed to the sun (below 3 hours, 3 to 6 hours or above 6 hours) and the average intensity of the sunshine (very low, low, medium, high). Given the following test cases: What is the minimum number of additional test cases that are needed to ensure full coverage of ALL VALID INPUT equivalence partitions? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The following valid input equivalence partitions can be identified: • Hours 1. Below 3 hours 2. 3 to 6 hours 3. Above 6 hours • Intensity 4. Very low 5. Low 6. Medium 7. High The given test cases cover the following valid input equivalence partitions: Thus, the missing valid input equivalence partitions are: (2), (5) and (7). These can be covered by two test cases, as (2) can be combined with either (5) or (7). Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 20 / 40 20. Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the test manager? a) Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing b) Review tests developed by others c) Prepare and acquire test data d) Analyze, review, and assess requirements, specifications, and models for testability Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. One of the typical tasks of a test manager b) Is not correct. One of the typical tasks of a tester c) Is not correct. One of the typical tasks of a tester d) Is not correct. One of the typical tasks of a tester 21 / 40 21. During a period of intensive project overtime, a system architecture document is sent to various project participants, announcing a previously unplanned technical review to occur in one week. No adjustments are made to the participants’ list of assigned tasks. Based on this information alone, which of the following is a factor for review success that is MISSING? a) Appropriate review type b) Adequate time to prepare c) Sufficient metrics to evaluate the author d) Well-managed review meeting Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Technical reviews are appropriate for technical documents such as a system architecture b) Is correct. Adequate time for preparation is important, but people are working overtime and no adjustments are made for this new set of tasks c) Is not correct. Gathering metrics from a review to evaluate participants is a factor that leads to failure, not success, because it destroys trust d) Is not correct. A well-managed review meeting is important, but there is no reason to think the review meeting will not be well managed based on the information provided 22 / 40 22. Which of the following provides the BEST description of exploratory testing? a) A testing practice in which an in-depth investigation of the background of the test object is used to identify potential weaknesses that are examined by test cases b) An approach to testing whereby the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests c) An approach to test design in which test activities are planned as uninterrupted sessions of test analysis and design, often used in conjunction with checklist-based testing d) Testing based on the tester's experience, knowledge, and intuition Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Exploratory testing is often carried out when timescales are short, so making in-depth investigations of the background of the test object is unlikely b) Is correct. Glossary definition c) Is not correct. Based on the Glossary definition of session-based testing, but with test execution replaced by test analysis d) Is not correct. Glossary definition of experience-based testing 23 / 40 23. A video application has the following requirement: The application shall allow playing a video on the following display resolution: 1. 640x480 2. 1280x720 3. 1600x1200 4. 1920x1080 Which of the following list of test cases is a result of applying the equivalence partitioning test technique to test this requirement? a) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 1920x1080 (1 test case) b) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 640x480 and 1920x1080 (2 test cases) c) Verify that the application can play a video on each of the display sizes in the requirement (4 test cases) d) Verify that the application can play a video on any one of the display sizes in the requirement (1 test case) Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. See reason from correct answer b) Is not correct. See reason from correct answer c) Is correct. This is a case where the requirement gives an enumeration of discrete values. Each enumeration value is an equivalence class by itself; therefore, each will be tested when using equivalence partitioning test technique d) Is not correct. See reason from correct answer 24 / 40 24. Which of the following is an example of a task that can be carried out as part of the test process? a) Analyzing a defect b) Designing test data c) Assigning a version to a test item d) Writing a user story Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Analyzing a defect is part of debugging, not testing b) Is correct. Creating test data is a test implementation task c) Is not correct. While a tester may need to identify a test item’s version for results reporting purposes, assigning a test item’s version is part of configuration management d) Is not correct. Writing a user story is not a testing activity and should be done by the product owner 25 / 40 25. Which of the following descriptions of statement coverage is CORRECT? a) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of lines of source code exercised by tests b) Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests c) Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of lines of source code (without comments) exercised by tests d) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements exercised by tests. The number of executable statements is often close to the number of lines of code minus the comments, but this option only talks about the number of lines of code exercised and not the proportion exercised b) Is correct. Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements exercised by tests (normally presented as a percentage) c) Is not correct. Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of executable statements exercised by tests, however many of the lines of source code are not executable (e.g., comments) d) Is not correct. Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements exercised by tests. This option only talks about the number of executable statements exercised and not the proportion (or percentage) exercised 26 / 40 26. Which of the following BEST defines risk level? a) Risk level is calculated by adding together the probabilities of all problem situations and the financial harm that results from them b) Risk level is estimated by multiplying the likelihood of a threat to the system by the chance that the threat will occur and will result in financial damage c) Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable event and the expected impact of that event d) Risk level is the sum of all potential hazards to a system multiplied by the sum of all potential losses from that system Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Risk is determined by considering a combination of the likelihood of problem situations and the harm that may result from them but cannot be calculated by adding these together (the probability would be in the range 0 to 1 and the harm could be in dollars) b) Is not correct. Risk is determined by considering a combination of a likelihood and an impact. This definition only considers likelihood and chance (both forms of probability) with no consideration of the impact (or harm) c) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers d) Is not correct. Risk is determined by considering a combination of a likelihood and an impact. This definition only considers hazards and losses (a hazard is a bad event, like a risk, while loss is a form of impact) with no consideration of the likelihood (or probability) 27 / 40 27. You are working as a project manager on an in-house banking software project. To prevent rework and excessive find/fix/retest cycles, the following process has been put in place for resolving a defect once it is found in the test lab: 1. The assigned developer finds and fixes the defect, then creates an experimental build 2. A peer developer reviews, unit tests, and confirmation tests the defect fix on his/her desktop 3. A tester – usually the one who found the defect – confirmation tests the defect fix in the development environment 4. Once a day, a new release with all confirmed defect fixes included, is installed in the test environment 5. The same tester from step 3 confirmation tests the defect fix in the test environment Nevertheless, a large number of defects which the testers confirmed as fixed in the development environment (in step 3) are somehow failing confirmation testing in the test environment, with the resulting rework and cycle time outcomes. You have the highest confidence in your testers and have ruled out mistakes or omissions in step 3. Which of the following is the MOST likely part of the process to check next? a) The activity of developers, who may not be adequately testing in step 2 b) The activity of testers, who may be confused about what to test in step 5 c) Configuration management, which may not be maintaining the integrity of the product in step 4 d) The activity of developers, who may not be fixing defects properly in step 1 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. If inadequate developer testing were the problem, the confirmation test would not pass in step 3 b) Is not correct. The same tester who successfully performed the confirmation test in step 3 is repeating it in step 5 c) Is correct. Configuration management maintains the integrity of the software. If a test that passes in step 3 fails in step 5, then something is different between those two steps. One possible difference is the test object, the option listed here. Another possible difference is the between the development environment and the test environment, but that is not an option listed here d) Is not correct. If the developers were not fixing the defect, the confirmation test would not pass in step 3 28 / 40 28. A tester participated in a discussion about proposed database structure. The tester identified a potential performance problem related to certain common user searches. This possible problem was explained to the development team. Which of the following is a testing contribution to success that BEST matches this situation? a) Enabling required tests to be identified at an early stage b) Ensuring processes are carried out properly c) Reducing the risk of fundamental design defects d) Reducing the risk of untestable functionality Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While enabling required tests to be identified in an early stage is a testing contribution to success, there is no indication in the question that the tester did so b) Is not correct. Ensuring processes are carried out properly is part of quality assurance, not a testing contribution to success c) Is correct. Reducing the risk of fundamental design defects is a testing contribution to success. Database structure is related to design, and performance problems can be a significant product risk d) Is not correct. While reducing the risk of untestable functionality is a testing contribution to success, the tester here has not identified something untestable, but rather something that would result in performance tests failing 29 / 40 29. You are working as a tester on an online banking system. Availability is considered one of the top products (quality) risks for the system. You find a reproducible failure that results in customers losing their connections to the bank Web site when transferring funds between common types of accounts and being unable to reconnect for between three and five minutes. Which of the following would be a good summary for a defect report for this failure, one that captures both the essence of the failure and its impact on stakeholders? a) Web server logs show error 0x44AB27 when running test 07.005, which is not an expected error message in /tmp filesystem b) Developers have introduced major availability defect which will seriously upset our customers c) Performance is slow and reliability flaky under load d) Typical funds-transfer transaction results in termination of customer session, with a delay in availability when attempting to reconnect Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While this information is useful for developers, it does not provide managers with a sense of the impact on product quality b) Is not correct. This summary does not provide developers or managers with the necessary information and attacks the developers c) Is not correct. This summary does not provide developers or managers with the necessary information and attacks the developers d) Is correct. This summary gives a good sense of the failure and its impact 30 / 40 30. A mass market operating system software product is designed to run on any PC hardware with an x86-family processor. You are running a set of tests to look for defects related to support of the various PCs that use such a processor and to build confidence that important PC brands will work. What type of test are you performing? a) Performance test b) Processor test c) Functional test d) Portability test Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The test described is a non-functional test, it is a portability test, not a performance test b) Is not correct. Processor test is not a defined test type c) Is not correct. The test described is a non-functional test, specifically a portability test d) Is correct. Testing supported devices is a non-functional test, specifically a portability test 31 / 40 31. Which of the following activities is part of the main activity "test analysis" in the test process? a) Identifying any required infrastructure and tools b) Creating test suites from test scripts c) Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement d) Evaluating the test basis for testability Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This activity is performed during the test design activity (test design) b) Is not correct. This activity is performed during the test implementation activity (test implementation) c) Is not correct. This activity is performed during the test completion activity (test completion) d) Is correct. This activity is performed during the test analysis activity (test analysis) 32 / 40 32. Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing? a) Error guessing requires you to imagine you are the user of the test object and guess mistakes the user could make interacting with it b) Error guessing involves using your personal experience of development and the mistakes you made as a developer c) Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past and typical mistakes made by developers d) Error guessing requires you to rapidly duplicate the development task to identify the sort of mistakes a developer might make Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. error guessing is not a usability technique for guessing how users may fail to interact with the test object b) Is not correct. Although a tester who used to be a developer may use their personal experience to help them when performing error guessing, the technique is not based on prior knowledge of development c) Is correct. The basic concept behind error guessing is that the tester tries to guess what mistakes may have been made by the developer and what defects may be in the test object based on past-experience (and sometimes checklists) d) Is not correct. Duplicating the development task has several flaws that make it impractical, such as the requirement for the tester to have equivalent skills to the developer and the time involved in performing the development. It is not error guessing 33 / 40 33. Which of the following is a typical test objective? a) Preventing defects b) Repairing defects c) Comparing actual results to expected results d) Analyzing the cause of failure Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. This is an objective listed b) Is not correct. This is debugging c) Is not correct. This is an activity within the test execution group of activities within the test process d) Is not correct. This is part of debugging 34 / 40 34. Which of the following options are roles in a formal review? a) Developer, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Tester b) Author, Moderator, Manager, Reviewer, Developer c) Author, Manager, Review leader, Reviewer, Designer d) Author, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Scribe Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Tester and developer are NOT roles in a formal review b) Is not correct. Developer is NOT a role in a formal review c) Is not correct. Designer is NOT a role in a formal review d) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers 35 / 40 35. Which of the following qualities is MORE likely to be found in a tester’s mindset rather than in a developer’s? a) A tester´s mindset tends to grow and mature as the tester gains experience b) Ability to see what might go wrong c) Good communication with team members d) Focus on getting all things done Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Both developers and testers gain from experience b) Is correct. Developers are often more interested in designing and building solutions than in contemplating what might be wrong with those solutions c) Is not correct. Both developers and testers should be able to communicate well d) Is not correct. Testers shall focus on the quality, not on the quantity 36 / 40 36. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of product risk analysis CORRECTLY influencing the testing? a) The potential impact of security flaws has been identified as being particularly high, so security testing has been prioritized ahead of some other testing activities b) Testing has found the quality of the network module to be higher than expected, so additional testing will be performed in that area c) The users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, so additional usability testing is planned for the replacement system d) The time needed to load web pages is crucial to the success of the new website, so an expert in performance testing has been employed for this project Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale This question is looking for bad application of product risk analysis. a) Is not correct. As we are told security flaws have a particularly high impact, their risk level will be higher, and thus we have prioritized the security testing ahead of some other testing. Thus, product risk analysis has influenced the testing properly. b) Is correct. As less defects than expected have been found in the network module, the perceived risk in this area should be lower, and so less testing should be focused on this area, NOT additional testing. Thus, product risk analysis has NOT CORRECTLY influenced the testing in this situation c) Is not correct. Because the users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, there is now high awareness of the risk associated with the user interface, which has resulted in additional usability testing being planned. Thus, product risk analysis has properly influenced the thoroughness and scope of testing d) Is not correct. As the time needed to load web pages has been identified as crucial to the success of the new website, the performance of the website should be considered a risk, and the employment of an expert in performance testing helps to mitigate this risk. Thus, product risk analysis has properly influenced the testing 37 / 40 37. Which of the following statements about test types and test levels is CORRECT? a) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing b) Functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component testing c) It is possible to perform functional, non-functional and white-box testing at any test level d) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level - so, although it is correct that functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels, it is incorrect to state that white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing b) Is not correct. It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level - so, it is incorrect to state that white-box testing is restricted to component testing c) Is correct. It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level d) Is not correct. It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level - so, it is incorrect to state that white-box testing is restricted to component testing and integration testing 38 / 40 38. Consider the following list of undesirable outcomes that could occur on a mobile app development effort: A. Incorrect totals on screens B. Change to acceptance criteria during acceptance testing C. Users find the soft keyboard too hard to use with your app D. System responds too slowly to user input during search string entry E. Testers not allowed to report test results in daily standup meetings Which of the following properly classifies these outcomes as project and product risks? a) Product risks: B, E; Project risks: A, C, D b) Product risks: A, C, D; Project risks: B, E c) Product risks: A, C, D, E Project risks: B d) Product risks: A, C Project risks: B, D, E Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Product risks exist when a work product may fail to satisfy legitimate needs, while project risks are situations that could have a negative impact on the project’s ability to achieve its objectives. So: A. Incorrect totals on screens = product risk B. Change to acceptance criteria during acceptance testing = project risk C. Users find the soft keyboard too hard to use with your app = product risk D. System responds too slowly to user input during search string entry = product risk E. Testers not allowed to report test results in daily standup meetings = project risk Thus: a) Is not correct. This list is entirely backwards b) Is correct c) Is not correct. While E is about product quality and product risks, the failure to communicate test results is a project risk per the syllabus d) Is not correct. Product risks can be functional and non-functional, so d is also a product risk 39 / 40 39. You are reading a user story in the product backlog to prepare for a meeting with the product owner and a developer, noting potential defects as you go. Which of the following statements is true about this activity? a) It is not a static test, because static testing involves execution of the test object b) It is not a static test, because static testing is always performed using a tool c) It is a static test, because any defects you find could be found cheaper during dynamic testing d) It is a static test because static testing does not involve execution of the test object Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Static testing does not involve execution of the test object b) Is not correct. Some static tests involve the use of a tool, especially static analysis, but reviews (such as the activity described here) do not necessarily involve the use of a tool c) Is not correct. The review activity described here is part of a static test, but defects found in static tests are usually cheaper than those found in dynamic testing d) Is correct. Static testing does not involve execution of the test object 40 / 40 40. Which of the review types below is the BEST option to choose when the review must follow a formal process based on rules and checklists? a) Informal Review b) Technical Review c) Inspection d) Walkthrough Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Informal review does not use a formal process b) Is not correct. Use of checklists are optional c) Is correct. Inspection is a formal process based on rules and checklists d) Is not correct. Does not explicitly require a formal process and the use of checklists is optional 0% Restart quiz
