2018v3.1 – Exam 4 – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 25, 2024 By

Admin

2018v3.1 - Exam 4

Name

1 / 40

1. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the unit’s field is 0.1 units.

Which of the following is a set of input values that cover the boundary values with two-point boundary values for this field?

a) 0.3, 10.0, 28.0

b) 0.4, 0.5, 0.6, 24, 9, 25, 0, 25.1

c) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0 25.1

d) 0.5, 0.6, 24.9, 25.0

Select ONE option.

2 / 40

2. Which of the following statements about static testing are MOST true?

a) Static testing is a cheap way to detect and remove defects

b) Static testing makes dynamic testing less challenging

c) Static testing makes it possible to find run-time problems early in the lifecycle

d) When testing safety-critical system, static testing has less value because dynamic testing finds the defects better

Select ONE options.

3 / 40

3. Which of the following statements comparing component testing and system testing is TRUE?

a) Component testing verifies the functionality of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system

b) Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications or use cases

c) Component testing only focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics

d) Component testing is the responsibility of the testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system

Select ONE option.

4 / 40

4. A company's employees are paid bonuses if they work more than a year in the company and achieve a target which is individually agreed before.

These facts can be shown in a decision table:

Which of the following test cases represents a situation that can happen in real life, and is missing in the above decision table?

a) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO

b) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= YES

c) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO

d) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= NO

Select ONE option.

5 / 40

5. Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case?

a) Test cases are created to exercise defined basic, exceptional and error behaviors performed by the system under test in collaboration with actors

b) Test cases are derived by identifying the components included in the use case and creating integration tests that exercise the interactions of these components

c) Test cases are generated by analyzing the interactions of the actors with the system to ensure the user interfaces are easy to use

d) Test cases are derived to exercise each of the decision points in the business process flows of the use case, to achieve 100% decision coverage of these flows

Select ONE option.

6 / 40

6. A video application has the following requirement: The application shall allow playing a video on the following display resolution:

1. 640x480
2. 1280x720
3. 1600x1200
4. 1920x1080

Which of the following list of test cases is a result of applying the equivalence partitioning test technique to test this requirement?

a) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 1920x1080 (1 test case)

b) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 640x480 and 1920x1080 (2 test cases)

c) Verify that the application can play a video on each of the display sizes in the requirement (4 test cases)

d) Verify that the application can play a video on any one of the display sizes in the requirement (1 test case)

Select ONE option.

7 / 40

7. Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester?

a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and set the tools usage guidelines

b) The test manager plans, coordinates, and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests

c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides on the release of the test object

d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester executes the tests

Select ONE option.

8 / 40

8. A tester participated in a discussion about proposed database structure. The tester identified a potential performance problem related to certain common user searches. This possible problem was explained to the development team. Which of the following is a testing contribution to success that BEST matches this situation?

a) Enabling required tests to be identified at an early stage

b) Ensuring processes are carried out properly

c) Reducing the risk of fundamental design defects

d) Reducing the risk of untestable functionality

Select ONE option.

9 / 40

9. Which one of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test execution tools?

a) It is easy to create regression tests

b) It is easy to maintain version control of test assets

c) It is easy to design tests for security testing

d) It is easy to run regression tests

Select ONE option.

10 / 40

10. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes:

• There is a role of a scribe
• The purpose is to detect potential defects
• The review meeting is led by the author
• Reviewers find potential defects by individual review
• A review report is produced

Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used?

a) Informal Review

b) Walkthrough

c) Technical Review

d) Inspection

Select ONE option.

11 / 40

11. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Impact analysis is useful for confirmation testing during maintenance testing

b) Confirmation testing is useful for regression testing during system design

c) Impact analysis is useful for regression testing during maintenance testing

d) Confirmation testing is useful for impact analysis during maintenance testing

Select ONE option.

12 / 40

12. Which of the following is an example of a task that can be carried out as part of the test process?

a) Analyzing a defect

b) Designing test data

c) Assigning a version to a test item

d) Writing a user story

Select ONE option.

13 / 40

13. During an Agile development effort, a product owner discovers a previously unknown regulatory requirement that applies to most of the user stories within a particular epic. The user stories are updated to provide for the necessary changes in software behavior. The programmers on the team are modifying the code appropriately. As a tester on the team, what types of tests will you run?

a) Confirmation tests

b) Regression tests

c) Functional tests

d) Change-related tests

Select ONE option.

14 / 40

14. Which of the following can affect and be part of the (initial) test planning?

a) Budget limitations

b) Test log

c) Failure rate

d) Use cases

Select ONE options.

15 / 40

15. Which of the following options are roles in a formal review?

a) Developer, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Tester

b) Author, Moderator, Manager, Reviewer, Developer

c) Author, Manager, Review leader, Reviewer, Designer

d) Author, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Scribe

Select ONE option.

16 / 40

16. Consider the following types of defects that a test level might focus on:

a) Defects in separately testable modules or objects
b) Not focused on identifying defects
c) Defects in interfaces and interactions
d) Defects in the whole test object

Which of the following list correctly matches test levels from the Foundation syllabus with the defect focus options given above?

a) 1 = performance test; 2 = component test; 3 = system test; 4 = acceptance test

b) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = system test; 4 = integration test

c) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = integration test; 4 = system test

d) 1 = integration test; 2 = system test; 3 = component test; 4 = acceptance test

Select ONE option.

17 / 40

17. For which of the following situations is exploratory testing suitable?

a) When time pressure requires speeding up the execution of tests already specified

b) When the system is developed incrementally, and no test charter is available

c) When testers are available who have enough knowledge of similar applications and technologies

d) When an advanced knowledge of the system already exists, and evidence is to be if it should be tested intensively

Select ONE option.

18 / 40

18. Which of the following statements BEST compares the purposes of confirmation testing and regression testing?

a) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that all previously run tests still work correctly, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to ensure that any fixes made to one part of the system have not adversely affected other parts

b) The purpose of confirmation testing is to check that a previously found defect has been fixed, while the purpose of regression testing is to ensure that no other parts of the system have been adversely affected by the fix

c) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that any changes to one part of the system have not caused another part to fail, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check that all previously run tests still provide the same results as before

d) The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that changes to the system were made successfully, while the purpose of regression testing is to run tests that previously failed to ensure that they now work correctly

Select ONE option.

19 / 40

19. What is decision coverage?

a) The coverage of condition outcomes

b) Decision coverage is a synonym for statement coverage

c) The coverage of executable statements

d) The coverage of decision outcomes

Select ONE option.

20 / 40

20. You are running a performance test with the objective of finding possible network bottlenecks in interfaces between components of a system. Which of the following statements describes this test?

a) A functional test during the integration test level

b) A non-functional test during the integration test level

c) A functional test during the component test level

d) A non-functional test during the component test level

Select ONE option.

21 / 40

21. A phone ringing momentarily distracts a programmer, causing the programmer to improperly program the logic that checks the upper boundary of an input variable. Later, during system testing, a tester notices that this input field accepts invalid input values. The improperly coded logic for the upper boundary check is:

a) The root-cause

b) The failure

c) The error

d) The defect

Select ONE option.

22 / 40

22. You are working on a video game development project, using Agile methods. It is based on Greek mythology and history, and players can play key roles in scenarios such as the battles between the Greeks and Trojans.

Consider the following user story and its associated acceptance criteria:

As a player,
I want to be able to acquire the Rod of Midas (a new magic object),
so that I can turn objects and other players into gold
AC1: The Rod must work on any object or player, no matter what size, which can be touched anywhere by the player holding the Rod
AC2: Holding the Rod does not change the player holding it into gold
AC3: Any object or player touched by the Rod transforms completely into gold within one millisecond
AC4: The Rod appears as shown in Prototype O.W.RoM
AC5: The transformation starts at the point of contact with the Rod and moves at a rate of one meter per millisecond

You are participating in a checklist-based review session of this user story.

This user story and its associated acceptance criteria contain which of the following typical defects identified by static testing in this type of work product?

a) Deviation from standards

b) Contradiction

c) Security vulnerability

d) Coverage gaps

Select ONE option.

23 / 40

23. Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing?

a) Error guessing requires you to imagine you are the user of the test object and guess mistakes the user could make interacting with it

b) Error guessing involves using your personal experience of development and the mistakes you made as a developer

c) Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past and typical mistakes made by developers

d) Error guessing requires you to rapidly duplicate the development task to identify the sort of mistakes a developer might make

Select ONE option.

24 / 40

24. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and debugging?

a) Testing identifies the source of defects; debugging analyzes the defects and proposes prevention activities

b) Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects; debugging eliminates the defects, which are the source of failures

c) Testing removes faults; but debugging removes defects that cause the faults

d) Dynamic testing prevents the causes of failures; debugging removes the failures

Select ONE option.

25 / 40

25. You are testing a new version of software for a coffee machine. The machine can prepare different types of coffee based on four categories. i.e., coffee size, sugar, milk, and syrup. The criteria are as follows:

• Coffee size (small, medium, large)
• Sugar (none, 1 unit, 2 units, 3 units, 4 units)
• Milk (yes or no)
• Coffee flavor syrup (no syrup, caramel, hazelnut, vanilla)

Now you are writing a defect report with the following information:

• Title: Low coffee temperature.
• Short summary: When you select coffee with milk, the time for preparing coffee is too long and the temperature of the beverage is too low (less than 40 °C).
• Expected result: The temperature of coffee should be standard (about 75 °C).
• Degree of risk: Medium
• Priority: Normal

What valuable information was omitted in the above defect report?

a) The actual test results

b) Identification of the tested software version

c) Status of the defect

d) Ideas for improving the test case

Select ONE option.

26 / 40

26. Which of the following statements is a valid objective for testing?

a) The test should start as late as possible so that development had enough time to create a good product

b) To validate whether the test object works as expected by the users and other stakeholders

c) To prove that all possible defects are identified

d) To prove that any remaining defects will not cause any failures

Select ONE option.

27 / 40

27. You are performing system testing of a train reservation system. Based on the test cases performed, you have noticed that the system occasionally reports that no trains are available, although this should be the case. You have provided the developers with a summary of the defect and the version of the tested system. They recognize the urgency of the defect and are now waiting for you to provide further details.

In addition to the information already provided, the following additional information is given:

1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect
2. Identification of the test object
3. Details of the test environment
4. Urgency/priority to fix
5. Actual results
6. Reference to test case specification

Which of this additional information is most useful to include in the defect report?

a) 1, 2, 6

b) 1, 4, 5, 6

c) 2, 3, 4, 5

d) 3, 5, 6

Select ONE option.

28 / 40

28. Which of the following is a typical test objective?

a) Preventing defects

b) Repairing defects

c) Comparing actual results to expected results

d) Analyzing the cause of failure

Select ONE option.

29 / 40

29. Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria:

1. The original testing budget of $30,000 plus contingency of $7,000 has been spent
2. 96% of planned tests for the drawing package have been executed and the remaining tests are now out of scope
3. The trading performance test environment has been designed, set-up and verified
4. Current status is no outstanding critical defects and two high-priority ones
5. The autopilot design specifications have been reviewed and reworked
6. The tax rate calculation component has passed unit testing.

Which of the following BEST categorizes them as entry and exit criteria:

a) Entry criteria – 5, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 2, 3, 4

b) Entry criteria – 2, 3, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 4, 5

c) Entry criteria – 1, 3; Exit criteria – 2, 4, 5, 6

d) Entry criteria – 3, 5, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 2, 4

Select ONE option.

30 / 40

30. Which of the following is a typical objective of testing?

a) To find defects and failures

b) To validate the project plan works as required

c) Ensuring of complete testing

d) Comparing actual results with expected results

Select ONE option.

31 / 40

31. During a period of intensive project overtime, a system architecture document is sent to various project participants, announcing a previously unplanned technical review to occur in one week. No adjustments are made to the participants’ list of assigned tasks. Based on this information alone, which of the following is a factor for review success that is MISSING?

a) Appropriate review type

b) Adequate time to prepare

c) Sufficient metrics to evaluate the author

d) Well-managed review meeting

Select ONE option.

32 / 40

32. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independent testing?

a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team, so ensuring everyone is aware that quality is the test team’s overall responsibility

b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines

c) An independent test team can work totally separately from the developers, need not be distracted with changing project requirements, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system

d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer

Select ONE option.

33 / 40

33. Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review?

a) Manager – Decides on the execution of reviews

b) Review Leader - Ensures effective running of review meetings

c) Scribe – Fixes defects in the work product under review

d) Moderator – Monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness

34 / 40

34. What is checklist-based testing?

a) A test technique in which tests are derived based on the tester's knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures

b) A test technique based on an analysis of the specification of a component or system

c) An experience-based test technique whereby the experienced tester uses a list of items to be noted, checked, or remembered, or a set of rules or criteria against which a product must be verified

d) An approach to testing where the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests

Select ONE option.

35 / 40

35. During a project following Agile methods, you find a discrepancy between the developer’s interpretation of an acceptance criteria and the product owner’s interpretation, which you bring up during a user story refinement session. Which of the following is a benefit of test independence exemplified by this situation?

a) Recognizing different kinds of failures

b) Taking primary responsibility for quality

c) Removing a defect early

d) Challenging stakeholder assumptions

Select ONE option.

36 / 40

36. A product owner says that your role as a tester on an Agile team is to catch all the bugs before the end of each iteration. Which of the following is a testing principle that could be used to respond to this (false) statement?

a) Defect clustering

b) Testing shows the presence of defects

c) Absence of error fallacy

d) Root cause analysis

Select ONE option.

37 / 40

37. You are working as a tester on an online banking system. Availability is considered one of the top products (quality) risks for the system. You find a reproducible failure that results in customers losing their connections to the bank Web site when transferring funds between common types of accounts and being unable to reconnect for between three and five minutes.

Which of the following would be a good summary for a defect report for this failure, one that captures both the essence of the failure and its impact on stakeholders?

a) Web server logs show error 0x44AB27 when running test 07.005, which is not an expected error message in /tmp filesystem

b) Developers have introduced major availability defect which will seriously upset our customers

c) Performance is slow and reliability flaky under load

d) Typical funds-transfer transaction results in termination of customer session, with a delay in availability when attempting to reconnect

Select ONE option.

38 / 40

38. Which of the following statements about test types and test levels is CORRECT?

a) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing

b) Functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component testing

c) It is possible to perform functional, non-functional and white-box testing at any test level

d) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing

Select ONE option.

39 / 40

39. You have just completed a pilot project for a regression testing tool. You understand the tool much better and have tailored your testing process to it. You have standardized an approach to using the tool and its associated work products. Which of the following is a typical test automation pilot project goal that remains to be carried out?

a) Learn more details about the tool

b) See how the tool would fit with existing processes and practices

c) Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing, and maintaining the tool and the test assets

d) Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost

Select ONE option.

40 / 40

40. Given that the testing being performed has the following attributes:

• Based on interface specifications
• Focused on finding failures in communication
• The test approach uses both functional and structural test types

Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed?

a) Integration testing

b) Acceptance testing

c) System testing

d) Component testing

Select ONE option.

0%