0% 2 12345678910111213141516171819202122232425262728293031323334353637383940 Created on June 25, 2024 By Admin 2018v3.1 - Exam 4 Name 1 / 40 1. Which of the following statements on the use of checklists in a formal review is CORRECT? a) As part of the review planning, the reviewers create the checklists needed for the review b) As part of the issue communication, the reviewers fill in the checklists provided for the review c) As part of the review meeting, the reviewers create defect reports based on the checklists provided for the review d) As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists needed for the review Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. During planning it is decided whether checklists are used. The preparation of the checklists is not part of the planning. In addition, the reviewers are neither involved in the planning, nor responsible for the creation of the checklists b) Is not correct. During issue communication, any potential defects that have been identified in the individual review are communicated. The completion of checklists by the reviewers already takes place, if at all, during individual review c) Is not correct. During review session, the reviewers communicate any potential defects of the work product that they did identify during the individual review. Defect reports are only created during the fixing and reporting activity d) Is correct. Initiating the review (“Kick-off”) involves distributing the work product and other materials, like checklists 2 / 40 2. Which of the following statements BEST compares the purposes of confirmation testing and regression testing? a) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that all previously run tests still work correctly, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to ensure that any fixes made to one part of the system have not adversely affected other parts b) The purpose of confirmation testing is to check that a previously found defect has been fixed, while the purpose of regression testing is to ensure that no other parts of the system have been adversely affected by the fix c) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that any changes to one part of the system have not caused another part to fail, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check that all previously run tests still provide the same results as before d) The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that changes to the system were made successfully, while the purpose of regression testing is to run tests that previously failed to ensure that they now work correctly Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Although the description of regression testing is largely correct, the description of confirmation testing (which should be testing a defect has been fixed) is not correct b) Is correct. The descriptions of both confirmation and regression testing match the intent of those in the syllabus c) Is not correct. Although the description of regression testing is largely correct, the description of confirmation testing (re-running all previously run tests to get the same results) is not correct, as the purpose of confirmation testing is to check that tests that previously failed now pass (the fix worked) d) Is not correct. Although the description of confirmation testing is largely correct, the description of regression testing (re-running tests that previously failed) is not correct (this is a more detailed description of confirmation testing) 3 / 40 3. Which of the following is an example of a failure in a car cruise control system? a) The developer of the system forgot to rename variables after a cut-and-paste operation b) Unnecessary code that sounds an alarm when reversing was included in the system c) The system stops maintaining a set speed when the radio volume is increased or decreased d) The design specification for the system wrongly states speeds Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This is an example of a mistake made by the developer b) Is not correct. This is an example of a defect (something wrong in the code that may cause a failure) c) Is correct. This is a deviation from the expected functionality - a cruise control system should not be affected by the radio d) Is not correct. This is an example of a defect (something wrong in a specification that may cause a failure if subsequently implemented) 4 / 40 4. Which one of the following test tools is mostly suitable for developers rather than testers? a) Requirement management tools b) Configuration management tools c) Static analysis tools d) Performance testing tools Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Requirement management tools are not particularly suitable for developers b) Is not correct. Configuration management tools are not particularly suitable for developers c) Is correct. Static analysis tools are especially suitable for developers d) Is not correct. Performance testing tools are not better suited for developers than for testers 5 / 40 5. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY reflects the value of static testing? a) By introducing reviews, we have found that both the quality of specifications and the time required for development and testing have increased b) Using static testing means we have better control and cheaper defect management due to the ease of detecting defects later in the lifecycle c) Now that we require the use of static analysis, missed requirements have decreased and communication between testers and developers has improved d) Since we started using static analysis, we find coding defects that might have not been found by performing only dynamic testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Reviews should increase the quality of specifications, however the time required for development and testing should decrease b) Is not correct. Detecting defects is generally easier earlier in the lifecycle c) Is not correct. Reviews will result in fewer missed requirements and better communication between testers and developers, however this is not true for static analysis d) Is correct. This is a benefit of static analysis 6 / 40 6. Which of the following are two factors that can be used to determine the level of risk? a) Testing and development b) Dynamic and reactive c) Statement and decision d) Likelihood and impact Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The level of risk will be determined by the likelihood of an adverse event happening and the impact (the harm) from that event. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 7 / 40 7. Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques? 1. Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test object 2. The processing within the test object is checked 3. Tests are based on defects’ likelihood and their distribution 4. Deviations from the requirements are checked 5. User stories are used as the test basis Using notation for the following 4 options: Black - Black-box test techniques White - White-box test techniques Experience - Experience-based test techniques a) Black – 4, 5 White – 1, 2; Experience – 3 b) Black – 3 White – 1, 2; Experience – 4, 5 c) Black – 4 White – 1, 2; Experience – 3, 5 d) Black – 1, 3, 5 White – 2; Experience – 4 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The correct pairing of descriptions with the different categories of test techniques is: • Black-box test techniques Deviations from the requirements are checked (4) User stories are used as the test basis (5) • White-box test techniques Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test object (1) The processing within the test object is checked (2) • Experience-based test techniques Tests are based on defects’ likelihood and their distribution (3) Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 8 / 40 8. Which of the following options are roles in a formal review? a) Developer, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Tester b) Author, Moderator, Manager, Reviewer, Developer c) Author, Manager, Review leader, Reviewer, Designer d) Author, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Scribe Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Tester and developer are NOT roles in a formal review b) Is not correct. Developer is NOT a role in a formal review c) Is not correct. Designer is NOT a role in a formal review d) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers 9 / 40 9. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units. Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field? a) 10.0, 28.0 b) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1 c) 0.2, 0.9, 29.5 d) 12.3 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There are three equivalence partitions, with the boundaries as shown: • Invalid too low (0.4 and below) • Valid (0.5 to 25.0) • Invalid too high (25.1 and above) Thus: a) Is not correct. Only two of the equivalence partitions are covered in this set of tests b) Is not correct. Each of those four boundary values are included in this set of tests, but the question asked for equivalence partition coverage with minimal tests, so either 0.5 or 25.0 should be dropped c) Is correct. Each of these three equivalence partitions are covered in this set of tests d) Is not correct. Only one of those equivalence partitions is covered by this test 10 / 40 10. As a result of risk analysis, more testing is being directed to those areas of the system under test where initial testing found more defects than average. Which of the following testing principles is being applied? a) Beware of the pesticide paradox b) Testing is context dependent c) Absence-of-errors is a fallacy d) Defects cluster together Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. ‘Beware of the pesticide paradox’ is concerned with re-running the same tests and their fault-finding effectiveness decreasing b) Is not correct. This testing principle is concerned with performing testing differently based on the context (e.g., games vs safety-critical) c) Is not correct. This testing principle is concerned with the difference between a tested and fixed system and a validated system. No ‘errors’ does not mean the system is fit for use d) Is correct. If clusters of defects are identified (areas of the system containing more defects than average), then testing effort should be focused on these areas 11 / 40 11. In what way can testing be part of Quality Assurance? a) It ensures that requirements are detailed enough b) Testing reduces the risk of poor software quality c) It ensures that standards in the organization are followed d) It measures the quality of software in terms of number of executed test cases Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Static testing (reviews) contributes, but could not ensure, that requirements are detailed enough b) Is correct. Testing contributes to the achievement of quality in a variety of ways, e.g., such as reducing the risk of inadequate software quality c) Is not correct. This is quality assurance but not testing d) Is not correct. The quality cannot be measured by counting the number of executed test cases without knowing the outcome 12 / 40 12. Which of the following qualities is MORE likely to be found in a tester’s mindset rather than in a developer’s? a) A tester´s mindset tends to grow and mature as the tester gains experience b) Ability to see what might go wrong c) Good communication with team members d) Focus on getting all things done Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Both developers and testers gain from experience b) Is correct. Developers are often more interested in designing and building solutions than in contemplating what might be wrong with those solutions c) Is not correct. Both developers and testers should be able to communicate well d) Is not correct. Testers shall focus on the quality, not on the quantity 13 / 40 13. As a test manager you are responsible for testing the following parts of requirements: • R1 - Process anomalies • R2 - Synchronization • R3 - Approval • R4 - Problem solving • R5 - Financial data • R6 - Diagram data • R7 - Changes to the user profile Notation: Logical requirement dependencies (A -> B means, that B depends on A): Which one of the following options structures the test execution schedule according to the requirement dependencies? a) R1 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 b) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R4 ; R7 ; R5 ; R6 c) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R4 ; R7 d) R1 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. R4 is dependent on R2, so R2 should be tested before R4 b) Is not correct. R4 is dependent on R2, R5 and R6, so R5 and R6 should be tested before R4 c) Is correct. The tests are specified in a sequence that takes the dependencies into account d) Is not correct. R2 is dependent on R3, so R3 should be tested before R2 14 / 40 14. Given that the testing being performed has the following attributes: • Based on interface specifications • Focused on finding failures in communication • The test approach uses both functional and structural test types Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed? a) Integration testing b) Acceptance testing c) System testing d) Component testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering the scenario: 1. ‘testing is based on interface specifications’ – the test basis for integration testing includes interface specifications (along with communication protocol specification), while these are not included for any of the other test levels 2. ‘testing is focused on finding failures in communication’ - failures in the communication between tested components is included as a typical failure for integration testing, but failures in communication is not included for any of the other test levels 3. ‘the test approach uses both functional and structural test types’ - functional and structural test types are both included as possible approaches for integration testing, and would also be appropriate for any of the other test levels, although they are only otherwise explicitly mentioned in the syllabus for system testing Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 15 / 40 15. Which one of the following is TRUE? a) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the correction has been successfully implemented, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the correction has no side effects b) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the system is still working in a new environment c) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed d) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the new functionality is working, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Regression testing does not check successful implementation of corrections and confirmation testing does not check for side effects b) Is not correct. The statement about confirmation testing should be about regression testing c) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers d) Is not correct. Testing new functionality is not regression testing 16 / 40 16. What is checklist-based testing? a) A test technique in which tests are derived based on the tester's knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures b) A test technique based on an analysis of the specification of a component or system c) An experience-based test technique whereby the experienced tester uses a list of items to be noted, checked, or remembered, or a set of rules or criteria against which a product must be verified d) An approach to testing where the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This is error guessing b) Is not correct. This is black-box test technique c) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers d) Is not correct. This is exploratory testing 17 / 40 17. Given the following state model of a battery charger software: Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level of transition coverage for the model? a) OFF → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → LOW b) WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE c) HIGH → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE d) WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Given the annotated state model below: The options achieve the following transition coverage: a) Is not correct: OFF (2) WAIT (1) OFF (2) WAIT (3) TRICKLE (5) CHARGE (9) HIGH (10) CHARGE (7) LOW = 7 transitions (out of 10) b) Is not correct: WAIT (3) TRICKLE (4) WAIT (1) OFF (2) WAIT (3) TRICKLE (5) CHARGE (7) LOW (8) CHARGE = 7 transitions (out of 10) c) Is not correct: HIGH (10) CHARGE (7) LOW (8) CHARGE (6) TRICKLE (4) WAIT (3) TRICKLE (4) WAIT (3) TRICKLE = 6 transitions (out of 10) d) Is correct: WAIT (3) TRICKLE (5) CHARGE (9) HIGH (10) CHARGE (6) TRICKLE (4) WAIT (1) OFF (2) WAIT = 8 transitions (out of 10) 18 / 40 18. Which of the following can affect and be part of the (initial) test planning? a) Budget limitations b) Test log c) Failure rate d) Use cases Select ONE options. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Making decisions about what to test are documented in the test plan. This means when you are planning the test and there are budget limitations, prioritizing is needed; what should be tested and what should be omitted b) Is not correct. Test monitoring and control c) Is not correct. Common test metrics d) Is not correct. It is a part of test analysis 19 / 40 19. Which of the following BEST describes how value is added by maintaining traceability between the test basis and test artifacts? a) Maintenance testing can be fully automated based on changes to the initial requirements b) It is possible to determine if a new test case has increased coverage of the requirements c) Test managers can identify which testers found the highest severity defects d) Areas that may be impacted by side-effects of a change can be targeted by confirmation testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Traceability will allow existing test cases to be linked with updated and deleted requirements (although there is no support for new requirements), but it will not help with the automation of maintenance testing b) Is correct. If all test cases are linked with requirements, then whenever a new test case (with traceability) is added, it is possible to see if any previously uncovered requirements are covered by the new test case c) Is not correct. Traceability between the test basis and test artifacts will not provide information on which testers found high-severity defects, and, even if this information could be determined, it would be of limited value d) Is not correct. Traceability can help with identifying test cases affected by changes, however areas impacted by side-effects would be the focus of regression testing 20 / 40 20. Which of the following is MOST likely to be used as a reason for using a pilot project to introduce a tool into an organization? a) The need to evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices and determining what would need to change b) The need to evaluate the test automation skills and training, mentoring and coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool c) The need to evaluate whether the tool provides the required functionality and does not duplicate existing test tools d) The need to evaluate the tool vendor in terms of the training and other support they provide Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct b) Is not correct. The evaluation of the test automation skills and training, mentoring and coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool should have been performed as part of the tool selection activity c) Is not correct. The decision on whether the tool provides the required functionality and does not duplicate existing tools should have been performed as part of the tool selection activity d) Is not correct. The evaluation of the tool vendor in terms of the training and other support they provide should have been performed as part of the tool selection activity 21 / 40 21. What is decision coverage? a) The coverage of condition outcomes b) Decision coverage is a synonym for statement coverage c) The coverage of executable statements d) The coverage of decision outcomes Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This is the Glossary definition of condition coverage b) Is not correct. Decision coverage is a higher level of coverage and the two terms are not defined as synonyms in the Glossary c) Is not correct. This is the Glossary definition of statement coverage d) Is correct. This is the Glossary definition of coverage as applied to decisions 22 / 40 22. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independent testing? a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team, so ensuring everyone is aware that quality is the test team’s overall responsibility b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines c) An independent test team can work totally separately from the developers, need not be distracted with changing project requirements, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Quality should be the responsibility of everyone working on the project and not the sole responsibility of the test team b) Is not correct. First, it is not a benefit if an external test team does not meet delivery deadlines, and second, there is no reason to believe that external test teams will feel they do not have to meet strict delivery deadlines c) Is not correct. It is bad practice for the test team to work in complete isolation, and we would expect an external test team to be concerned with changing project requirements and communicate well with developers d) Is correct. Specifications are never perfect, meaning that assumptions will have to be made by the developer. An independent tester is useful in that they can challenge and verify the assumptions and subsequent interpretation made by the developer 23 / 40 23. You are working as a project manager on an in-house banking software project. To prevent rework and excessive find/fix/retest cycles, the following process has been put in place for resolving a defect once it is found in the test lab: 1. The assigned developer finds and fixes the defect, then creates an experimental build 2. A peer developer reviews, unit tests, and confirmation tests the defect fix on his/her desktop 3. A tester – usually the one who found the defect – confirmation tests the defect fix in the development environment 4. Once a day, a new release with all confirmed defect fixes included, is installed in the test environment 5. The same tester from step 3 confirmation tests the defect fix in the test environment Nevertheless, a large number of defects which the testers confirmed as fixed in the development environment (in step 3) are somehow failing confirmation testing in the test environment, with the resulting rework and cycle time outcomes. You have the highest confidence in your testers and have ruled out mistakes or omissions in step 3. Which of the following is the MOST likely part of the process to check next? a) The activity of developers, who may not be adequately testing in step 2 b) The activity of testers, who may be confused about what to test in step 5 c) Configuration management, which may not be maintaining the integrity of the product in step 4 d) The activity of developers, who may not be fixing defects properly in step 1 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. If inadequate developer testing were the problem, the confirmation test would not pass in step 3 b) Is not correct. The same tester who successfully performed the confirmation test in step 3 is repeating it in step 5 c) Is correct. Configuration management maintains the integrity of the software. If a test that passes in step 3 fails in step 5, then something is different between those two steps. One possible difference is the test object, the option listed here. Another possible difference is the between the development environment and the test environment, but that is not an option listed here d) Is not correct. If the developers were not fixing the defect, the confirmation test would not pass in step 3 24 / 40 24. Which one of the statements below describes the most common situation for a failure discovered during testing or in production? a) The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box b) The wrong version of a compiled source code file was included in the build c) The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables d) The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. A crash is clearly noticeable by the user b) Is not correct. This is a defect, not a failure since there is something wrong in the code. It may not result in a visible or noticeable failure, for example if the changes in the source code file are only in comments c) Is not correct. The use of wrong input variables may not result in a visible or noticeable failure, for example if nobody uses this particular algorithm; or if the wrong input variable has a similar value to the correct input variable; or if the FALSE result of the algorithm is not used d) Is not correct. This type of fault will not necessarily lead to a failure; for example, if no one uses this special algorithm 25 / 40 25. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an incremental development model? a) Defining requirements, designing software and testing are done in phases where in each phase a piece of the system is added b) A phase in the development process should begin when the previous phase is complete c) Testing is viewed as a separate phase which takes place after development has been completed d) Testing is added to development as an increment Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Incremental development involves establishing requirements, designing, building, and testing a system in pieces b) Is not correct. This is a sequential model c) Is not correct. This describes the waterfall model d) Is not correct. Testing alone is not an increment/additional step in the development 26 / 40 26. Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review? a) Manager – Decides on the execution of reviews b) Review Leader - Ensures effective running of review meetings c) Scribe – Fixes defects in the work product under review d) Moderator – Monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. The management decides about performing the review b) Is not correct. The moderator, not the review leader should ensure the effective running of review meetings c) Is not correct. The author fixes the work product under review d) Is not correct. The manager monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness 27 / 40 27. Which of the following provides the definition of the term test case? a) Subset of the value domain of a variable within a component or system in which all values are expected to be treated the same based on the specification b) A set of preconditions, inputs, actions, expected results and post conditions, developed based on test conditions c) Work products produced during the test process for use in planning, designing, executing, evaluating, and reporting on testing d) A source to determine an expected result to compare with the actual result of the system under test Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Based on definition of equivalence partition b) Is correct. Based on definition from Glossary c) Is not correct. Based on Glossary definition of testware d) Is not correct. Based on definition of test oracle 28 / 40 28. You are working as a tester on an online banking system. Availability is considered one of the top products (quality) risks for the system. You find a reproducible failure that results in customers losing their connections to the bank Web site when transferring funds between common types of accounts and being unable to reconnect for between three and five minutes. Which of the following would be a good summary for a defect report for this failure, one that captures both the essence of the failure and its impact on stakeholders? a) Web server logs show error 0x44AB27 when running test 07.005, which is not an expected error message in /tmp filesystem b) Developers have introduced major availability defect which will seriously upset our customers c) Performance is slow and reliability flaky under load d) Typical funds-transfer transaction results in termination of customer session, with a delay in availability when attempting to reconnect Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While this information is useful for developers, it does not provide managers with a sense of the impact on product quality b) Is not correct. This summary does not provide developers or managers with the necessary information and attacks the developers c) Is not correct. This summary does not provide developers or managers with the necessary information and attacks the developers d) Is correct. This summary gives a good sense of the failure and its impact 29 / 40 29. Given the following test activities and test tools: 1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis 2. Test execution and logging 3. Management of testing and testware 4. Test design A. Code coverage tools B. Dynamic analysis tools C. Test data preparation tools D. Defect management tools Which of the following BEST matches the activities and tools? a) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A b) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D c) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C d) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – C Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The correct pairings of test activities and test tools are: 1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis – (b) Dynamic analysis tools 2. Test execution and logging – (a) Code coverage tools 3. Management of testing and testware – (d) Defect management tools 4. Test design – (c) Test data preparation tools Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is correct d) Is not correct 30 / 40 30. You are working as a tester on an Agile team and have participated in over two dozen user story refinement sessions with the product owner and the developers on the team at the start of each iteration. As the reviews have gotten more effective at detecting defects in user stories and the product owner more proficient at correcting those defects, you and the team notice that the team’s velocity, as shown in your burndown charts, has started to increase. Which of the following is a benefit of static testing that is MOST DIRECTLY related to the team’s increased velocity? a) Increasing total cost of quality b) Reducing testing cost c) Increasing development productivity d) Reducing total cost of quality Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Reviews reduce, not increase, the total cost of quality b) Is not correct. Increasing velocity is a sign of increasing development productivity overall, not just testing, so B only partially applies c) Is correct. Velocity is a way of measuring productivity in Agile development d) Is not correct. The benefit mentioned here has to do with increasing overall development team productivity 31 / 40 31. What is quality? a) Activities focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled b) The degree to which a component or system satisfies the stated and implied needs of its various stakeholders c) The degree to which a component or system protects information and data so that persons or other components or systems have the degree of access appropriate to their types and levels of authorization d) The total costs incurred on quality activities and issues and often split into prevention costs, appraisal costs, internal failure costs and external failure costs Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This is the Glossary definition of quality assurance b) Is correct. This is the Glossary definition of quality c) Is not correct. This is the Glossary definition of security d) Is not correct. This is the Glossary definition of cost of quality 32 / 40 32. Consider the following state transition diagram for a credit-card only, unattended gasoline pump: Assume that you want to develop the minimum number of tests to cover each transition in the state transition diagram. Assume further that each test must start at the beginning state, waiting for customer, and each test ends when a transition arrives at the beginning state. How many tests do you need? a) 4 b) 7 c) 1 d) Infinite Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Each transition must be traversed at least once. To do so, the first test can cover the happy path, a successful purchase, the next test cancels, or timeout from waiting for pumping, the next test cancels, or timeout from waiting for fuel type, and the last test the insertion of an invalid credit card. While the order is immaterial, fewer than four tests fail to cover one of the transitions inbound to waiting for customer or violates the rules about where a test starts or ends. More than four tests include tests that re-traverse already-covered transitions. Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 33 / 40 33. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of product risk analysis CORRECTLY influencing the testing? a) The potential impact of security flaws has been identified as being particularly high, so security testing has been prioritized ahead of some other testing activities b) Testing has found the quality of the network module to be higher than expected, so additional testing will be performed in that area c) The users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, so additional usability testing is planned for the replacement system d) The time needed to load web pages is crucial to the success of the new website, so an expert in performance testing has been employed for this project Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale This question is looking for bad application of product risk analysis. a) Is not correct. As we are told security flaws have a particularly high impact, their risk level will be higher, and thus we have prioritized the security testing ahead of some other testing. Thus, product risk analysis has influenced the testing properly. b) Is correct. As less defects than expected have been found in the network module, the perceived risk in this area should be lower, and so less testing should be focused on this area, NOT additional testing. Thus, product risk analysis has NOT CORRECTLY influenced the testing in this situation c) Is not correct. Because the users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, there is now high awareness of the risk associated with the user interface, which has resulted in additional usability testing being planned. Thus, product risk analysis has properly influenced the thoroughness and scope of testing d) Is not correct. As the time needed to load web pages has been identified as crucial to the success of the new website, the performance of the website should be considered a risk, and the employment of an expert in performance testing helps to mitigate this risk. Thus, product risk analysis has properly influenced the testing 34 / 40 34. Which of the following should NOT be a trigger for maintenance testing? a) Decision to test the maintainability of the software b) Decision to test the system after migration to a new operating platform c) Decision to test if archived data is possible to be retrieved d) Decision to test after “hot fixes” Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. This is maintainability testing, not maintenance testing b) Is not correct. This is a trigger for maintenance testing: Operational tests of the new environment as well as of the changed software c) Is not correct. This is the trigger for maintenance testing: testing restore/retrieve procedures after archiving for long retention periods d) Is not correct. This is the trigger for maintenance testing: Reactive modification of a delivered software product to correct emergency defects that have caused actual failures 35 / 40 35. Consider the following types of defects that a test level might focus on: a) Defects in separately testable modules or objects b) Not focused on identifying defects c) Defects in interfaces and interactions d) Defects in the whole test object Which of the following list correctly matches test levels from the Foundation syllabus with the defect focus options given above? a) 1 = performance test; 2 = component test; 3 = system test; 4 = acceptance test b) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = system test; 4 = integration test c) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = integration test; 4 = system test d) 1 = integration test; 2 = system test; 3 = component test; 4 = acceptance test Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Performance testing is a test type, not a test level. Component testing focuses on defects in separately testable modules or objects, integration testing on defects in interfaces and interactions, system testing on defects in the whole test object, and acceptance testing is not typically focused on identifying defects. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is correct d) Is not correct 36 / 40 36. Programmers often write and execute unit tests against code which they have written. During this self-testing activity, which of the following is a tester mindset that programmers should adopt to perform this unit testing effectively? a) Good communication skills b) Code coverage c) Evaluating code defects d) Attention to detail Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The programmer appears to be performing unit testing on their own code b) Is not correct. Code coverage is useful for unit testing, but it is not a tester mindset c) Is not correct. The programmer’s mindset included contemplating what might be wrong with the code, but that is not a tester’s mindset d) Is correct. This tester mindset, attention to detail, will help programmers find defects during unit testing 37 / 40 37. Which one of the following answers describes a test condition? a) A distinguishing characteristic of a component or system b) A testable aspect of a component or system identified as a basis for testing c) The degree to which a software product provides functions which meet stated and implied needs when the software is used under specified conditions d) Test cases designed to execute combinations of conditions and actions resulting from them Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Definition of feature according to glossary b) Is correct. From glossary c) Is not correct. Definition of functionality suitability according to glossary d) Is not correct. Like Definition of Decision table testing according to glossary 38 / 40 38. Match the following test work products (1-4) with the right description (A-D). 1. Test suite 2. Test case 3. Test script 4. Test charter A. A set of test scripts to be executed in a specific test run B. A set of instructions for the execution of a test C. Contains expected results D. Documentation of test activities in session-based exploratory testing a) 1A, 2C, 3B, 4D b) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C c) 1A, 2C, 3D, 4B d) 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Glossary defines the following tests as: • Test suite: “A set of test scripts or test procedures to be executed in a specific test run.” (1A) • Test case: “A set of preconditions, inputs, actions (where applicable), expected results and post conditions, developed based on test conditions” (2C) • Test script: “A sequence of instructions for the execution of a test” (3B) • Test charter: “Documentation of test activities in session-based exploratory testing” (4D) Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 39 / 40 39. Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the test manager? a) Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing b) Review tests developed by others c) Prepare and acquire test data d) Analyze, review, and assess requirements, specifications, and models for testability Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. One of the typical tasks of a test manager b) Is not correct. One of the typical tasks of a tester c) Is not correct. One of the typical tasks of a tester d) Is not correct. One of the typical tasks of a tester 40 / 40 40. Which of the following is an example of a task that can be carried out as part of the test process? a) Analyzing a defect b) Designing test data c) Assigning a version to a test item d) Writing a user story Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Analyzing a defect is part of debugging, not testing b) Is correct. Creating test data is a test implementation task c) Is not correct. While a tester may need to identify a test item’s version for results reporting purposes, assigning a test item’s version is part of configuration management d) Is not correct. Writing a user story is not a testing activity and should be done by the product owner 0% Restart quiz
