Explanation / Rationale

i. Is true. The SDLC has an influence on the test process
ii. Is false. The number of defects detected in previous projects may have some influence, but this is not as significant as i, iii and iv
iii. Is true. The identified product risks are one of the most important factors influencing the test process
iv. Is true. Regulatory requirements are important factors influencing the test process
v. Is false. The test environment has no significant influence on the test process

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Although it is correct to say that in Agile software development, some of the test management tasks may be handled by the Agile team itself, the testing role is not primarily the responsibility of a single individual from outside the team. Instead the testing is more likely to be performed by various team members following the whole-team approach
b) Is not correct. The test management role primarily involves activities related to test planning, test monitoring and control, and test completion. So, although this statement is partially correct, it is wrong to say that the testing role is primarily responsible for test monitoring and control
c) Is correct. In Agile software development, some of the test management tasks may be handled by the Agile team itself. However, for test activities that span multiple teams within an organization, test managers outside of the development team may perform these tasks
d) Is not correct. The test management role primarily involves activities related to test planning, test monitoring and control, and test completion, while the testing role is primarily responsible for the technical and engineering aspects of testing, such as test analysis, test design, test implementation, and test execution. Thus the test management role is not normally responsible for test analysis and test design, although it is correct to say that the testing role is primarily responsible for test implementation and execution

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Testing quadrants have nothing to do with describing the relationships between test levels
b) Is not correct. Testing quadrants cannot help in assessing any type of coverage
c) Is correct. Testing quadrants allow managers and other stakeholders to understand the relationships between test types, the activities they support (team support or product critique), and the viewpoint they are focused on (business- or technology-facing)
d) Is not correct. Testing quadrants is not a psychological model

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. We do not accept the risk; concrete actions are proposed
b) Is not correct. No contingency plans are proposed
c) Is correct. The proposed actions are related to testing, which is a form of risk mitigation
d) Is not correct. Risk is not transferred but mitigated

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed test activities and their tasks:

A. Test analysis - To identify the features that require testing, the test basis is analyzed and defined as test conditions, which are then prioritized along with related risks. During this test analysis, defects in the test basis are typically uncovered, and the test object's testability may also be assessed. (Task 4)
B. Test design - Involves using test conditions to create test cases and other necessary testware, such as test data requirements and test charters for exploratory testing. (Task 1)
C. Test implementation - Test procedures, such as manual and automated test scripts, are created from test cases and may be assembled into test suites. Test procedures are prioritized and arranged in a test execution schedule. (Task 3)
D. Test completion - Occurs at project milestones, such as release, end of iteration or end of test level. Testware is identified and archived or handed to the appropriate teams for reuse, the test environment is shut down, and the test activities are analyzed for lessons learned and future improvements. (Task 2)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct. The CORRECT match is: 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The detection of additional high-severity defects would be a benefit of test automation, rather than a risk
b) Is not correct. The provision of measures that are too complicated for humans to derive themselves is normally considered to be a benefit of test automation
c) Is correct. If the test automation is incompatible with the development platform, then it will not be able to integrate them, and, for instance, pass test inputs to the test object and receive test results from the test object
d) Is not correct. Substantially reduced test execution times would normally be considered a benefit that is provided by test automation

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Collaborative user story writing means that all stakeholders create the user stories collaboratively, to obtain the shared vision
b) Is correct. Collaborative user story writing means that all stakeholders create the user stories collaboratively, to obtain the shared vision
c) Is not correct. Collaborative user story writing means that all stakeholders create the user stories collaboratively, to obtain the shared vision
d) Is not correct. This is the list of properties that each user story should have, not the description of the collaboration-based approach

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Finding and fixing defects in the test object is not a typical test objective as although identifying defects is an objective of testing, fixing defects is not a testing activity
b) Is not correct. Maintaining effective communications with developers is not a typical test objective as although it is useful in achieving other objectives of testing, such as providing stakeholders with information that enables them to make informed decisions, it is not a primary reason for performing testing
c) Is not correct. Validating that legal requirements have been met is not a typical test objective because validation is concerned with checking whether the system meets users’ and other stakeholders’ needs in its operational environment. Checking that legal requirements have been met is a form of verification
d) Is correct. Building confidence in the quality of the test object is achieved by executing tests that pass

Explanation / Rationale

In branch testing the coverage items are branches, which are represented by the edges of a control flow graph. There are 8 edges in the control flow graph.
Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Product quality metrics measure quality characteristics. Mean time to failure measures maturity, so it is a product quality metric
b) Is not correct. This is an example of a defect metric, not a product quality metric
c) Is not correct. This is an example of a coverage metric, not a product quality metric
d) Is not correct. This is an example of a defect metric, not a product quality metric

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Debugging is the process of finding, analyzing, and removing the causes of failures in a component or system
b) Is not correct. Testing is the process concerned with planning, preparation and evaluation of a component or system and related work products to determine that they satisfy specified requirements, to demonstrate that they are fit for purpose and to detect defects. It is not related to fixing causes of failures
c) Is not correct. Requirement elicitation is the process of gathering, capturing, and consolidating requirements from available sources. It is not related to fixing causes of failures
d) Is not correct. Defect management is the process of recognizing, recording, classifying, investigating, resolving, and disposing of defects. It is not related to fixing causes of failures

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. The primary benefit of independence in testing is that testers are more likely to identify different types of failures and defects compared to developers, due to their varied backgrounds, technical viewpoints, and potential biases, including cognitive bias. However, the main disadvantage of independence in testing is that testers may become isolated from the development team, leading to communication problems, a lack of collaboration, and potentially an adversarial relationship, with testers being blamed for delays and bottlenecks in the release process
b) Is not correct. A developer’s familiarity with the code does not mean that they rarely find defects in it, instead this familiarity means they can efficiently find many defects in their own code. And, rather than developers and testers having a shared background, developers having a different background to testers is normally cited as the reason that testers and developers find different kinds of defects
c) Is not correct. Testing can be conducted at different levels of independence, ranging from no independence for the author to very high independence for testers from outside the organization. In most projects, multiple levels of independence are utilized, with developers performing component and component integration testing, the test team performing system and system integration testing, and business representatives performing acceptance testing. So, testers can be in the developer’s team and do not need to come from outside the organization. Knowledge of the application domain will change from case-to-case and is not dependent on the level of independence
d) Is not correct. Testing can be conducted at different levels of independence, ranging from no independence for the author to very high independence for testers from outside the organization, with testers from outside the developer’s team generally more independent than testers from within the team. However, there is more reason to believe that testers from outside the team are likely to be more isolated from the developers and so are more likely to be blamed for delays in product release

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Risk impact and risk likelihood are independent
b) Is not correct. Risk impact and risk likelihood are independent
c) Is correct. Risk impact and risk likelihood are independent
d) Is not correct. We need both factors to calculate risk level

Explanation / Rationale

“test” and “error” transitions cannot occur in one test case.
Neither can both “done” transitions.
This means we need at least three test cases to achieve transition coverage. For example:

TC1: test, done
TC2: run, error, done
TC3: run, pause, resume, pause, done

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is correct

Explanation / Rationale

Only third-party executable code cannot be reviewed.
Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) It is correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Adding this information allows the developer to use the same input data, so it is more likely they will be able to reproduce the failure quickly and so identify the defect faster
b) Is not correct. Adding the value of Priority will not help in reproducing the defect itself
c) Is not correct. Although some of this information may be of value, adding the memory dumps and database snapshots after each step will be too much, because most of these artefacts will contain useless information for the developer, and make the report less readable. It will also require the developer to spend a lot of time analyzing this information, which will lengthen the repair process
d) Is not correct. The question was about helping the developer to reproduce the defect observed for a specific environment configuration

Explanation / Rationale

Test cases TC1, TC2, TC3 and TC4 cover, respectively, rules R2, R3, R7 and R6 in the decision table.
a) Is correct. The conditions “66-year-old”, “unregistered” and “no experience” match rule R4, which is not covered by the existing test cases, so after adding this test case, the decision table coverage will increase
b) Is not correct. The conditions “55-year-old”, “unregistered” and “2 years of experience” match rule R2, already covered by TC1. So adding this test case will not increase the coverage
c) Is not correct. The conditions “19-year-old”, “registered” and “5 years of experience” match rule R6, already covered by TC4. So adding this test case will not increase the coverage
d) Is not correct. The existing test cases cover only 4 out of 7 columns of the decision table. The coverage can be increased by adding test cases that cover yet uncovered columns, that is, R1, R4 and R5

Explanation / Rationale

The five listed descriptions and the corresponding review process activities are:

1. This describes part of the ‘communication and analysis’ activity
2. This describes part of the ‘fixing and reporting’ activity
3. This describes part of the ‘individual review’ activity
4. This describes part of the ‘planning’ activity
5. This describes part of the ‘review initiation’ activity

The generic review process from ISO/IEC 20246, which is outlined in the syllabus, comprises the following activities in this logical order:

• Planning (4)
• Review initiation (5)
• Individual review (3)
• Communication and analysis (1)
• Fixing and reporting (2)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct. The correct sequence of activities is: 4 – 5 – 3 – 1 – 2
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Estimating the test effort is part of test planning
b) Is correct. This is an example of defining test conditions which is a part of test analysis
c) Is not correct. Using test techniques to derive coverage items is a part of test design
d) Is not correct. Reporting defects found during dynamic testing is a part of test execution

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Test automation can provide measures that are too complicated for humans to derive, such as white-box test coverage measures for all but the most trivial code
b) Is not correct. By using test tools the responsibility for the testing is NOT shared with the tool vendor as the vendor is not involved in the testing, and it is the tester’s responsibility. The only possible responsibility that could be assigned to the tool vendor is if the tool fails to work as expected and provides incorrect test results
c) Is not correct. Testers still need to perform critical thinking when analyzing anomalies in the test results to determine their likely cause
d) Is not correct. Neither testers nor tools can generate test cases simply from an analysis of the program code as the code is the implementation and provides no information on the expected results, which will need to come from another part of the test basis, such as the design specification

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Quality should be the responsibility of everyone working on the project and not the sole responsibility of the test team
b) Is not correct. First, it is not a benefit if an external test team does not meet delivery deadlines, and second, there is no reason to believe that external test teams will feel they do not have to meet strict delivery deadlines
c) Is not correct. It is bad practice for the test team to work in complete isolation, and we would expect an external test team to be concerned with changing project requirements and communicating well with developers
d) Is correct. Specifications are never perfect, meaning that assumptions will have to be made by the developer. An independent tester is useful in that they can challenge and verify the assumptions and subsequent interpretation made by the developer

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. This is the task of the review leader
b) Is correct. This is the task of the management in a formal review
c) Is not correct. This is the task of the moderator
d) Is not correct. This is the task of the scribe

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Behavior-Driven Development (BDD) is a well-known example of a test-first approach to development
b) Is not correct. Test Level Driven Development is not a correct example of a test-first approach to development
c) Is not correct. Function-Driven Development is not a correct example of a test-first approach to development
d) Is not correct. Performance-Driven Development is not a correct example of a test-first approach to development

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The testing role is primarily responsible for the technical and engineering aspects of testing, such as test analysis, test design, test implementation, and test execution. Evaluating the test basis for defects and the test object for testability are tasks performed as part of test analysis, so it is likely they are tasks performed by the testing role
b) Is not correct. The testing role is primarily responsible for the technical and engineering aspects of testing, such as test analysis, test design, test implementation, and test execution. Defining the test environment requirements is a task performed as part of test design, so it is likely to be a task performed by the testing role
c) Is not correct. The testing role is primarily responsible for the technical and engineering aspects of testing, such as test analysis, test design, test implementation, and test execution. Assessing the testability of a test object is a task performed as part of test analysis, so it is likely to be a task performed by the testing role
d) Is correct. The test management role primarily involves activities related to test planning, test monitoring and control, and test completion. Thus, creating the test completion report, which is the prime output from the test completion activity, is likely to be a task performed by the test management role

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. We want to check that Special users have the rights of Regular users, so we need to test access rights for a Special user, not for a Regular user
b) Is not correct. We want to check that Special users have the rights of Regular users, so we need to test access rights for a Special user, not for a Regular user
c) Is not correct. There is no floor 5 described in the acceptance criteria. The test cases should not extend the scope of the user story. But even if we would like to perform negative testing, this test is not directly related to AC3
d) Is correct. This way we can check if a Special user can access floors which are accessible to a Regular user

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Dynamic testing does cause failures (from which defects can then be located and fixed). However, debugging is concerned with locating defects and fixing these defects. Therefore, debugging does not fix failures
b) Is not correct. Both testing and debugging contribute to improving the quality of the test object, so should really both be considered positively. Debugging is generally considered to be a positive activity as it is fixing something. Dynamic testing does involve intentionally causing the test object to fail, which is why some people consider it a negative activity, but that is a very narrow view (and not one typically held by testers). Both positive and negative test cases are possible. Positive test cases check that the test object correctly performs what it is supposed to do, while negative testing checks that the test object does not do what it is not supposed to do
c) Is correct. Testing determines that defects exist either directly through observation of the defect in reviews (or by a tool in static analysis), or indirectly by causing a failure in dynamic testing. Debugging is a separate activity from testing (normally performed by developers) and is concerned with locating defects (only for dynamic testing) and fixing the defects
d) Is not correct. The causes of defects are typically human errors. Testing finds defects either directly through static testing, or indirectly by causing failures in dynamic testing, and debugging fixes defects. So, testing does not find the cause of defects and debugging does not fix the causes of defects

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The organization’s marketing team is unlikely to perform much testing (although in some organizations they may be involved with acceptance testing), so their average level of experience (most of which would be in marketing) is not likely to impact how testing is performed for a given test object
b) Is not correct. The level of knowledge of users that a new system is being built for them is unlikely to affect how testing is performed. Any user involvement that could affect how testing is performed is more likely to be as a result of decisions made by the testers, customer and project manager
c) Is correct. The number of years’ experience of the members of the performance testing team will help to determine the capabilities and knowledge (e.g., of different tools and defect types) that the team members will apply when they are testing
d) Is not correct. The organizational structure of the different end users (who may be varied) will change between users. So, it may not even be known when the application is being tested, and the end user’s organizational structure can thus have little effect on how the testing is performed

Explanation / Rationale

There are three equivalence partitions: {…, –2, –1}, {0, 1, 2}, {3, 4, …}.
For 2-value BVA all the boundary values for all the equivalence partitions must be covered.
The boundary values are –1 (for the “temperature too low” partition), 0, 2 (for the “temperature OK” partition) and 3 (for the “temperature too high” partition).

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is correct. The correct option is: –1, 0, 2, 3
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Value “1” covers “length incorrect” and covers “number of different digits incorrect”, however the system would not validate against this partition when hitting the first incorrect partition. Value “1111” covers “length correct” and “number of different digits incorrect. Value “1234” again covers “length correct” and also “number of different digits correct”
b) Is not correct. These three values achieve full coverage of the equivalence partitions, but full coverage can be achieved with two values
c) Is not correct. These two values only cover “number of different digits
d) Is not correct. These two values does not cover “number of different digits incorrect” equivalence partition

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. This should be a team activity and not overruled by one team member
b) Is correct. If test estimates are not the same, but the variation in the results is small, applying rules like “accept the number with the most votes” can be applied
c) Is not correct. There is no consensus yet as some say 13, others say 8
d) Is not correct. A feature should not be removed only because the team cannot agree on the test estimates

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. The client is in a different location and time zone, so it may be difficult to communicate face-to-face
b) Is not correct. Dashboards are usually available to any user at any time, so the difference in time zones will not be as much of a hindrance to communication as verbal, face-to-face communication
c) Is not correct. Although the time difference between Europe and America is several hours, and this may cause some inconvenience, it's certainly not as great as with communicating face-to-face
d) Is not correct. Video conferencing tools are a convenient means of communication. Although communication between Europe and America during working hours usually requires one party to connect in the very early or very late hours, this is not as much of an inconvenience as verbal, face-to-face communication

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Test environment readiness is a resource availability criterion; hence it belongs to the entry criteria
b) Is not correct. This is a resource availability criterion; hence it belongs to the entry criteria
c) Is correct. Estimated defect density is a measure of diligence; hence it belongs to the exit criteria.
d) Is not correct. Requirements translated into a given format result in testable requirements; hence it belongs to the entry criteria
e) Is correct. Automation of regression tests is a completion criterion; hence it belongs to the exit criteria

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. 19 covers the “no discount” partition, 20 covers the “50% discount” partition, and 30 covers the “10% discount” partition. These three values cover all three of the valid equivalence partitions
b) Is not correct. 11 and 12 cover the “no discount” partition, while 20 covers the “50% discount” partition, so covering two of the three valid equivalence partitions
c) Is not correct. 1 covers the “no discount” partition, while 10 and 50 cover the “10% discount” partition. The “50% discount” partition is not covered, so overall two of the three valid equivalence partitions are covered
d) Is not correct. 29 and 31 cover the “no discount” partition, while 10 and 30 cover the “10% discount” partition. The “50% discount” partition is not covered, so overall two of the three valid equivalence partitions are covered

Explanation / Rationale

From the graph we have:

A(4)=6 and A(3)=8 (the last two gray boxes).

From the formula we obtain:

E(5) = (3*A(4) + A(3)) / 4 = (3*6+8) / 4 = 26 / 4 = 6.5 person-days.

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The feedback is from stakeholders (e.g., business representative, end user), not from developers, so this feedback is not likely to inform managers which developers are more or less productive
b) Is not correct. Early and frequent feedback from stakeholders is not used by project managers to prioritize how they interact with the different stakeholders
c) Is correct. Obtaining feedback from stakeholders early and often in the software development process can be highly beneficial as it facilitates early communication of potential quality issues, can prevent misunderstandings about requirements, and ensures that any changes in stakeholder requirements are understood and implemented sooner
d) Is not correct. Early and frequent feedback can prevent the development of a product that does not meet stakeholder needs, and results in costly rework and missed deadlines, so, ideally there should be no delay. Also, the feedback is from stakeholders (not to them), which includes the end users, so the end users providing feedback will not aid the end users’ understanding

Explanation / Rationale

Consider:

i. It is a Project risk
ii. It is a Product risk
iii. It is a Product risk
iv. It is a Project risk
v. It is a Product risk

Thus:
a) Is correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The test pyramid emphasizes having a larger number of tests at the lower test levels
b) Is correct. It is not true that near the top of pyramid, test automation should be more formal
c) Is not correct. Usually component testing and component integration testing are automated using API-based tools
d) Is not correct. For system testing and acceptance testing, the automated tests are typically created using GUI-based tools

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed risks and their mitigations:

1. Long system responses (1) can be tested in performance testing (B)
2. Changes of consumers’ preferences (2) are usually out of our control, so usually we accept this risk (A)
3. Flooding of the server room (3) can cause significant loss, so we should transfer the risk, e.g., by buying an insurance policy (D)
4. That patients above a certain age receive inaccurate reports (4) suggests a potential boundary problem, which can be effectively detected with techniques like BVA (C)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is correct. The correct combinations of risk and mitigation are: 1B, 2A, 3D and 4C
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

The ‘absence-of-defects fallacy’ is concerned with the idea that ensuring correctness in accordance with the requirements (i.e., verifying the absence of implementation defects) does not guarantee user satisfaction with the system. To address this it is also necessary to validate that the system meets users' needs and expectations, fulfills business objectives, and outperforms competing systems.
a) Is not correct. The ‘testing shows the presence, not the absence of defects’ principle explains that while testing can detect the existence of defects in the test object, it is not possible to demonstrate that there are no defects and, therefore, guarantee its correctness. Therefore, explaining that it is not possible for testing to show the absence of defects would partially address this principle, not the ‘absence-of-defects’ fallacy
b) Is correct. By supporting the end user to perform acceptance testing it should be possible to validate that the system meets users' needs and expectations
c) Is not correct. It is not possible to ensure that no implementation defects remain in the delivered system as the ‘testing shows the presence, not the absence of defects’ principle explains that while testing can detect the existence of defects in the test object, it is not possible to demonstrate that there are no defects and, therefore, guarantee its correctness
d) Is not correct. Modifying tests that cause no failures to ensure few defects remain is one way to address the ‘tests wear out’ principle. This principle is concerned with the idea that repeating identical tests on unaltered code is unlikely to uncover novel defects and therefore, modifying tests may be essential. This will not validate that the system meets users' needs and expectations

Explanation / Rationale

TC1 achieves the highest coverage (4/7 – Req1, Req3, Req4 and Req7), so should be executed first.
Req2, Req5 and Req6 are still not covered.
The next test case that achieves the highest additional coverage of the remaining requirements is TC3, covering 2 out of these 3 requirements (Req5 and Req6). So, TC3 should be executed as the second one.
Now the only requirement still not covered is Req2, which is covered by TC4. Therefore, TC4 should be executed as the third test case.
So, the last test case executed will be TC2.

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct