Explanation / Rationale

The equivalence partitions are: {…, 99, 100}, {101, 102, …, 198, 199}, {200, 201, …}.
Thus, there are 4 boundary values, which are: 100, 101, 199 and 200.
In 2-value BVA, for each boundary value there are two coverage items (the boundary value and its closest neighbor belonging to the adjacent partition). As the closest neighbors are also boundary values in the adjacent partition, then there are just four coverage items.

Thus:
a) Is not correct. Only 100 and 200 are valid coverage items for 2-value BVA, so we achieve 50% coverage
b) Is not correct. Only 100 and 200 are valid coverage items for 2-value BVA, so we achieve 50% coverage
c) Is not correct. Only 100 and 101 are valid coverage items for 2-value BVA, so we achieve 50% coverage
d) Is correct. 101, 199 and 200 are valid coverage items for 2-value BVA, so we achieve 75% coverage

Explanation / Rationale

Let us refer to the transitions with E1, …, E5 as in the picture. The variable N denotes the number of elements currently stored. Each “Add” event increases it by 1, and each “Remove” event decreases it by 1. Notice, that when the “Add” event occurs while being in the NOT FULL state, the state changes to FULL only if N=2. If N<2, the system stays in the NOT FULL state. If N=0, no “Remove” action is possible. Similarly, if N=3, no “Add” action is possible.

Test a) can be written as E1, E3, E3, E2, E4 (so covers 4 out of 5 valid transitions, achieving 80% valid transitions coverage).
Test b) is infeasible, because after the first three “Add” actions the system is in the FULL state and there is no valid transition going from FULL triggered by the “Add” event. After the first three transitions only 60% of valid transitions coverage is achieved.
Test c) can be written as E1, E2, E4, E5, E3 (so covers 5 out of 5 valid transitions, achieving 100% valid transitions coverage).
Test d) can be written as E1, E2, E4, E5, E4 (so covers 4 out of 5 valid transitions, achieving 80% valid transitions coverage).

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Validating that documented requirements are met is incorrect as validation is concerned with meeting user requirements and expectations, while verification is concerned with meeting specified requirements, so this would be correct if we replaced ‘validating’ with ‘verifying’
b) Is correct. Causing failures and identifying defects is probably the most common objective of dynamic testing
c) Is not correct. Initiating errors and identifying root causes is incorrect because testers do not initiate errors, they try to cause failures. Errors are typically made by developers (and cannot really be initiated) and result in defects, which testers attempt to identify either directly through static testing or indirectly through failures with dynamic testing. Identifying root causes is useful but is part of debugging, which is a separate activity to testing
d) Is not correct. Verifying the test object meets user expectations is incorrect as verification is concerned with checking specified (documented) requirements are met, while validation is concerned with meeting user requirements and expectations, so this would be correct if we replaced ‘verifying’ with ‘validating’

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. This is a common characteristic of white-box test techniques. Test conditions, test cases, and test data are derived from a test basis that may include code, software architecture, detailed design, or any other source of information regarding the structure of the software.
b) Is not correct. This is a common characteristic of white-box test techniques. Coverage is measured based on the items tested within a selected structure and the technique applied to the test basis
c) Is correct. This is a common characteristic of experience-based test techniques. This knowledge and experience include expected use of the software, its environment, likely defects, and the distribution of those defects is used to define tests
d) Is not correct. This is a common characteristic of black-box test techniques. Test cases may be used to detect gaps within requirements and the implementation of the requirements, as well as deviations from the requirements

Explanation / Rationale

In the three-point estimation technique:

E = (optimistic + 4*most likely + pessimistic)/6

E = (2+(4*11)+14)/6 = 10

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Test progress reports are mostly used during test monitoring and control, and test completion, not during test design
b) Is correct. A test completion report is prepared during test completion, when a project, test level, or test type is complete and when, ideally, its exit criteria have been met. This report uses information from test progress reports and other data
c) Is not correct. Test progress reports are mostly used during test monitoring and control, and test completion, not during test analysis
d) Is not correct. Test progress reports are most used during test monitoring and control, and test completion, not during test planning

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The book provides general guidance, and is not a formal requirements document, a specification, or a set of use cases, user stories, or business processes
b) Is not correct. While you could consider the list as a set of test charters, it more closely resembles the list of test conditions to be checked
c) Is correct. The list of user interface best practices is the list of test conditions to be systematically checked
d) Is not correct. The tests are not focused on failures that could occur, but rather on knowledge about what is important for the user, in terms of usability

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. For a complex configuration item (e.g., a test environment), CM records the items it consists of, their relationships, and versions
b) Is not correct. CM tools do not execute test cases and do not calculate coverage
c) Is not correct. A CM tool is not a license management tool
d) Is not correct. CM tools do not generate test data

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed testware, and the test activity that produces it:

i. The test completion report is an output of the test completion activity
ii. Data held in a database used for test inputs and expected results is the test data - output of test implementation activity
iii. The list of elements needed to build the test environment is the test environment requirements - output of test design activity.
iv. Documented sequences of test cases in execution order are the test procedures - output of test implementation activity
v. Test cases - output of test design activity

Test implementation produces the following outputs: test procedures (iv), automated test scripts, test suites, test data (ii), test execution schedule, and test environment elements such as stubs, drivers, simulators, and service virtualizations.

Thus:
a) Is correct. Items ii and iv in the list are produced as a result of test implementation
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. A member without a missed deadline can get a discount and a gift T-Shirt after 15 bicycle rentals
b) Is not correct. A member without a missed deadline can get a discount but no gift T-Shirt until they rented a bicycle 15 times
c) Is not correct. Non-members cannot get a discount, even if they did not miss a deadline yet
d) Is correct. No discount as a non-member that has also missed a deadline, but only members can receive a gift T-Shirt. Hence, the action is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Regression tests increase in number as the project progresses, as new regression tests are typically required as changes are made to the system. Similarly, the number of confirmation tests also typically increases as the project progresses as new confirmation tests are needed for each fix made to a system
b) Is not correct. It is the other way round. Confirmation tests are created and run when the test object is fixed, and regression tests are (ideally) run whenever the test object is enhanced (changed)
c) Is not correct. Confirmation testing verifies that a defect has been fixed correctly and so is concerned with testing changes to the test object. However, regression testing ensures that changes (including changes to the operational environment) do not have negative effects on unchanged software and so does not check that the operational environment remains unchanged
d) Is correct. Regression testing ensures that changes do not have negative effects on unchanged software. Confirmation testing verifies that a defect has been fixed – and so is concerned with changed code

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. ‘The capability of generating test cases without access to the test basis’ is not possible. The generation of test cases by either testers or tools requires access to the test basis
b) Is not correct. ‘The achievement of increased coverage through more objective assessment’ is not a direct benefit of test automation. Test automation will provide more objective assessment of coverage, however that objective assessment will not increase the coverage. Only by using the results of the coverage to write further test cases can the coverage possibly be increased
c) Is not correct. ‘The increase in test execution times available with higher processing power’ is a contradictory statement as higher processing power would normally reduce execution times, and increased execution times are not a benefit as the testing would take longer
d) Is correct. The prevention of human errors through greater consistency and repeatability is a benefit of test automation as test automation cannot suffer from human errors. For instance, it means that tests are consistently derived from requirements, test data is created in a systematic manner, and tests are executed by a tool in the same order with the same frequency

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. QA concentrates on process improvement and implementation, using a preventive approach to avoid errors and defects, while testing is a form of QC that is used to detect defects
b) Is correct. QC aims to achieve appropriate levels of quality by focusing on identifying and correcting product defects. Testing is a significant part of QC and helps to uncover these defects
c) Is not correct. Although testing is a significant part of QC and helps to uncover defects, other (non-testing) techniques utilized in QC include formal methods like model checking and proof of correctness, as well as simulation and prototyping
d) Is not correct. QA concentrates on process improvement and implementation, using a preventive approach to avoid errors and defects, while testing is a form of QC that is used to detect defects

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Risk management consists of risk analysis and risk control. Neither of these activities supports the reassembly of the files that made up the release, because these activities deal with risks, not with configuration items
b) Is not correct. Test monitoring is concerned with gathering information about testing. This information is used to assess test progress and to measure whether the test exit criteria or the test tasks associated with the exit criteria are satisfied, such as meeting the targets for coverage of product risks, requirements, or other acceptance criteria. Test control uses the information from test monitoring to provide, in the form of control directives, guidance and the necessary corrective actions to achieve the most effective and efficient testing. None of these activities deal with the management of configuration items
c) Is not correct. The whole-team approach builds on the tester’s skill to work effectively in a team context and to contribute positively to the team goals. So, it focuses on team-related issues, not on configuration items
d) Is correct. Configuration management provides a discipline for identifying, controlling, and tracking work products. Configuration management keeps a record of changed configuration items when a new baseline is created. Using configuration management, it is possible to revert to a previous baseline in order to reproduce previous test results

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. In agile software development, deliverables are produced in each iteration, and the frequent delivery of increments necessitates extensive regression testing. Although some (or all) of this regression testing may be automated, the regression testing (automated or not) cannot be replaced by system test automation
b) Is correct. If a sequential development model is used, then early in the lifecycle no code is available for execution, and so during this time static testing (e.g., reviews) is performed. Later in the lifecycle, when code is available for execution, dynamic testing is possible. Note, however, that preparation for dynamic testing will often occur early in any software development lifecycle
c) Is not correct. If an iterative development model, like agile software development, is used, then component tests may well be used for regression testing for each iteration. In which case, there is a strong argument for automating these component tests, which will have to be run frequently, and there is unlikely to be a strong argument for developers performing these component tests manually
d) Is not correct. In most incremental development models, deliverables are produced in each increment, requiring both static and dynamic testing at all test levels for each increment delivered

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The test case is related to viewing previous orders in the order history
b) Is not correct. The test case is related to viewing previous orders
c) Is not correct. The test case is related to viewing previous orders in the order history
d) Is correct. The test case is related to the registration process, which is not discussed in the user story. The user story is about viewing previous orders

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The paragraph contains information on test levels and exit criteria, which are part of the test approach
b) Is not correct. The paragraph contains information on test levels and exit criteria, which are part of the test approach
c) Is not correct. The paragraph contains information on test levels and exit criteria, which are part of the test approach
d) Is correct. The paragraph contains information on test levels and exit criteria, which are part of the test approach

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. It is important that testers are involved from the beginning of the software development lifecycle (SDLC). It will increase understanding of design decisions and will detect defects early.
b) Is not correct. Both developers and testers will have more understanding of each other's work products and how to test the code
c) Is not correct. End users will not help the testers in increasing the quality of defect reports; also, users usually do not participate in low-level testing levels like integration testing
d) Is not correct. Being certified does not automatically mean that the tester will be better in test design

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed benefits and drawbacks of the independence of testing:

i. Ideally, we want close collaboration between testers and developers, which is not increased by isolation. Thus, this is a disadvantage
ii. Testers and developers have varied backgrounds, technical viewpoints, and potential biases, allowing testers to usefully challenge assumptions made by stakeholders during system specification and implementation. Thus, this is an advantage
iii. The main disadvantage of independence in testing is that testers may become isolated from the development team, leading to communication problems, a lack of collaboration, and potentially an adversarial relationship, with testers being blamed for delays and bottlenecks in the release process. Thus, this is a disadvantage
iv. One of the disadvantages of independence in testing is that testers may become isolated from the development team, leading to developers feeling less accountable for quality. Thus, this is a disadvantage
v. The primary benefit of independence in testing is that testers are more likely to identify different types of failures and defects compared to developers, due to their varied backgrounds, technical viewpoints, and potential biases, including cognitive bias

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct. The list entries showing benefits are ii and v
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Adding this information allows the developer to use the same input data, so it is more likely they will be able to reproduce the failure quickly and so identify the defect faster
b) Is not correct. Adding the value of Priority will not help in reproducing the defect itself
c) Is not correct. Although some of this information may be of value, adding the memory dumps and database snapshots after each step will be too much, because most of these artefacts will contain useless information for the developer, and make the report less readable. It will also require the developer to spend a lot of time analyzing this information, which will lengthen the repair process
d) Is not correct. The question was about helping the developer to reproduce the defect observed for a specific environment configuration

Explanation / Rationale

The domain for the password length has three equivalence partitions:

• passwords too short {0, 1, …, 4, 5}
• passwords OK {6, 7, …, 11, 12}
• passwords too long {13, 14, …}

To achieve full coverage for 3-value BVA we need to test the following values:

0, 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 11, 12, 13, 14.

Since 2-value BVA is already covered, this means that we have already tested the passwords of length:

0, 5, 6, 12 and 13.

This means that the additional lengths that need to be covered to move from 2-value to 3-value are:

1, 4, 7, 11 and 14.

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is correct

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed tool categories and their descriptions:

A. Static testing tools – support the tester in performing reviews and static analysis (4)
B. Tools supporting scalability and deployment standardization – For example, virtual machines, containerization tools (3)
C. DevOps tools – support the DevOps delivery pipeline, workflow tracking, automated build process(es), continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD) (1)
D. Collaboration tools – facilitate communication (2)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is correct. The correct match is: 1C, 2D, 3B, 4A
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. DevOps enhances testing in several ways, such as by providing fast feedback on code quality, automated regression testing that minimizes regression risk, and promoting a shift-left approach with high-quality code submission and component tests. This is largely provided through continuous integration, where the developers submit component (unit) tests with their new code, which must pass for the code to be admitted to the build. Therefore, developers do need to complete component testin
b) Is correct. DevOps enhances testing in several ways, such as by providing fast feedback on code quality, automated regression testing that minimizes regression risk, and promoting a shift-left approach with high-quality code submission and component tests
c) Is not correct. DevOps enhances testing in several ways, such as by providing fast feedback on code quality, automated regression testing that minimizes regression risk, and promoting a shift-left approach with high-quality code submission and component tests. Testers do not attempt to treat developers and operations equally by spending more time on release testing, although a shift-right approach to testing (testing in production) may well be used
d) Is not correct. Automated processes like continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD) in DevOps facilitate stable test environments and reduce the need for manual testing, however, there is a risk of overlooking the importance of manual testing, especially from a user's perspective

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Checklists should contain test conditions to be verified. This is an example of an error, not a test condition; even if the tester was able to deduce some potential test conditions from the examples of errors, this error description is too general
b) Is not correct. Checklists should not contain items that are better suited as exit criteria. This is an example of an exit criterion
c) Is not correct. Checklists should not contain items that are too general. This is a very general item, which practically describes the goal of testing
d) Is correct. This is an example of a test condition that can be checked by a human

Explanation / Rationale

Test cases TC1, TC2, TC3 and TC4 cover, respectively, rules R2, R3, R7 and R6 in the decision table.
a) Is correct. The conditions “66-year-old”, “unregistered” and “no experience” match rule R4, which is not covered by the existing test cases, so after adding this test case, the decision table coverage will increase
b) Is not correct. The conditions “55-year-old”, “unregistered” and “2 years of experience” match rule R2, already covered by TC1. So adding this test case will not increase the coverage
c) Is not correct. The conditions “19-year-old”, “registered” and “5 years of experience” match rule R6, already covered by TC4. So adding this test case will not increase the coverage
d) Is not correct. The existing test cases cover only 4 out of 7 columns of the decision table. The coverage can be increased by adding test cases that cover yet uncovered columns, that is, R1, R4 and R5

Explanation / Rationale

Consider:

i. It is a Project risk
ii. It is a Product risk
iii. It is a Product risk
iv. It is a Project risk
v. It is a Product risk

Thus:
a) Is correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Priorities for user stories are determined by the business representative together with the development team
b) Is not correct. Testers focus on both functional and non-functional aspects of the system to be tested
c) Is correct. According to the syllabus, this is one of the ways testers add value to iteration and release planning
d) Is not correct. Early test design is not part of release planning. Early test design does not automatically guarantee the release of quality software

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. The test plan may include test data requirements (as part of the test approach), but not the detailed test data for test cases. Test data is part of the test cases, not the test plan. Also, it is usually impossible to define such data when the test plan is created, because it is not exactly known what the components will look like
b) Is not correct. One of the purposes of a test plan is to help ensure that the performed test activities will meet the established criteria, by including entry criteria and exit criteria. The code coverage criteria are an example of such criteria for the component test level
c) Is not correct. Documentation templates are typical content of a test plan. This helps to facilitate communication between the stakeholders by defining a standard way of communicating or reporting
d) Is not correct. One of the purposes of a test plan is to demonstrate that testing will adhere to the existing test policy and test strategy, or to explain why the testing will deviate from them. This is an example of explaining the deviation, regarding the test levels that will be (or will not be) followed

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The document does not refer to the test object’s internal structure but specifies the desired behavior of the test object. Therefore, white-box test techniques will not be helpful in designing test cases
b) Is correct. The document is a requirement that specifies the desired behavior of the test object. Therefore, the most suitable test techniques in this case are the black-box test techniques (e.g., Boundary Value Analysis or Decision Table Testing)
c) Is not correct. Although experience-based test techniques can be used to design test cases based on this document, black-box test techniques will be more suitable. The document describes a precise business rule and, in addition, wording like "exceeds $100" suggests the existence of important equivalence partition boundaries that should be tested using black-box test techniques like boundary value analysis
d) Is not correct. Risk-based test techniques are not a recognized type of test technique

Explanation / Rationale

Because TC1 and TC3 failed in Execution 1 (i.e., test (1) and test (3)), test (4) and test (6) are confirmation tests.
Because TC2 and TC3 failed in Execution 2 (i.e., tests (5) and (6)), test (8) and test (9) are also confirmation tests.
TC2 passed in Execution 1 (i.e., test (2)), so test (5) is a regression test.
TC1 passed in the Execution 2 (i.e., test (4)), so test (7) is also a regression test.
Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed task descriptions:

1. The quality characteristics to be evaluated and the exit criteria are selected - (Planning (C): Defining the review scope, purpose, work product to be reviewed, quality characteristics to be evaluated, areas of focus, exit criteria, supporting information such as standards, effort, and timeframes.)
2. Everyone has access to the work product - (Review initiation (B): Ensuring all participants have access to the work product and necessary resources, and clarifying their roles and responsibilities.)
3. Anomalies are identified in the work product - (Individual review (A): Evaluating the work product's quality, identifying and logging anomalies, recommendations, and questions using review techniques like checklist-based and scenario-based reviewing.)
4. Anomalies are analyzed and discussed - (Communication and analysis (D): Analyzing and discussing each anomaly, determining its status, ownership, and required actions, and making review decisions, normally in a meeting. This could include determining the need for a follow-up review.)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is correct. The correct match is: 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D

Explanation / Rationale

Error guessing is about anticipating the errors, defects and failures based on the tester’s knowledge.
a) Is not correct. This is an example of anticipating the developer’s error
b) Is not correct. This is an example of anticipating the defect
c) Is correct. This is an example of a potential root cause of a defect, which is neither an error, defect nor failure, and difficult for the tester to anticipate
d) Is not correct. This is an example of anticipating a failure, perhaps based on experience of previous systems in this application domain

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Risk monitoring is part of risk control, not risk analysis
b) Is not correct. Risk identification itself does not allow us to implement risk mitigation activities. The mitigating actions are defined during the risk control phase
c) Is correct. This is an example of how risk analysis influences the thoroughness and scope of testing
d) Is not correct. Coverage items are derived using test techniques, not through risk analysis

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. It is more often used in behavior-driven development (BDD)
b) Is not correct. It is the description of test-driven development (TDD)
c) Is correct. In acceptance test-driven development (ATDD) tests are written from acceptance criteria as part of the design process
d) Is not correct. It is used in BDD

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The organization’s marketing team is unlikely to perform much testing (although in some organizations they may be involved with acceptance testing), so their average level of experience (most of which would be in marketing) is not likely to impact how testing is performed for a given test object
b) Is not correct. The level of knowledge of users that a new system is being built for them is unlikely to affect how testing is performed. Any user involvement that could affect how testing is performed is more likely to be as a result of decisions made by the testers, customer and project manager
c) Is correct. The number of years’ experience of the members of the performance testing team will help to determine the capabilities and knowledge (e.g., of different tools and defect types) that the team members will apply when they are testing
d) Is not correct. The organizational structure of the different end users (who may be varied) will change between users. So, it may not even be known when the application is being tested, and the end user’s organizational structure can thus have little effect on how the testing is performed

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. This test case is related to acceptance criteria 2 and 3, because we check if we can set price range (acceptance criterion 2) and if the results update dynamically after adjusting the price range filter (acceptance criterion 3)
b) Is not correct. This test case is not related to any of the acceptance criteria. It checks if the filter dynamically sets the default minimum and maximum price range, and not that a customer can do it
c) Is not correct. This test case is not related to any of the acceptance criteria. It checks the currency exchange feature, which is not discussed in this user story
d) Is not correct. This test case is not related to any of the acceptance criteria. It checks the application’s compatibility with different browsers, which is not discussed in this user story

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Since 100% statement coverage is achieved, every statement, including the ones with defects, must have been executed and evaluated at least once
b) Is not correct. Coverage depends on what is tested, not on the number of test cases. For example, for code “if (x==0) y=1”, one test case (x=0) achieves 100% statement coverage, but two test cases (x=1) and (x=2) together achieve only 50% statement coverage
c) Is not correct. If there is a loop in the code there may be an infinite number of possible paths, so it is not possible to execute all the possible paths in the code
d) Is not correct. Exhaustive testing is not possible (see the seven testing principles section in the syllabus). For example, for code “input x; print x” any single test with arbitrary x achieves 100% statement coverage, but covers one input value

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The manager is responsible for deciding what needs to be reviewed and allocating resources, such as staff and time, for the review
b) Is correct. The moderator (or facilitator) is responsible for ensuring that the review meetings run effectively, including managing time, mediating discussions, and creating a safe environment where everyone can voice their opinions freely
c) Is not correct. The chairperson is not a recognized role in reviews
d) Is not correct. The review leader is responsible for overseeing the review process, such as selecting the review team members, scheduling review meetings, and ensuring that the review is completed successfully

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Estimating the test effort is part of test planning
b) Is correct. This is an example of defining test conditions which is a part of test analysis
c) Is not correct. Using test techniques to derive coverage items is a part of test design
d) Is not correct. Reporting defects found during dynamic testing is a part of test execution

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The combination (T, T, F) does not match any rule. This is an example of omission, not a contradiction
b) Is not correct. The combination (T, F, T) matches only one column, R2, so there is no contradiction
c) Is not correct. Both combinations (T, T, T) and (F, T, T) match only one column, R1, so there is no contradiction
d) Is correct. The combination (F, F, F) matches both R2 and R3, but R2 and R3 have different actions, so this shows a contradiction between R2 and R3.