Exam 5 – 75 minutes – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 23, 2024 By

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Exam 5 - 75 minutes

Name

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1. Given the following descriptions of review activities:

1. Detected anomalies are deliberated upon, and determinations are reached regarding their status, ownership, and any further steps needed
2. Issues are recorded, and any needed updates are addressed prior to the acceptance of the work product
3. Reviewers employ techniques to come up with suggestions and questions about the work product and to spot anomalies
4. The objective of the review and its schedule are established to ensure a focused and efficient review
5. Participants are provided with access to the item being reviewed

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence in the review process of the activities that correspond to the descriptions?

a) 4 – 3 – 5 – 2 – 1

b) 4 – 5 – 3 – 1 – 2

c) 5 – 4 – 1 – 3 – 2

d) 5 – 4 – 3 – 2 – 1

Select ONE option.

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2. The following is a list of the work products produced in the SDLC.

i. Business requirements
ii. Schedule
iii. Test budget
iv. Third-party executable code
v. User stories and their acceptance criteria

Which of them can be reviewed?

a) i and iv can be reviewed

b) i, ii, iii and iv can be reviewed

c) i, ii, iii, and v can be reviewed

d) iii, iv, v can be reviewed

Select ONE option.

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3. Which collaborative user story writing practice enables the team to achieve a collective understanding of what needs to be delivered?

a) Planning poker, so that a team can achieve consensus on the effort needed to implement a user story

b) Reviews, so that a team can detect inconsistencies and contradictions in a user story

c) Iteration planning, so that user stories with the highest business value for a customer can be prioritized for implementation

d) Conversation, so that team members can understand how the software will be used

Select ONE option.

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4. You are testing a user story with three acceptance criteria: AC1, AC2 and AC3. AC1 is covered by test case TC1, AC2 by TC2, and AC3 by TC3. The test execution history had three test runs on three consecutive versions of the software as follows:

Tests are repeated once you are informed that all defects found in the test run are corrected and a new version of the software is available.
Which of the above tests are executed as regression tests?

a) Only 4, 7, 8, 9

b) Only 5, 7

c) Only 4, 6, 8, 9

d) Only 5, 6

Select ONE option.

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5. You have just started designing test cases for the following user story.

In all test cases the precondition is as follows: there are only two products available, products A and B. Product A costs $100 and product B costs $110.

Which of the following is the BEST example of a test case for this user story?

a) Enter webpage and set filter to show prices between $90 and $100. Expected result: results show product A only. Set maximum price to $110. Expected result: results now include both products A and B

b) Enter webpage. Expected result: the default minimum and maximum prices are $100 and $110 respectively. Add product C to stock, with price $120. Refresh the client’s webpage. Expected result: the default maximum price changes to $120

c) Enter webpage and set filter to show prices between $90 and $115. Expected result: results show both products A and B. Change currency from USD to EUR. Expected result: the filter range changes correctly to EUR values, according to the current exchange rate

d) Enter webpage with three different browsers: Edge, Chrome and Opera. In each browser set filter between $90 and $110. Expected result: results include both products A and B and the results layout is the same in all three browsers

Select ONE option.

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6. Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?

a) Component Test-Driven Development

b) Integration Test-Driven Development

c) System Test-Driven Development

d) Acceptance Test-Driven Development

Select ONE option.

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7. Decide which of the following statements (i-v) are true for static testing.

i. Abnormal external behaviors are easier to identify with this testing
ii. Discrepancies from a coding standard are easier to find with this testing
iii. It identifies failures caused by defects when the software is run
iv. Its test objective is to identify defects as early as possible
v. Missing coverage for critical security requirements is easier to find and fix

a) i, iv, v are true for static testing

b) i, iii, iv are true for static testing

c) ii, iii are true for static testing

d) ii, iv, v are true for static testing

Select ONE option.

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8. Which participant in the review process is responsible for ensuring that the review meetings run effectively and that everyone at the meetings can voice their opinions freely?

a) Manager

b) Moderator

c) Chairperson

d) Review Leader

Select ONE option.

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9. During a risk analysis the following risk was identified and assessed:

• Risk: Response time is too long to generate a report
• Risk likelihood: medium; risk impact: high
• Response to risk:

o An independent test team performs performance testing during system testing
o A selected sample of end users performs alpha and beta acceptance testing before the release

What measure is proposed to be taken in response to this analyzed risk?

a) Risk acceptance

b) Contingency plan

c) Risk mitigation

d) Risk transfer

Select ONE option.

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10. Which of the following is an advantage of the whole team approach?

a) Improved communication between team members

b) Decreased individual accountability for quality

c) Faster deployment of deliverables to the end users

d) Reduced collaboration with external business users

Select ONE option.

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11. Given the following testware:

i. Test completion report
ii. Data held in a database used for test inputs and expected results
iii. The list of elements needed to build the test environment
iv. Documented sequences of test cases in execution order
v. Test cases

Which of the following BEST shows the testware produced as a result of performing test implementation?

a) ii, iv

b) iii, v

c) i, ii, v

d) i, iii, iv

Select ONE option.

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12. Which of the following is NOT an example of the shift left approach?

a) Reviewing the user requirements before they are formally accepted by the stakeholders

b) Writing a component test before the corresponding code is written

c) Executing a performance efficiency test for a component during component testing

d) Writing a test script before setting up the configuration management process

Select ONE option.

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13. Which of the following provides the BEST example of a scenario-oriented acceptance criterion?

a) The application must allow users to delete their account and all associated data upon request

b) When a customer adds an item to their cart and proceeds to checkout, they should be prompted to log in or create an account if they haven’t already done so

c) IF (contain(product(23).Name, cart.products())) THEN return FALSE

d) The website must comply with the ICT Accessibility 508 Standards and ensure that all content is accessible to users with disabilities

Select ONE option.

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14. You are designing test cases based on the following state transition diagram:

What is the MINIMUM number of test cases required to achieve 100% valid transitions coverage?

a) 3

b) 2

c) 5

d) 6

Select ONE option.

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15. Given the following risks:

1. Ineffective loop implementation causes long system responses
2. Consumers change their preferences
3. Flooding of the server room
4. Patients above a certain age receive inaccurate reports

And the following mitigation activities:

A. Risk acceptance
B. Performance testing
C. Using boundary value analysis as the test technique
D. Risk transfer

Which of the following BEST matches the risks with the mitigation activities?

a) 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B

b) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C

c) 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C

d) 1C, 2A, 3D, 4B

Select ONE option.

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16. Which of the following is a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

a) For each test level, there is a corresponding development level

b) For each test objective, there is a corresponding development objective

c) For every software test activity, there is a corresponding user activity

d) For every software development activity, there is a corresponding test activity

Select ONE option.

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17. Which of the following is a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

a) Each test level has specific and distinct test objectives

b) Test implementation and execution for a given test level should start during the corresponding development phase

c) Testers should start test design as soon as drafts of the relevant work products become available

d) Every dynamic testing activity has a corresponding static testing activity

Select ONE option.

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18. Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur as a result of a retrospective?

a) The quality of future test objects improves by identifying improvements in development practices

b) Test efficiency improves by speeding up the configuration of test environments through automation

c) End users’ understanding of the development and test processes is improved

d) Automated test scripts are enhanced through feedback from developers

Select ONE option.

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19. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test automation?

a) It provides coverage measures that are too complicated for humans to derive

b) It shares responsibility for the testing with the tool vendor

c) It removes the need for critical thinking when analyzing test results

d) It generates test cases from an analysis of the program code

Select ONE option.

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20. You are testing a simplified apartment search form which has only two search criteria:

• floor (with three possible options: ground floor; first floor; second or higher floor)
• garden type (with three possible options: no garden; small garden; large garden)

Only apartments on the ground floor have gardens. The form has a built-in validation mechanism that will not allow you to use the search criteria which violate this rule.

Each test has two input values: floor and garden type. You want to apply equivalence partitioning (EP) to cover each floor and each garden type in your tests.

What is the minimal number of test cases to achieve 100% EP coverage?

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

Select ONE option

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21. Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing?

a) Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past and typical errors made by developers

b) Error guessing involves using your personal experience of development and the errors you made as a developer

c) Error guessing requires you to imagine that you are the user of the test object and to guess errors the user could make interacting with it

d) Error guessing requires you to rapidly duplicate the development task to identify the sort of errors a developer might make

Select ONE option.

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22. Which test activity does a data preparation tool support?

a) Test monitoring and control

b) Test analysis and design

c) Test implementation and execution

d) Test completion

Select ONE option.

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23. According to the testing quadrants model, which of the following falls into quadrant Q1 (“technology facing” and “support the team”)?

a) Usability testing

b) Functional testing

c) User acceptance testing

d) Component integration testing

Select ONE option.

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24. Which types of failures (1-4) fit which test levels (A-D) BEST?

1. Failures in system behavior as it deviates from the user’s business needs
2. Failures in communication between components
3. Failures in logic in a module
4. Failures in not correctly implemented business rules

A. Component testing
B. Component integration testing
C. System testing
D. Acceptance testing

a) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C

b) 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A

c) 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C

d) 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D

Select ONE option.

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25. Which test activity involves working with test data requirements, test conditions, test environment requirements and test cases?

a) Test design

b) Test execution

c) Test analysis

d) Test implementation

Select ONE option.

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26. Which TWO of the following statements provide the BEST rationale for using exploratory testing?

a) Testers have not been allocated enough time for test design and test execution

b) The existing test strategy requires that testers use formal, black-box test techniques

c) The specification is written in a formal language that can be processed by a tool

d) Testers are the members of an agile team and have good programming skills

e) Testers are experienced in the business domain and have good analytical skills

Select TWO options.

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27. Which of these statements is NOT a factor that contributes to successful reviews?

a) Participants should dedicate adequate time for the review

b) Splitting large work products into small parts to make the required effort less intense

c) Participants should avoid behaviors that might indicate boredom, exasperation, or hostility to other participants

d) Failures found should be acknowledged, appreciated, and handled objectively

Select ONE option.

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28. How can the testing quadrants be beneficial for testing?

a) They help in test planning by dividing the test process into four stages, corresponding to the four basic test levels: component, integration, system, and acceptance testing

b) They help in assessing the high-level coverage (e.g., requirements coverage) based on low-level coverage (e.g., code coverage)

c) They help non-technical stakeholders to understand the different types of tests and that some test types are more relevant to certain test levels than others

d) They help agile teams to develop a communication strategy based on classifying people according to four basic psychological types, and on modelling the relations between them

Select ONE options.

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29. Which of the following is the BEST example of how traceability supports testing?

a) Performing the impact analysis of a change will give information about the completion of the tests

b) Analyzing the traceability between test cases and test results will give information about the estimated level of residual risk

c) Performing the impact analysis of a change will help selecting the right test cases for regression testing

d) Analyzing the traceability between the test basis, the test objects and the test cases will help in selecting test data to achieve the assumed coverage of the test object

Select ONE option.

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30. You have been assigned as a tester to a team producing a new system incrementally. You have noticed that no changes have been made to the existing regression test cases for several iterations and no new regression defects were identified. Your manager is happy, but you are not. Which testing principle explains your skepticism?

a) Tests wear out

b) Absence-of-errors fallacy

c) Defects cluster together

d) Exhaustive testing is impossible

Select ONE option.

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31. Which of the following is NOT a valid purpose for a test report?

a) Tracking test progress and identifying areas that require further attention

b) Providing information on the tests executed, their results, and any issues or defects found

c) Providing information about each defect, such as the steps to reproduce it

d) Providing information on testing planned for the next period

Select ONE options.

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32. For a given risk, its risk level is $1,000 and its risk likelihood is estimated as 50%.

What is the risk impact?

a) $500

b) $2,000

c) $50,000

d) $200

Select ONE options.

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33. Your team uses the three-point estimation technique to estimate the test effort for a new high-risk feature. The following estimates were made:

• Most optimistic estimation: 2 person-hours
• Most likely estimation: 11 person-hours
• Most pessimistic estimation: 14 person-hours

What is the final estimate?

a) 9 person-hours

b) 14 person-hours

c) 11 person-hours

d) 10 person-hours

Select ONE option.

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34. You run two test cases, T1 and T2, on the same code. Test T1 achieved 40% statement coverage and test T2 achieved 65% statement coverage.

Which of the following sentences must be necessarily true?

a) The test suite composed with tests T1 and T2 achieves 105% statement coverage

b) There exists at least one statement that must have been executed by both T1 and T2

c) At least 5% of the statements in the code under test are non-executable

d) The test suite composed of tests T1 and T2 achieves full branch coverage

Select ONE option.

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35. The system for selling cinema tickets calculates the discount type based on the client’s birth year (BY) and on the current year (CY) as follows:

Let D be the difference between CY and BY, that is, D = CY – BY

• If D < 0 then print the error message “birth year cannot be greater than current year”

• If 0 ≤ D < 18 then apply the student discount

• If 18 ≤ D < 65 then apply no discount • If D ≥ 65 then apply the pensioner discount

Your test suite already contains two test cases:

• BY = 1990, CY = 2020, expected result: no discount
• BY = 2030, CY = 2029, expected result: print the error message

Which of the following test data sets should be added to achieve full valid equivalence partitioning coverage for the discount type?

a) BY = 2001, CY = 2065

b) BY = 1900, CY = 1965

c) BY = 1965, CY = 1900

d) BY = 2011, CY = 2029

e) BY = 2000, CY = 2000

Select TWO options.

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36. Given the following example defects:

i. Two different parts of the design specification disagree due to the complexity of the design
ii. A response time is too long and so makes users lose patience
iii. A path in the code cannot be reached during execution
iv. A variable is declared but never subsequently used in the program
v. The amount of memory needed by the program to generate a report is too high

Which of the following BEST identifies example defects that could be found by static testing (rather than dynamic testing)?

a) ii, v

b) iii, v

c) i, ii, iv

d) i, iii, iv

Select ONE option.

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37. Which of the following is MOST likely to describe a task performed by someone in a test management role?

a) Evaluate test basis and test object

b) Define test environment requirements

c) Assess testability of test object

d) Create test completion report

Select ONE option.

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38. You are testing a mobile application that allows users to find a nearby restaurant based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (i.e., a smaller number means a higher priority), and dependencies:

Which of the following test cases should be executed as the third one?

a) TC 003

b) TC 005

c) TC 002

d) TC 001

Select ONE option.

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39. Consider the following test categories (1-4) and agile testing quadrants (A-D):

1. Usability testing
2. Component testing
3. Functional testing
4. Reliability testing

A. Agile testing quadrant Q1: technology facing, supporting the development team
B. Agile testing quadrant Q2: business facing, supporting the development team
C. Agile testing quadrant Q3: business facing, critique the product
D. Agile testing quadrant Q4: technology facing, critique the product

How do the following test categories map onto the agile testing quadrants?

a) 1C, 2A, 3B, 4D

b) 1D, 2A, 3C, 4B

c) 1C, 2B, 3D, 4A

d) 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A

Select ONE option.

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40. Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?

a) Behavior-Driven Development

b) Test Level Driven Development

c) Function-Driven Development

d) Performance-Driven Development

Select ONE option.

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