ISTQB Learning

Test your knowledge

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Created on By Admin

Exam 1 - 75 minutes

1 / 40

1. Which of the following statements describe a valid test objective?

Select ONE option.

2 / 40

2. Your team uses the three-point estimation technique to estimate the test effort for a new high-risk feature. The following estimates were made:

• Most optimistic estimation: 2 person-hours
• Most likely estimation: 11 person-hours
• Most pessimistic estimation: 14 person-hours

What is the final estimate?

Select ONE option.

3 / 40

3. Which item correctly identifies a potential risk of performing test automation?

Select ONE option.

4 / 40

4. Which of the following is an example of how product risk analysis influences thoroughness and scope of testing?

Select ONE option.

5 / 40

5. You are testing a simplified apartment search form which has only two search criteria:

• floor (with three possible options: ground floor; first floor; second or higher floor)
• garden type (with three possible options: no garden; small garden; large garden)

Only apartments on the ground floor have gardens. The form has a built-in validation mechanism that will not allow you to use the search criteria which violate this rule.

Each test has two input values: floor and garden type. You want to apply equivalence partitioning (EP) to cover each floor and each garden type in your tests.

What is the minimal number of test cases to achieve 100% EP coverage?

Select ONE option

6 / 40

6. A wine storage system uses a control device that measures the wine cell temperature T (measured in °C, rounded to the nearest degree) and alarms the user if it deviates from the optimal value of 12, according to the following rules:

• if T = 12, the system says, “optimal temperature”

• if T < 12, the system says, “temperature is too low!”

• if T > 12, the system says, “temperature is too high!”

You want to use the 3-point boundary value analysis (BVA) to verify the behavior of the control device. A test input is a temperature in °C provided by the device.

What is the MINIMAL set of test inputs that achieves 100% of the desired coverage?

Select ONE option.

7 / 40

7. Decide which of the following statements (i-v) are true for static testing.

i. Abnormal external behaviors are easier to identify with this testing
ii. Discrepancies from a coding standard are easier to find with this testing
iii. It identifies failures caused by defects when the software is run
iv. Its test objective is to identify defects as early as possible
v. Missing coverage for critical security requirements is easier to find and fix

Select ONE option.

8 / 40

8. In your project there has been a delay in the release of a brand-new application and test execution started late, but you have very detailed domain knowledge and good analytical skills. The full list of requirements has not yet been shared with the team, but management is asking for some test results to be presented.

Which test technique fits BEST in this situation?

Select ONE option.

9 / 40

9. Which of the following are advantages of DevOps?

i. Faster product release and faster time to market
ii. Increases the need for repetitive manual testing
iii. Constant availability of executable software
iv. Reduction in the number of regression tests associated with code refactoring
v. Setting up the test automation framework is inexpensive since everything is automated

Select ONE option.

10 / 40

10. Which of the following is NOT an example of the shift left approach?

Select ONE option.

11 / 40

11. Your team uses planning poker to estimate the test effort for a newly required feature. There is a rule in your team that if there is no time to reach full agreement and the variation in the results is small, applying rules like “accept the number with the most votes” can be applied.
After two rounds, the consensus was not reached, so the third round was initiated. You can see the test estimation results in the table below.

Which of the following is the BEST example of the next step?

Select ONE option.

12 / 40

12. Which types of failures (1-4) fit which test levels (A-D) BEST?

1. Failures in system behavior as it deviates from the user’s business needs
2. Failures in communication between components
3. Failures in logic in a module
4. Failures in not correctly implemented business rules

A. Component testing
B. Component integration testing
C. System testing
D. Acceptance testing

Select ONE option.

13 / 40

13. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of static testing?

Select ONE option.

14 / 40

14. You were given a task to analyze and fix causes of failures in a new system to be released.

Which activity are you performing?

Select ONE option.

15 / 40

15. Which of the following BEST describes the way acceptance criteria can be documented?

Select ONE option.

16 / 40

16. Your test suite achieved 100% statement coverage. What is the consequence of this fact?

Select ONE option.

17 / 40

17. You are testing a mobile application that allows users to find a nearby restaurant based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (i.e., a smaller number means a higher priority), and dependencies:

Which of the following test cases should be executed as the third one?

Select ONE option.

18 / 40

18. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independence of testing?

Select ONE option.

19 / 40

19. The following list contains risks that have been identified for a new software product to be developed:

i. Management moves two experienced testers to another project
ii. The system does not comply with functional safety standards
iii. System response time exceeds user requirements
iv. Stakeholders have inaccurate expectations
v. Disabled people have problems when using the system

Which of them are project risks?

Select ONE option.

20 / 40

20. What task may management take on during a formal review?

Select ONE option.

21 / 40

21. Consider the following test categories (1-4) and agile testing quadrants (A-D):

1. Usability testing
2. Component testing
3. Functional testing
4. Reliability testing

A. Agile testing quadrant Q1: technology facing, supporting the development team
B. Agile testing quadrant Q2: business facing, supporting the development team
C. Agile testing quadrant Q3: business facing, critique the product
D. Agile testing quadrant Q4: technology facing, critique the product

How do the following test categories map onto the agile testing quadrants?

Select ONE option.

22 / 40

22. A phone ringing in a neighboring cubicle distracts a programmer causing him to improperly program the logic that checks the upper boundary of an input variable. Later, during system testing, a tester notices that this input field accepts invalid input values.

Which of the following correctly describes an incorrectly coded upper bound?

Select ONE option.

23 / 40

23. Which of the following is the BEST example of how traceability supports testing?

Select ONE option.

24 / 40

24. You are testing a mobile application that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. You are running a test suite that involves evaluating each screen, and each field on each screen, against a general list of user interface best practices derived from a popular book on the topic that maximizes attractiveness, ease-of-use, and accessibility for such applications. Which of the following options BEST categorizes the test technique you are using?

Select ONE option.

25 / 40

25. Which TWO of the following options are the exit criteria for testing a system?

Select TWO options.

26 / 40

26. Which of the following BEST describe the collaborative approach to user story writing?

Select ONE option.

27 / 40

27. Consider the following testware.

Which test activity produces this testware as an output?

Select ONE option.

28 / 40

28. Your organization’s test strategy suggests that once a system is going to be retired, data migration shall be tested. As part of what test type is this testing MOST likely to be performed?

Select ONE option.

29 / 40

29. Which TWO of the following options are common metrics used for reporting on the quality level of the test object?

Select TWO options.

30 / 40

30. Which of the following pieces of information contained in a test progress report is the LEAST useful for business representatives?

Select ONE option.

31 / 40

31. Consider the following part of a test plan.

Testing will be performed using component testing and component integration testing. The regulations require to demonstrate that 100% branch coverage is achieved for each component classified as critical.

Which part of the test plan does this part belong to?

Select ONE option.

32 / 40

32. Which test activity does a data preparation tool support?

Select ONE option.

33 / 40

33. Which of the following statements about formal reviews is TRUE?

Select ONE option.

34 / 40

34. Which TWO of the following tasks belong MAINLY to a testing role?

Select TWO options.

35 / 40

35. You need to update one of the automated test scripts to be in line with a new requirement. Which process indicates that you create a new version of the test script in the test repository?

Select ONE option.

36 / 40

36. Which of the following is NOT true for white-box testing?

Select ONE option.

37 / 40

37. Consider the following user story:

As an Editor
I want to review content before it is published
so that I can assure the grammar is correct

and its acceptance criteria:

• The user can log in to the content management system with "Editor" role
• The editor can view existing content pages
• The editor can edit the page content
• The editor can add markup comments
• The editor can save changes
• The editor can reassign to the "content owner" role to make updates

Which of the following is the BEST example of an ATDD test for this user story?

Select ONE option.

38 / 40

38. You are working as a tester in the team that follows the V-model. The choice of software development lifecycle (SDLC) model impacts the timing of testing, which of the following statement is NOT true?

Select ONE option.

39 / 40

39. Your favorite bicycle daily rental store has just introduced a new Customer Relationship Management system and asked you, one of their most loyal members, to test it.
The implemented features are as follows:

• Anyone can rent a bicycle, but members receive a 20% discount
• However, if the return deadline is missed, the discount is no longer available
• After 15 rentals, members get a gift: a T-Shirt

Decision table describing the implemented features looks as follows:

Based ONLY on the feature description of the Customer Relationship Management system, which of the above rules describes an impossible situation?

 

Select ONE option.

40 / 40

40. Which of the following factors (i-v) have SIGNIFICANT influence on the test process?

i. The SDLC
ii. The number of defects detected in previous projects
iii. The identified product risks
iv. New regulatory requirements forcing formal white-box testing
v. The test environment setup

Select ONE option.

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