0% 3 12345678910111213141516171819202122232425262728293031323334353637383940 Created on June 25, 2024 By Admin 2018v3.1 - Exam 4 - 75 minutes Name 1 / 40 1. Given the following statements about the relationships between software development activities and test activities in the software development lifecycle: 1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity 2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available 3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding development activity 4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development lifecycle Which of the following CORRECTLY shows which are true and false? a) True – 1, 2; False – 3, 4 b) True – 2, 3; False – 1, 4 c) True – 1, 2, 4; False – 3 d) True – 1, 4; False – 2, 3 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering each statement: 1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity. TRUE 2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available. FALSE – it should start as soon as drafts are available 3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding development activity. FALSE – the analysis and design of tests should start during the corresponding development activity, not the implementation 4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development lifecycle. TRUE Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 2 / 40 2. You are testing a mobile app that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. You are running a test suite that involves evaluating each screen and each field on each screen against a general list of user interface best practices, derived from a popular book on the topic, that maximize attractiveness, ease-of-use, and accessibility for such apps. Which of the following options BEST categorizes the test technique you are using? a) Specification-based b) Exploratory c) Checklist-based d) Error guessing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The book provides general guidance, and is not a formal requirements document, a specification, or a set of use cases, user stories, or business processes b) Is not correct. While you could consider the list as a set of test charters, it more closely resembles the list of test conditions c) Is correct. The list of user interface best practices is the list of test conditions d) Is not correct. The tests are not focused on failures that could occur, but rather on knowledge about what is important for the user, in terms of usability 3 / 40 3. Given the following state model of a battery charger software: Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level of transition coverage for the model? a) OFF → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → LOW b) WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE c) HIGH → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE d) WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Given the annotated state model below: The options achieve the following transition coverage: a) Is not correct: OFF (2) WAIT (1) OFF (2) WAIT (3) TRICKLE (5) CHARGE (9) HIGH (10) CHARGE (7) LOW = 7 transitions (out of 10) b) Is not correct: WAIT (3) TRICKLE (4) WAIT (1) OFF (2) WAIT (3) TRICKLE (5) CHARGE (7) LOW (8) CHARGE = 7 transitions (out of 10) c) Is not correct: HIGH (10) CHARGE (7) LOW (8) CHARGE (6) TRICKLE (4) WAIT (3) TRICKLE (4) WAIT (3) TRICKLE = 6 transitions (out of 10) d) Is correct: WAIT (3) TRICKLE (5) CHARGE (9) HIGH (10) CHARGE (6) TRICKLE (4) WAIT (1) OFF (2) WAIT = 8 transitions (out of 10) 4 / 40 4. You are working on a video game development project, using Agile methods. It is based on Greek mythology and history, and players can play key roles in scenarios such as the battles between the Greeks and Trojans. Consider the following user story and its associated acceptance criteria: As a player, I want to be able to acquire the Rod of Midas (a new magic object), so that I can turn objects and other players into gold AC1: The Rod must work on any object or player, no matter what size, which can be touched anywhere by the player holding the Rod AC2: Holding the Rod does not change the player holding it into gold AC3: Any object or player touched by the Rod transforms completely into gold within one millisecond AC4: The Rod appears as shown in Prototype O.W.RoM AC5: The transformation starts at the point of contact with the Rod and moves at a rate of one meter per millisecond You are participating in a checklist-based review session of this user story. This user story and its associated acceptance criteria contain which of the following typical defects identified by static testing in this type of work product? a) Deviation from standards b) Contradiction c) Security vulnerability d) Coverage gaps Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While deviation from standards is a typical, we are not given any standard with which the user stories should comply b) Is correct. Contradiction is a typical requirements defect. AC3 and AC5 conflict if the Rod is touched to an object that extends more than 1 meter in any direction from the point at which touched, since AC1 does not limit the size of the objects to be touched c) Is not correct. While security vulnerabilities are typical defects, there is nothing here related to security d) Is not correct. While test coverage gaps are typical defects, including missing tests for acceptance criteria, we are not provided with any information about which tests do and do not exist 5 / 40 5. Which of the following activities is part of the main activity "test analysis" in the test process? a) Identifying any required infrastructure and tools b) Creating test suites from test scripts c) Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement d) Evaluating the test basis for testability Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This activity is performed during the test design activity (test design) b) Is not correct. This activity is performed during the test implementation activity (test implementation) c) Is not correct. This activity is performed during the test completion activity (test completion) d) Is correct. This activity is performed during the test analysis activity (test analysis) 6 / 40 6. Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case? a) Test cases are created to exercise defined basic, exceptional and error behaviors performed by the system under test in collaboration with actors b) Test cases are derived by identifying the components included in the use case and creating integration tests that exercise the interactions of these components c) Test cases are generated by analyzing the interactions of the actors with the system to ensure the user interfaces are easy to use d) Test cases are derived to exercise each of the decision points in the business process flows of the use case, to achieve 100% decision coverage of these flows Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. This explains that each use case specifies some behavior that a subject can perform in collaboration with one or more actors. It also (later) explains that tests are designed to exercise the defined behaviors (basic, exceptional and errors) b) Is not correct. Use cases normally specify requirements, and so do not ‘include’ the components that will implement them c) Is not correct. Tests based on use cases do exercise interactions between the actor and the system, but they are focused on the functionality and do not consider the ease of use of user interfaces d) Is not correct. Tests do cover the use case paths through the use case, but there is no concept of decision coverage of these paths, and certainly not of business process flows 7 / 40 7. You are testing a mobile app that allows users to find a nearby restaurant, based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (smaller number is high priority), and dependencies, in the following format: Which of the following is a possible test execution schedule that considers both priorities and dependencies? a) 01.001, 01.002, 01.003, 01.005, 01.004 b) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.003, 01.005 c) 01.003, 01.004, 01.002, 01.001, 01.002 d) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.005, 01.003 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Test 01.001 must come first, followed by 01.002, to satisfy dependencies. Afterwards, 01.004 and 01.003 should be run in either order, followed by 01.005, to satisfy priority. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 8 / 40 8. Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques? 1. Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test object 2. The processing within the test object is checked 3. Tests are based on defects’ likelihood and their distribution 4. Deviations from the requirements are checked 5. User stories are used as the test basis Using notation for the following 4 options: Black - Black-box test techniques White - White-box test techniques Experience - Experience-based test techniques a) Black – 4, 5 White – 1, 2; Experience – 3 b) Black – 3 White – 1, 2; Experience – 4, 5 c) Black – 4 White – 1, 2; Experience – 3, 5 d) Black – 1, 3, 5 White – 2; Experience – 4 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The correct pairing of descriptions with the different categories of test techniques is: • Black-box test techniques Deviations from the requirements are checked (4) User stories are used as the test basis (5) • White-box test techniques Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test object (1) The processing within the test object is checked (2) • Experience-based test techniques Tests are based on defects’ likelihood and their distribution (3) Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 9 / 40 9. Consider the following types of defects that a test level might focus on: a) Defects in separately testable modules or objects b) Not focused on identifying defects c) Defects in interfaces and interactions d) Defects in the whole test object Which of the following list correctly matches test levels from the Foundation syllabus with the defect focus options given above? a) 1 = performance test; 2 = component test; 3 = system test; 4 = acceptance test b) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = system test; 4 = integration test c) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = integration test; 4 = system test d) 1 = integration test; 2 = system test; 3 = component test; 4 = acceptance test Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Performance testing is a test type, not a test level. Component testing focuses on defects in separately testable modules or objects, integration testing on defects in interfaces and interactions, system testing on defects in the whole test object, and acceptance testing is not typically focused on identifying defects. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is correct d) Is not correct 10 / 40 10. Which of the following is a typical test objective? a) Preventing defects b) Repairing defects c) Comparing actual results to expected results d) Analyzing the cause of failure Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. This is an objective listed b) Is not correct. This is debugging c) Is not correct. This is an activity within the test execution group of activities within the test process d) Is not correct. This is part of debugging 11 / 40 11. Which of the following are two factors that can be used to determine the level of risk? a) Testing and development b) Dynamic and reactive c) Statement and decision d) Likelihood and impact Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The level of risk will be determined by the likelihood of an adverse event happening and the impact (the harm) from that event. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 12 / 40 12. As a test manager you are responsible for testing the following parts of requirements: • R1 - Process anomalies • R2 - Synchronization • R3 - Approval • R4 - Problem solving • R5 - Financial data • R6 - Diagram data • R7 - Changes to the user profile Notation: Logical requirement dependencies (A -> B means, that B depends on A): Which one of the following options structures the test execution schedule according to the requirement dependencies? a) R1 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 b) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R4 ; R7 ; R5 ; R6 c) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R4 ; R7 d) R1 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. R4 is dependent on R2, so R2 should be tested before R4 b) Is not correct. R4 is dependent on R2, R5 and R6, so R5 and R6 should be tested before R4 c) Is correct. The tests are specified in a sequence that takes the dependencies into account d) Is not correct. R2 is dependent on R3, so R3 should be tested before R2 13 / 40 13. Programmers often write and execute unit tests against code which they have written. During this self-testing activity, which of the following is a tester mindset that programmers should adopt to perform this unit testing effectively? a) Good communication skills b) Code coverage c) Evaluating code defects d) Attention to detail Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The programmer appears to be performing unit testing on their own code b) Is not correct. Code coverage is useful for unit testing, but it is not a tester mindset c) Is not correct. The programmer’s mindset included contemplating what might be wrong with the code, but that is not a tester’s mindset d) Is correct. This tester mindset, attention to detail, will help programmers find defects during unit testing 14 / 40 14. The following statement refers to decision coverage: “When the code contains only a single ‘if’ statement and no loops or CASE statements, and its execution is not nested within the test, any single test case we run will result in 50% decision coverage.” Which of the following statement is correct? a) The statement is true. Any single test case provides 100% statement coverage and therefore 50% decision coverage b) The statement is true. Any single test case would cause the outcome of the “if” statement to be either true or false c) The statement is false. A single test case can only guarantee 25% decision coverage in this case d) The statement is false. The statement is too broad. It may be correct or not, depending on the tested software Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While the given statement is true, the explanation is not. The relationship between statement and decision coverage is misrepresented b) Is correct. Since any test case will cause the outcome of the “if” statement to be either TRUE or FALSE, by definition we achieved 50% decision coverage c) Is not correct. A single test case can give more than 25% decision coverage, this means according to the statement above always 50 % decision coverage d) Is not correct. The statement is specific and always true, because each test case achieves 50 % decision coverage 15 / 40 15. Which of the following options are roles in a formal review? a) Developer, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Tester b) Author, Moderator, Manager, Reviewer, Developer c) Author, Manager, Review leader, Reviewer, Designer d) Author, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Scribe Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Tester and developer are NOT roles in a formal review b) Is not correct. Developer is NOT a role in a formal review c) Is not correct. Designer is NOT a role in a formal review d) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers 16 / 40 16. Which of the following statements is true? a) Impact analysis is useful for confirmation testing during maintenance testing b) Confirmation testing is useful for regression testing during system design c) Impact analysis is useful for regression testing during maintenance testing d) Confirmation testing is useful for impact analysis during maintenance testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While impact analysis is useful during maintenance testing it is not necessary for confirmation testing since confirmation testing is on the intended effects of a bug fix or other change b) Is not correct. Confirmation and regression testing are two separate activities, and confirmation testing is not part of system design c) Is correct. Impact analysis can be used to select regression tests for maintenance testing d) Is not correct. Confirmation testing is not part of impact analysis, though confirmation testing will typically happen during maintenance testing 17 / 40 17. Which of the following statements comparing component testing and system testing is TRUE? a) Component testing verifies the functionality of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system b) Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications or use cases c) Component testing only focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics d) Component testing is the responsibility of the testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. System testing does not test interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system; this is a target of integration tests b) Is correct. Examples of work products that can be used as a test basis for component testing include detailed design, code, data model, component specifications. Examples of work products for system testing include system and software requirement specifications (functional and non-functional) use cases c) Is not correct. Component testing does not ONLY focus on functional characteristics d) Is not correct. Component tests are also executed by developers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of (independent) testers 18 / 40 18. Which of the following BEST describes how value is added by maintaining traceability between the test basis and test artifacts? a) Maintenance testing can be fully automated based on changes to the initial requirements b) It is possible to determine if a new test case has increased coverage of the requirements c) Test managers can identify which testers found the highest severity defects d) Areas that may be impacted by side-effects of a change can be targeted by confirmation testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Traceability will allow existing test cases to be linked with updated and deleted requirements (although there is no support for new requirements), but it will not help with the automation of maintenance testing b) Is correct. If all test cases are linked with requirements, then whenever a new test case (with traceability) is added, it is possible to see if any previously uncovered requirements are covered by the new test case c) Is not correct. Traceability between the test basis and test artifacts will not provide information on which testers found high-severity defects, and, even if this information could be determined, it would be of limited value d) Is not correct. Traceability can help with identifying test cases affected by changes, however areas impacted by side-effects would be the focus of regression testing 19 / 40 19. Match the following test work products (1-4) with the right description (A-D). 1. Test suite 2. Test case 3. Test script 4. Test charter A. A set of test scripts to be executed in a specific test run B. A set of instructions for the execution of a test C. Contains expected results D. Documentation of test activities in session-based exploratory testing a) 1A, 2C, 3B, 4D b) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C c) 1A, 2C, 3D, 4B d) 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Glossary defines the following tests as: • Test suite: “A set of test scripts or test procedures to be executed in a specific test run.” (1A) • Test case: “A set of preconditions, inputs, actions (where applicable), expected results and post conditions, developed based on test conditions” (2C) • Test script: “A sequence of instructions for the execution of a test” (3B) • Test charter: “Documentation of test activities in session-based exploratory testing” (4D) Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 20 / 40 20. You are working as a project manager on an in-house banking software project. To prevent rework and excessive find/fix/retest cycles, the following process has been put in place for resolving a defect once it is found in the test lab: 1. The assigned developer finds and fixes the defect, then creates an experimental build 2. A peer developer reviews, unit tests, and confirmation tests the defect fix on his/her desktop 3. A tester – usually the one who found the defect – confirmation tests the defect fix in the development environment 4. Once a day, a new release with all confirmed defect fixes included, is installed in the test environment 5. The same tester from step 3 confirmation tests the defect fix in the test environment Nevertheless, a large number of defects which the testers confirmed as fixed in the development environment (in step 3) are somehow failing confirmation testing in the test environment, with the resulting rework and cycle time outcomes. You have the highest confidence in your testers and have ruled out mistakes or omissions in step 3. Which of the following is the MOST likely part of the process to check next? a) The activity of developers, who may not be adequately testing in step 2 b) The activity of testers, who may be confused about what to test in step 5 c) Configuration management, which may not be maintaining the integrity of the product in step 4 d) The activity of developers, who may not be fixing defects properly in step 1 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. If inadequate developer testing were the problem, the confirmation test would not pass in step 3 b) Is not correct. The same tester who successfully performed the confirmation test in step 3 is repeating it in step 5 c) Is correct. Configuration management maintains the integrity of the software. If a test that passes in step 3 fails in step 5, then something is different between those two steps. One possible difference is the test object, the option listed here. Another possible difference is the between the development environment and the test environment, but that is not an option listed here d) Is not correct. If the developers were not fixing the defect, the confirmation test would not pass in step 3 21 / 40 21. An employee’s bonus is to be calculated. It cannot be negative, but it can be calculated down to zero. The bonus is based on the length of employment: • Less than or equal to 2 years • More than 2 years but less than 5 years • 5 to 10 years inclusively • Longer than 10 years What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for calculating the bonus? a) 3 b) 5 c) 2 d) 4 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. One too few (see the four correct partitions in the correct answer) b) Is not correct. One too much (see the four correct partitions in the correct answer) c) Is not correct. Two too few (see the four correct partitions in the correct answer) d) Is correct. The 4 equivalence partitions correspond to the description in the question, i.e., at least one test case must be created for each equivalence partition: 1. Equivalence partition: 0 ≤ employment time ≤ 2 2. Equivalence partition: 2 < employment time < 5 3. Equivalence partition: 5 ≤ employment time ≤ 10 4. Equivalence partition: 10 < employment time 22 / 40 22. Given that the testing being performed has the following attributes: • Based on interface specifications • Focused on finding failures in communication • The test approach uses both functional and structural test types Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed? a) Integration testing b) Acceptance testing c) System testing d) Component testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering the scenario: 1. ‘testing is based on interface specifications’ – the test basis for integration testing includes interface specifications (along with communication protocol specification), while these are not included for any of the other test levels 2. ‘testing is focused on finding failures in communication’ - failures in the communication between tested components is included as a typical failure for integration testing, but failures in communication is not included for any of the other test levels 3. ‘the test approach uses both functional and structural test types’ - functional and structural test types are both included as possible approaches for integration testing, and would also be appropriate for any of the other test levels, although they are only otherwise explicitly mentioned in the syllabus for system testing Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 23 / 40 23. Which of the following is an example of a failure in a car cruise control system? a) The developer of the system forgot to rename variables after a cut-and-paste operation b) Unnecessary code that sounds an alarm when reversing was included in the system c) The system stops maintaining a set speed when the radio volume is increased or decreased d) The design specification for the system wrongly states speeds Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This is an example of a mistake made by the developer b) Is not correct. This is an example of a defect (something wrong in the code that may cause a failure) c) Is correct. This is a deviation from the expected functionality - a cruise control system should not be affected by the radio d) Is not correct. This is an example of a defect (something wrong in a specification that may cause a failure if subsequently implemented) 24 / 40 24. Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the test manager? a) Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing b) Review tests developed by others c) Prepare and acquire test data d) Analyze, review, and assess requirements, specifications, and models for testability Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. One of the typical tasks of a test manager b) Is not correct. One of the typical tasks of a tester c) Is not correct. One of the typical tasks of a tester d) Is not correct. One of the typical tasks of a tester 25 / 40 25. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and debugging? a) Testing identifies the source of defects; debugging analyzes the defects and proposes prevention activities b) Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects; debugging eliminates the defects, which are the source of failures c) Testing removes faults; but debugging removes defects that cause the faults d) Dynamic testing prevents the causes of failures; debugging removes the failures Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Testing does not identify the source of defects, debugging identifies the source of defects b) Is correct. Dynamic testing can show failures that are caused by defects in the software. Debugging eliminates the defects, which are the source of failures c) Is not correct. Testing does not remove faults, but debugging removes faults, which is synonyms for defects, that may cause the failures d) Is not correct. Dynamic testing does not directly prevent the causes of failures (defects) but detects the presence of defects 26 / 40 26. Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester? a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and set the tools usage guidelines b) The test manager plans, coordinates, and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides on the release of the test object d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester executes the tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Selection of tools is a test manager task b) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers c) Is not correct. The tester does not decide on the release of the test object d) Is not correct. The tester specifies the test cases, the test manager does the prioritization 27 / 40 27. Which statement about the relationship between statement coverage and decision coverage is true? a) 100% decision coverage also guarantees 100% statement coverage b) 100% statement coverage also guarantees 100% decision coverage c) 50% decision coverage also guarantees 50% statement coverage d) Decision coverage can never reach 100% Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. The statement is true. Achieving 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage b) Is not correct. The statement is false because achieving 100 % statement coverage does not in any case mean that the decision coverage is 100% c) Is not correct. The statement is false because we can only do statements about 100% values d) Is not correct. The statement is false 28 / 40 28. What is checklist-based testing? a) A test technique in which tests are derived based on the tester's knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures b) A test technique based on an analysis of the specification of a component or system c) An experience-based test technique whereby the experienced tester uses a list of items to be noted, checked, or remembered, or a set of rules or criteria against which a product must be verified d) An approach to testing where the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This is error guessing b) Is not correct. This is black-box test technique c) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers d) Is not correct. This is exploratory testing 29 / 40 29. Which of the following can affect and be part of the (initial) test planning? a) Budget limitations b) Test log c) Failure rate d) Use cases Select ONE options. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Making decisions about what to test are documented in the test plan. This means when you are planning the test and there are budget limitations, prioritizing is needed; what should be tested and what should be omitted b) Is not correct. Test monitoring and control c) Is not correct. Common test metrics d) Is not correct. It is a part of test analysis 30 / 40 30. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units. Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field? a) 10.0, 28.0 b) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1 c) 0.2, 0.9, 29.5 d) 12.3 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There are three equivalence partitions, with the boundaries as shown: • Invalid too low (0.4 and below) • Valid (0.5 to 25.0) • Invalid too high (25.1 and above) Thus: a) Is not correct. Only two of the equivalence partitions are covered in this set of tests b) Is not correct. Each of those four boundary values are included in this set of tests, but the question asked for equivalence partition coverage with minimal tests, so either 0.5 or 25.0 should be dropped c) Is correct. Each of these three equivalence partitions are covered in this set of tests d) Is not correct. Only one of those equivalence partitions is covered by this test 31 / 40 31. You are performing system testing of a train reservation system. Based on the test cases performed, you have noticed that the system occasionally reports that no trains are available, although this should be the case. You have provided the developers with a summary of the defect and the version of the tested system. They recognize the urgency of the defect and are now waiting for you to provide further details. In addition to the information already provided, the following additional information is given: 1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect 2. Identification of the test object 3. Details of the test environment 4. Urgency/priority to fix 5. Actual results 6. Reference to test case specification Which of this additional information is most useful to include in the defect report? a) 1, 2, 6 b) 1, 4, 5, 6 c) 2, 3, 4, 5 d) 3, 5, 6 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering each of the pieces of information: 1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect – the developers are already aware of the problem and are waiting to fix it, so this is a less important piece of information. 2. Identification of the test object – as the developers are already aware of the problem and you are performing system testing, and you have already provided the version of the system you are testing you can assume they know the object that was being tested, so this is a less important piece of information. 3. Details of the test environment – the set-up of the test environment may have a noticeable effect on the test results, and detailed information should be provided, so this is an important piece of information. 4. Urgency/priority to fix – the developers are already aware of the problem and are waiting to fix it, so this is a less important piece of information. 5. Actual results – the actual results may well help the developers to determine what is going wrong with the system, so this is an important piece of information. 6. Reference to test case specification – this will show the developers the tests you ran, including the test inputs that caused the system to fail (and expected results), so this is an important piece of information. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 32 / 40 32. What is quality? a) Activities focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled b) The degree to which a component or system satisfies the stated and implied needs of its various stakeholders c) The degree to which a component or system protects information and data so that persons or other components or systems have the degree of access appropriate to their types and levels of authorization d) The total costs incurred on quality activities and issues and often split into prevention costs, appraisal costs, internal failure costs and external failure costs Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This is the Glossary definition of quality assurance b) Is correct. This is the Glossary definition of quality c) Is not correct. This is the Glossary definition of security d) Is not correct. This is the Glossary definition of cost of quality 33 / 40 33. Which of the following statements about static testing are MOST true? a) Static testing is a cheap way to detect and remove defects b) Static testing makes dynamic testing less challenging c) Static testing makes it possible to find run-time problems early in the lifecycle d) When testing safety-critical system, static testing has less value because dynamic testing finds the defects better Select ONE options. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Defects found early are often much cheaper to remove than defects detected later in the lifecycle b) Is not correct. Dynamic testing still has its challenging because they find other types of defects c) Is not correct. This is dynamic testing d) Is not correct. Static testing is important for safety-critical computer systems 34 / 40 34. Consider the following testing activities: 1. Selecting regression tests 2. Evaluating completeness of test execution 3. Identifying which user stories have open defect reports 4. Evaluating whether the number of tests for each requirement is consistent with the level of product risk Consider the following ways traceability can help testing: A. Improve understandability of test status reports to include status of test basis items B. Make testing auditable C. Provide information to assess process quality D. Analyze the impact of changes Which of the following best matches the testing activity with how traceability can assist that activity? a) 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A b) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C c) 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B d) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Traceability assists with: • Selecting regression tests in terms of analyzing the impact of changes (1D) • Evaluating completeness of test execution which makes testing auditable (2B) • Identifying which user stories have open defect reports which improves understandability of test status reports to include status of test basis items (3A) • Evaluating whether the number of tests for each requirement is consistent with the level of product risk which provides information to assess test process quality (i.e., alignment of test effort with risk) (4C) Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 35 / 40 35. Prior to an iteration planning session, you are studying a user story and its acceptance criteria, deriving test conditions and associated test cases from the user story as a way of applying the principle of early QA and test. What test technique are you applying? a) White-box b) Black-box c) Experience-based d) Error guessing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Structure-based, or white-box techniques are based on an analysis of the architecture, detailed design, internal structure, or the code of the test object b) Is correct. Behavior-based, or black-box techniques are based on an analysis of the appropriate test basis (e.g., formal requirements documents, specifications, use cases, user stories, or business processes), which describe functional and non-functional behavior c) Is not correct. Experience-based techniques leverage the experience of developers, testers, and users to determine what should be tested d) Is not correct. Error guessing is a type of experience-based testing, which is not black-box 36 / 40 36. Which of the following statements on the use of checklists in a formal review is CORRECT? a) As part of the review planning, the reviewers create the checklists needed for the review b) As part of the issue communication, the reviewers fill in the checklists provided for the review c) As part of the review meeting, the reviewers create defect reports based on the checklists provided for the review d) As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists needed for the review Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. During planning it is decided whether checklists are used. The preparation of the checklists is not part of the planning. In addition, the reviewers are neither involved in the planning, nor responsible for the creation of the checklists b) Is not correct. During issue communication, any potential defects that have been identified in the individual review are communicated. The completion of checklists by the reviewers already takes place, if at all, during individual review c) Is not correct. During review session, the reviewers communicate any potential defects of the work product that they did identify during the individual review. Defect reports are only created during the fixing and reporting activity d) Is correct. Initiating the review (“Kick-off”) involves distributing the work product and other materials, like checklists 37 / 40 37. A company's employees are paid bonuses if they work more than a year in the company and achieve a target which is individually agreed before. These facts can be shown in a decision table: Which of the following test cases represents a situation that can happen in real life, and is missing in the above decision table? a) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO b) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= YES c) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO d) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= NO Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. If there was no agreement on targets, it is impossible to reach the targets. Since this situation can´t occur, this is not a scenario happening in reality b) Is not correct. The test case is objectively wrong, since under these conditions no bonus is paid because the agreed target was not reached c) Is not correct. There was no agreement on targets, it is impossible to reach the targets. Since this situation can´t occur, this is not a scenario happening in reality d) Is correct. The test case describes the situation that the too short period of employment and the non-fulfilment of the agreed target leads to non-payment of the bonus. This situation can occur in practice but is missing in the decision table 38 / 40 38. You are defining the process for carrying out product risk analysis as part of each iteration on an Agile project. Which of the following is the proper place to document this process in a test plan? a) Scope of testing b) Approach of testing c) Metrics of testing d) Configuration management of the test object Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While scope is a topic addressed in a test plan, the implementation of a risk-based testing strategy on this project is the approach, so this topic should be addressed in that section b) Is correct. Approach is a topic addressed in a test plan and the implementation of a risk-based testing strategy on this project is the approach c) Is not correct. While metrics for test monitoring and control is a topic addressed in a test plan, the implementation of a risk-based testing strategy on this project is the approach, so this topic should be addressed in that section d) Is not correct. Configuration management is not a topic addressed in a test plan 39 / 40 39. How can white-box testing be applied during user acceptance testing? a) To check if large volumes of data can be transferred between integrated systems b) To check if all code statements and code decision paths have been executed c) To check if all work process flows have been covered d) To cover all web page navigations Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Relevant for integration testing b) Is not correct. Relevant for component testing c) Is correct. For acceptance testing, tests are designed to cover all workflows defined in the functional requirements documents. d) Is not correct. Relevant for system testing 40 / 40 40. A product owner says that your role as a tester on an Agile team is to catch all the bugs before the end of each iteration. Which of the following is a testing principle that could be used to respond to this (false) statement? a) Defect clustering b) Testing shows the presence of defects c) Absence of error fallacy d) Root cause analysis Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Defect clustering has to do with where defects are most likely to be found, not whether all of them can be found b) Is correct. Testing can show the presence of defects but cannot prove their absence, which makes it impossible to know if you have caught all the bugs. Further, the impossibility of exhaustive testing makes it impossible for you to catch all the bugs c) Is not correct. This principle says that you can find and remove many bugs but still release an unsuccessful software product, which is not what the product owner is asking you to ensure d) Is not correct. Root cause analysis is not a testing principle 0% Restart quiz