Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The organization’s marketing team is unlikely to perform much testing (although in some organizations they may be involved with acceptance testing), so their average level of experience (most of which would be in marketing) is not likely to impact how testing is performed for a given test object
b) Is not correct. The level of knowledge of users that a new system is being built for them is unlikely to affect how testing is performed. Any user involvement that could affect how testing is performed is more likely to be as a result of decisions made by the testers, customer and project manager
c) Is correct. The number of years’ experience of the members of the performance testing team will help to determine the capabilities and knowledge (e.g., of different tools and defect types) that the team members will apply when they are testing
d) Is not correct. The organizational structure of the different end users (who may be varied) will change between users. So, it may not even be known when the application is being tested, and the end user’s organizational structure can thus have little effect on how the testing is performed

Explanation / Rationale

Given the following description of test analysis:
To identify the features that require testing, the test basis is analyzed and defined as test conditions, which are then prioritized along with related risks. The systematic identification of test conditions as coverage items often involves using test techniques both during test analysis and as part of the test design activity.
From the above description, it can be seen that test techniques are often used in the test analysis and test design activities. Boundary value analysis and equivalence partitioning are test techniques.
a) Is not correct. Test implementation is not likely to involve the use of test techniques as it is mostly concerned with assembling test cases into test procedures, while test techniques create test cases
b) Is correct. Test design is likely to involve the use of test techniques to create test cases from test conditions and coverage items
c) Is not correct. Test execution is not likely to involve the use of test techniques as it is mostly concerned with executing test procedures (and so test cases), while test techniques create test cases
d) Is not correct. Test monitoring is not likely to involve the use of test techniques. Test monitoring is mostly concerned with ongoing checks to ensure the plan is being followed, while test techniques create test cases
e) Is correct. Test analysis is likely to involve the use of test techniques to identify test conditions

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Performing the impact analysis will not give information about completeness of tests. Analyzing the impact analysis of changes will help to select the right test cases for execution
b) Is not correct. Traceability does not give information about the estimated level of residual risk if the test cases are not traced back to risks
c) Is correct. Performing the impact analysis of the changes helps in selecting the test cases for the regression test
d) Is not correct. Analyzing the traceability between the test basis, test objects and test cases does not help in selecting test data to achieve the assumed coverage of the test object. Selecting test data is more related to test analysis and test implementation, not traceability

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Scope creep is an example of a project risk related to technical issues
b) Is correct. Poor architecture is an example of a product risk since it refers to a product characteristic
c) Is not correct. Cost-cutting is an example of a project risk, related to organizational issues
d) Is not correct. Poor tool support is an example of a project risk related to technical issues
e) Is correct. Response time too long is an example of a product risk since it refers to a product characteristic

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Since 100% statement coverage is achieved, every statement, including the ones with defects, must have been executed and evaluated at least once
b) Is not correct. Coverage depends on what is tested, not on the number of test cases. For example, for code “if (x==0) y=1”, one test case (x=0) achieves 100% statement coverage, but two test cases (x=1) and (x=2) together achieve only 50% statement coverage
c) Is not correct. If there is a loop in the code there may be an infinite number of possible paths, so it is not possible to execute all the possible paths in the code
d) Is not correct. Exhaustive testing is not possible (see the seven testing principles section in the syllabus). For example, for code “input x; print x” any single test with arbitrary x achieves 100% statement coverage, but covers one input value

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Early review is an example of the shift left approach
b) Is not correct. TDD is an example of the shift left approach
c) Is not correct. Early non-functional testing is an example of the shift left approach
d) Is correct. Test scripts should be subject to configuration management, so it makes no sense to create the test scripts before this process is set up

Explanation / Rationale

Only third-party executable code cannot be reviewed.
Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) It is correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. A member without a missed deadline can get a discount and a gift T-Shirt after 15 bicycle rentals
b) Is not correct. A member without a missed deadline can get a discount but no gift T-Shirt until they rented a bicycle 15 times
c) Is not correct. Non-members cannot get a discount, even if they did not miss a deadline yet
d) Is correct. No discount as a non-member that has also missed a deadline, but only members can receive a gift T-Shirt. Hence, the action is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Test automation can provide measures that are too complicated for humans to derive, such as white-box test coverage measures for all but the most trivial code
b) Is not correct. By using test tools the responsibility for the testing is NOT shared with the tool vendor as the vendor is not involved in the testing, and it is the tester’s responsibility. The only possible responsibility that could be assigned to the tool vendor is if the tool fails to work as expected and provides incorrect test results
c) Is not correct. Testers still need to perform critical thinking when analyzing anomalies in the test results to determine their likely cause
d) Is not correct. Neither testers nor tools can generate test cases simply from an analysis of the program code as the code is the implementation and provides no information on the expected results, which will need to come from another part of the test basis, such as the design specification

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed test activities and their output testware:

A. Test analysis - prioritized test conditions (4) (e.g., acceptance criteria), and defect reports for defects identified in the test basis
B. Test design - prioritized test cases, test charters, coverage items (1), test data requirements, and test environment requirements
C. Test implementation - test procedures, automated test scripts, test suites, test data, test execution schedule (3), and test environment elements such as stubs, drivers, simulators, and service virtualizations
D. Test completion - test completion report, documented lessons learned, action items for improvement, and change requests (2) (as product backlog items)

Thus:
a) Is correct. The correct match is: 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Testing quadrants group test levels and test types separately according to several criteria. They do not represent any combinations of test levels and test types and they are not related to any location within a software development lifecycle. Both test levels and test types are treated separately in the testing quadrants model
b) Is not correct. Testing quadrants group test levels and test types according to several criteria. They do not describe the degree of granularity of individual test types performed at each test level. Such a model, regarding the test levels, is called the test pyramid
c) Is not correct. The statement is wrong, because in general any test type can be performed at any test level
d) Is correct. The testing quadrants group test levels, test types, activities, test techniques and work products in Agile software development. In this model, tests can be business facing or technology facing. Tests can support the team (i.e., guide the development) or critique the product (i.e., measure its behavior against expectations). The combination of these two viewpoints determines the four quadrants

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Quality should be the responsibility of everyone working on the project and not the sole responsibility of the test team
b) Is not correct. First, it is not a benefit if an external test team does not meet delivery deadlines, and second, there is no reason to believe that external test teams will feel they do not have to meet strict delivery deadlines
c) Is not correct. It is bad practice for the test team to work in complete isolation, and we would expect an external test team to be concerned with changing project requirements and communicating well with developers
d) Is correct. Specifications are never perfect, meaning that assumptions will have to be made by the developer. An independent tester is useful in that they can challenge and verify the assumptions and subsequent interpretation made by the developer

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. For a complex configuration item (e.g., a test environment), CM records the items it consists of, their relationships, and versions
b) Is not correct. CM tools do not execute test cases and do not calculate coverage
c) Is not correct. A CM tool is not a license management tool
d) Is not correct. CM tools do not generate test data

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. In all types of reviews there is more than one role, even in informal ones
b) Is correct. There are several activities during the formal review process
c) Is not correct. Documentation to be reviewed should be distributed as early as possible
d) Is not correct. Defects found during the review should be reported

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. It is impossible to prove that there are no defects anymore in the system under test. See testing principle 1
b) Is not correct. See testing principle 7
c) Is correct. Testing finds defects and failures which reduces the level of risk and at the same time gives more confidence in the quality level of the test object
d) Is not correct. It is impossible to test all combinations of inputs (see testing principle 2)

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Quality control applies to all development activities, meaning that every software development activity has a corresponding test activity. However, here we are attempting to equate test levels with development levels, and, although we know what is meant by ‘test levels’, there is no common understanding of the term ‘ development level’
b) Is not correct. Every software development activity has a corresponding test activity; however test objectives are quite different. For instance, there might be a test objective of ensuring that a test object adheres to a contractual requirement that a certain type of testing must be performed before delivery. In this case there is no reason for there to be a corresponding development objective
c) Is not correct. Quality control applies to all development activities, meaning that every software development activity has a corresponding test activity. However, the same symmetry does not apply to testing and user activities. For instance, for some systems it is difficult to even identify the end users. Also, some test activities are focused on developers (e.g., testing for ease of maintainability), which has no user aspect to it
d) Is correct. Quality control applies to all development activities, meaning that every software development activity has a corresponding test activity

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Obtaining feedback from stakeholders early and often in the software development process can be highly beneficial. It facilitates early communication of potential quality issues, can prevent misunderstandings about requirements, and ensures that any changes in stakeholder requirements are understood and implemented sooner
b) Is not correct. The feedback is from stakeholders, and them providing feedback is unlikely to improve their understanding of their own user requirements
c) Is not correct. Obtaining feedback from stakeholders early and often in the software development process can be highly beneficial. It facilitates early communication of potential quality issues, can prevent misunderstandings about requirements, and ensures that any changes in stakeholder requirements are understood and implemented sooner. However, because changes in requirements can be understood and implemented sooner, it does not mean that unlimited changes to requirements are encouraged
d) Is not correct. The feedback is from stakeholders and does not cover communication to them. Communications to end users could include them being told about which requirements will not be implemented prior to release, but ideally this should not happen at all

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed benefits and drawbacks of the independence of testing:

i. Ideally, we want close collaboration between testers and developers, which is not increased by isolation. Thus, this is a disadvantage
ii. Testers and developers have varied backgrounds, technical viewpoints, and potential biases, allowing testers to usefully challenge assumptions made by stakeholders during system specification and implementation. Thus, this is an advantage
iii. The main disadvantage of independence in testing is that testers may become isolated from the development team, leading to communication problems, a lack of collaboration, and potentially an adversarial relationship, with testers being blamed for delays and bottlenecks in the release process. Thus, this is a disadvantage
iv. One of the disadvantages of independence in testing is that testers may become isolated from the development team, leading to developers feeling less accountable for quality. Thus, this is a disadvantage
v. The primary benefit of independence in testing is that testers are more likely to identify different types of failures and defects compared to developers, due to their varied backgrounds, technical viewpoints, and potential biases, including cognitive bias

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct. The list entries showing benefits are ii and v
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. This is something that can (and should) be checked before the code is submitted to version control
b) Is not correct. This is something that can be checked after step (2) is performed, because merge conflict reporting can be done after the code is submitted and merged
c) Is not correct. This fits better as the entry criterion for step (3)
d) Is not correct. This fits better as the exit criterion for step (3)

Explanation / Rationale

The equivalence partitions are: {…, 99, 100}, {101, 102, …, 198, 199}, {200, 201, …}.
Thus, there are 4 boundary values, which are: 100, 101, 199 and 200.
In 2-value BVA, for each boundary value there are two coverage items (the boundary value and its closest neighbor belonging to the adjacent partition). As the closest neighbors are also boundary values in the adjacent partition, then there are just four coverage items.

Thus:
a) Is not correct. Only 100 and 200 are valid coverage items for 2-value BVA, so we achieve 50% coverage
b) Is not correct. Only 100 and 200 are valid coverage items for 2-value BVA, so we achieve 50% coverage
c) Is not correct. Only 100 and 101 are valid coverage items for 2-value BVA, so we achieve 50% coverage
d) Is correct. 101, 199 and 200 are valid coverage items for 2-value BVA, so we achieve 75% coverage

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. The number of defects found is related to the test object quality
b) Is not correct. This is the measure of the test efficiency not the test object quality
c) Is not correct. The number of test cases executed does not tell us anything about the quality; test results might do
d) Is correct. defect density is related to the test object quality
e) Is not correct. Time to repair is a process metric. It does not tell us anything about the product quality

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Traceability is the relationship between two or more work products, not between different versions of the same work product
b) Is not correct. Maintenance testing is about testing changes; it is not related closely to versioning
c) Is correct. To support testing, configuration management may involve the version control of all test items
d) Is not correct. Requirements engineering is the elicitation, documentation, and management of requirements; it is not closely related to test script versioning

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. DevOps generally increases the visibility of non-functional quality characteristics, such as performance and reliability
b) Is not correct. Automated processes like continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD) used in DevOps facilitate stable test environments
c) Is not correct. Automated processes like CI/CD used in DevOps generally reduce the need for manual testing
d) Is correct. DevOps implementation can pose several risks and challenges, including the need to define and set up the delivery pipeline, introduce and maintain CI/CD tools, and establish and maintain test automation

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Test execution and coverage tools facilitate the automated execution of test cases and the measurement of the coverage achieved by running those test cases. However, these tools do not help with the organization of defects and configuration management
b) Is not correct. Test design and implementation tools facilitate the generation of test cases, test data and test procedures, but they do not help with the organization of defects and configuration management
c) Is not correct. Defect management tools are used to manage defects but are not testing tools and are not used to organize test cases or configuration management
d) Is correct. Test management tools increase the test process efficiency by facilitating the management of the software development lifecycle (SDLC), requirements, tests, defects, and configuration management

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. A lack of usability provided through the user interface can be detected through a review using a suitable checklist, but the lack of usability can also be identified by getting several typical users to dynamically test the user interface and provide feedback on its usability
b) Is correct. A code review can detect code that cannot be reached by any path, however dynamic tests can only exercise reachable code and cannot determine that code cannot be reached without running every possible combination of inputs and input states, which is impractical for real code
c) Is not correct. Poor response times for most of the expected users are difficult to determine without executing the code (i.e., by static testing), so in this situation dynamic testing could find a defect, but static testing is unlikely to find it
d) Is not correct. A review of the code by someone who is aware of the required features could detect that the required features had not been implemented in the code, and dynamic testing could also be used to determine that these required features had not been implemented

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Adding this information allows the developer to use the same input data, so it is more likely they will be able to reproduce the failure quickly and so identify the defect faster
b) Is not correct. Adding the value of Priority will not help in reproducing the defect itself
c) Is not correct. Although some of this information may be of value, adding the memory dumps and database snapshots after each step will be too much, because most of these artefacts will contain useless information for the developer, and make the report less readable. It will also require the developer to spend a lot of time analyzing this information, which will lengthen the repair process
d) Is not correct. The question was about helping the developer to reproduce the defect observed for a specific environment configuration

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed task descriptions:

1. The quality characteristics to be evaluated and the exit criteria are selected - (Planning (C): Defining the review scope, purpose, work product to be reviewed, quality characteristics to be evaluated, areas of focus, exit criteria, supporting information such as standards, effort, and timeframes.)
2. Everyone has access to the work product - (Review initiation (B): Ensuring all participants have access to the work product and necessary resources, and clarifying their roles and responsibilities.)
3. Anomalies are identified in the work product - (Individual review (A): Evaluating the work product's quality, identifying and logging anomalies, recommendations, and questions using review techniques like checklist-based and scenario-based reviewing.)
4. Anomalies are analyzed and discussed - (Communication and analysis (D): Analyzing and discussing each anomaly, determining its status, ownership, and required actions, and making review decisions, normally in a meeting. This could include determining the need for a follow-up review.)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is correct. The correct match is: 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Test progress reports are mostly used during test monitoring and control, and test completion, not during test design
b) Is correct. A test completion report is prepared during test completion, when a project, test level, or test type is complete and when, ideally, its exit criteria have been met. This report uses information from test progress reports and other data
c) Is not correct. Test progress reports are mostly used during test monitoring and control, and test completion, not during test analysis
d) Is not correct. Test progress reports are most used during test monitoring and control, and test completion, not during test planning

Explanation / Rationale

Branch testing is a white-box test technique in which the coverage items are branches. A branch is a transfer of control between two nodes in the control flow graph, which shows the possible sequences in which source code statements are executed in the test object. Each transfer of control can be either unconditional (i.e., straight-line code) or conditional (i.e., a decision outcome). Coverage is measured as the number of branches exercised by the test cases divided by the total number of branches, and is expressed as a percentage.
Thus:
a) Is not correct. A decision outcome is a conditional branch. For branch testing, X counts not only conditional, but also unconditional branches
b) Is not correct. Branch coverage counts not only conditional, but also unconditional branches
c) Is correct. Branch coverage is measured as the number of branches exercised by the test cases divided by the total number of branches, and is expressed as a percentage
d) Is not correct. Both X and Y count only conditional branches and do not take into account the unconditional branches

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Defect management is no less expensive. Finding and fixing defects later in SDLC is more costly
b) Is not correct. This is a benefit of static testing
c) Is not correct. This is a benefit of static testing
d) Is not correct. This is a benefit of static testing

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. The ‘tests wear out’ principle is concerned with the idea that repeating identical tests on unaltered code is unlikely to uncover novel defects and therefore, modifying tests may be essential. By using high-level test conditions to generate new tests each time, the tests will not be identical and should not ‘wear out’
b) Is not correct. The ‘absence-of-defects fallacy’ principle is concerned with ensuring that users’ needs are fulfilled even if lots of testing is done and no defects are found (i.e., validation is also necessary). The use of high-level test conditions to generate test cases and execute tests does not directly address this concern
c) Is not correct. The ‘early testing saves time and money’ principle is concerned with fixing defects early on to prevent the occurrence of subsequent defects in derived work products, thereby reducing costs and the likelihood of failures. This is typically addressed by starting testing (both static and dynamic) as early as possible, but this is not addressed by using high-level test conditions to generate test cases and execute tests
d) Is not correct. The ‘Defects cluster together’ principle is concerned with the distribution of defects in a system, which typically follows a Pareto distribution. The use of high-level test conditions to generate test cases and execute tests does not address this concern, which is typically addressed by risk-based testing

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The test pyramid model does not provide information about test priorities
b) Is correct. The test pyramid model shows that different tests have different levels of granularity
c) Is not correct. The test pyramid model is independent of coverage criteria
d) Is not correct. Test pyramid model does not show any relations between different tests

Explanation / Rationale

The average development effort is $900,000 and the average test effort is $90,000 (calculated from the four projects).
The average test-to-development effort ratio is 1:10 ($90,000 : $900,000), which means that historically, on average, the test effort is 10% of the development effort.
So if the development effort is estimated to be $800,000, the estimated test effort is estimated as:

10% * $800,000 = 0.1 * $800,000 = $80,000.

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Collaborative user story writing means that all stakeholders create the user stories collaboratively, to obtain the shared vision
b) Is correct. Collaborative user story writing means that all stakeholders create the user stories collaboratively, to obtain the shared vision
c) Is not correct. Collaborative user story writing means that all stakeholders create the user stories collaboratively, to obtain the shared vision
d) Is not correct. This is the list of properties that each user story should have, not the description of the collaboration-based approach

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. This test covers two acceptance criteria: one about editing the document and one about saving changes
b) Is not correct. Acceptance criteria cover the editor activities, not the content owner activities
c) Is not correct. Scheduling the edited content for publication may be a nice feature, but it is not covered by the acceptance criteria
d) Is not correct. Acceptance criteria state about reassigning from an editor to the content owner, not to another editor

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. ‘The capability of generating test cases without access to the test basis’ is not possible. The generation of test cases by either testers or tools requires access to the test basis
b) Is not correct. ‘The achievement of increased coverage through more objective assessment’ is not a direct benefit of test automation. Test automation will provide more objective assessment of coverage, however that objective assessment will not increase the coverage. Only by using the results of the coverage to write further test cases can the coverage possibly be increased
c) Is not correct. ‘The increase in test execution times available with higher processing power’ is a contradictory statement as higher processing power would normally reduce execution times, and increased execution times are not a benefit as the testing would take longer
d) Is correct. The prevention of human errors through greater consistency and repeatability is a benefit of test automation as test automation cannot suffer from human errors. For instance, it means that tests are consistently derived from requirements, test data is created in a systematic manner, and tests are executed by a tool in the same order with the same frequency

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The approval of the budget is an example of an entry criterion. It would make no sense to approve the budget for some activity that has already been done
b) Is correct. Running out of budget can be viewed as a valid exit criterion
c) Is not correct. Availability of resources is an example of an entry criterion for testing
d) Correct. Coverage is a measure of thoroughness, so it is a typical exit criterion
e) Is not correct. This is an example of an entry criterion, checked before the project starts

Explanation / Rationale

The ‘exhaustive testing is impossible’ principle is concerned with the fact that it is not feasible to test every possible variation of test inputs in all different circumstances, except in trivial cases. Instead, testing utilizes test techniques, test case prioritization, and risk-based testing to sample from the set of possibilities and focus testing efforts.
a) Is not correct. The principle states that it is not feasible to test everything except in trivial cases. Testing everything would require testing every possible variation of test inputs in all different circumstances, which is generally infeasible as there will be a practically infinite number. Testing every possible specified output will not address this problem as the relationship between inputs and specified outputs can be different for each test object. Sometimes there may be a practically infinite number of possible specified outputs (e.g., when there are several variables representing real numbers), whereas at other times there may be just two specified outputs, such as with a single variable that can be either true or false
b) Is not correct. The principle states that it is not feasible to test every possible variation of test inputs in all different circumstances. This is because for non-trivial systems there is a practically infinite number. Therefore, in practice, documenting all possible test input variations would be impractical as it would take an infinite length of time
c) Is not correct. Starting testing as early as possible with reviews and other static testing approaches will not address the problem of there being too many possible test cases. The ‘early testing saves time and money’ principle is concerned with fixing defects early on to prevent the occurrence of subsequent defects in derived work products, thereby reducing costs and the likelihood of failures
d) Is correct. The use of equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to generate test cases is one way to address the principle as these test techniques provide a systematic way to derive a finite subset of all possible test cases

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Estimating the test effort is part of test planning
b) Is correct. This is an example of defining test conditions which is a part of test analysis
c) Is not correct. Using test techniques to derive coverage items is a part of test design
d) Is not correct. Reporting defects found during dynamic testing is a part of test execution

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The fact that the requirement about the system’s performance comes directly from the client and that the performance is important from the business point of view (i.e., high priority) does not make these tests functional, because they do not check “what” the system does, but “how” (i.e., how fast the orders are processed)
b) Is correct. This is an example of performance testing, a type of non-functional testing
c) Is not correct. From the scenario we do not know if interacting with the user interface is a part of the test conditions. But even if we did, the main test objective of these tests is to check the performance, not the usability
d) Is not correct. We do not need to know the internal structure of the code to perform the performance testing. One can execute performance efficiency tests without structural knowledge