Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. The whole team approach promotes robust communication and collaboration between the team members
b) Is not correct. While the whole team approach prioritizes collective accountability for quality, each individual team member is still equally accountable for quality
c) Is not correct. The whole team approach is about how the team works together, with the aim of higher quality deliverables, but it does not necessarily result in faster deployment to end users
d) Is not correct. When using the whole team approach, testers work with business representatives to create acceptance tests. There is no suggestion that the approach will reduce collaboration with external business users

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. This is the task of the review leader
b) Is correct. This is the task of the management in a formal review
c) Is not correct. This is the task of the moderator
d) Is not correct. This is the task of the scribe

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed tool categories:

i. Collaboration tools – facilitate communication. Communication does not include the facilitation of test execution
ii. DevOps tools - support the DevOps delivery pipeline, workflow tracking, automated build process(es) and CI/CD. The delivery pipeline and CI/CD both include the facilitation of test execution, such as component testing for CI
iii. Management tools – increase the test process efficiency by facilitating management of the SDLC, requirements, tests, defects and configuration. The management of these items does not include the facilitation of test execution
iv. Non-functional testing tools – allow the tester to perform non-functional testing that is difficult or impossible to perform manually. Non-functional testing can include both static testing and dynamic testing, including test execution
v. Test design and implementation tools – facilitate generation of test cases, test data and test procedures. The generation of this testware does not include the facilitation of test execution

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct. Both DevOps tools (ii) and Non-functional testing tools (iv) facilitate test execution
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. While the sentence is true, it does not provide much value for the developer
b) Is correct. From the test results it seems that the system ignores duplicates and sorts the list disregarding the repetitions. This is probably the cause of failures in TC3, TC4, TC5. Such information may help the developer to find the defect and fix it more efficiently
c) Is not correct. The system does not fail in sorting negative numbers. The problem is rather in disregarding duplicates
d) Is not correct. The test cases TC3, TC4 and TC5 fail, but we aren’t aware that the test cases have any defects

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Risk management consists of risk analysis and risk control. Neither of these activities supports the reassembly of the files that made up the release, because these activities deal with risks, not with configuration items
b) Is not correct. Test monitoring is concerned with gathering information about testing. This information is used to assess test progress and to measure whether the test exit criteria or the test tasks associated with the exit criteria are satisfied, such as meeting the targets for coverage of product risks, requirements, or other acceptance criteria. Test control uses the information from test monitoring to provide, in the form of control directives, guidance and the necessary corrective actions to achieve the most effective and efficient testing. None of these activities deal with the management of configuration items
c) Is not correct. The whole-team approach builds on the tester’s skill to work effectively in a team context and to contribute positively to the team goals. So, it focuses on team-related issues, not on configuration items
d) Is correct. Configuration management provides a discipline for identifying, controlling, and tracking work products. Configuration management keeps a record of changed configuration items when a new baseline is created. Using configuration management, it is possible to revert to a previous baseline in order to reproduce previous test results

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed test activities and their output testware:

A. Test analysis - prioritized test conditions (4) (e.g., acceptance criteria), and defect reports for defects identified in the test basis
B. Test design - prioritized test cases, test charters, coverage items (1), test data requirements, and test environment requirements
C. Test implementation - test procedures, automated test scripts, test suites, test data, test execution schedule (3), and test environment elements such as stubs, drivers, simulators, and service virtualizations
D. Test completion - test completion report, documented lessons learned, action items for improvement, and change requests (2) (as product backlog items)

Thus:
a) Is correct. The correct match is: 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The document does not refer to the test object’s internal structure but specifies the desired behavior of the test object. Therefore, white-box test techniques will not be helpful in designing test cases
b) Is correct. The document is a requirement that specifies the desired behavior of the test object. Therefore, the most suitable test techniques in this case are the black-box test techniques (e.g., Boundary Value Analysis or Decision Table Testing)
c) Is not correct. Although experience-based test techniques can be used to design test cases based on this document, black-box test techniques will be more suitable. The document describes a precise business rule and, in addition, wording like "exceeds $100" suggests the existence of important equivalence partition boundaries that should be tested using black-box test techniques like boundary value analysis
d) Is not correct. Risk-based test techniques are not a recognized type of test technique

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The feedback is from stakeholders (e.g., business representative, end user), not from developers, so this feedback is not likely to inform managers which developers are more or less productive
b) Is not correct. Early and frequent feedback from stakeholders is not used by project managers to prioritize how they interact with the different stakeholders
c) Is correct. Obtaining feedback from stakeholders early and often in the software development process can be highly beneficial as it facilitates early communication of potential quality issues, can prevent misunderstandings about requirements, and ensures that any changes in stakeholder requirements are understood and implemented sooner
d) Is not correct. Early and frequent feedback can prevent the development of a product that does not meet stakeholder needs, and results in costly rework and missed deadlines, so, ideally there should be no delay. Also, the feedback is from stakeholders (not to them), which includes the end users, so the end users providing feedback will not aid the end users’ understanding

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The fact that the requirement about the system’s performance comes directly from the client and that the performance is important from the business point of view (i.e., high priority) does not make these tests functional, because they do not check “what” the system does, but “how” (i.e., how fast the orders are processed)
b) Is correct. This is an example of performance testing, a type of non-functional testing
c) Is not correct. From the scenario we do not know if interacting with the user interface is a part of the test conditions. But even if we did, the main test objective of these tests is to check the performance, not the usability
d) Is not correct. We do not need to know the internal structure of the code to perform the performance testing. One can execute performance efficiency tests without structural knowledge

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. In the whole-team approach, testers play a vital role by sharing their testing expertise with the team and guiding product development. They collaborate with other team members to achieve the desired quality levels and work with business representatives to create acceptance tests. Testers also partner with developers to determine the optimal test strategy and automation approaches
b) Is correct. By leveraging the diverse skill sets of each team member most effectively, the whole-team approach fosters superior team dynamics, promotes robust communication and collaboration, and generates a synergistic effect that benefits the entire project
c) Is not correct. The whole-team approach allows any team member with the requisite skills and knowledge to undertake any task, thus specialist team members are not an advantage of this approach
d) Is not correct. There is no specific guidance on the optimum size of teams using the whole-team approach, and there is no suggestion that larger teams are better

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Each test level has specific and distinct test objectives as a different form of test object (e.g., single component, complete system) is tested at each test level and overlapping test objectives would lead to unnecessary duplication
b) Is not correct. Test analysis and design for a given test level should start during the corresponding development phase to facilitate early testing (e.g., acceptance test analysis and design should begin during requirements analysis). Test implementation will generally start later, and test execution will start during the test level
c) Is not correct. Test design for a given test level should start during the corresponding development phase to facilitate early testing, however test design (e.g., test case generation) needs to be based on an agreed test basis, not an early draft, otherwise significant test effort may be wasted on creating test cases for a design that later changes
d) Is not correct. Quality control applies to all development activities, meaning that every software development activity has a corresponding test activity. However, the same symmetry does not apply to dynamic and static testing. There are some static testing activities (e.g., static analysis) for which there is no obvious corresponding dynamic testing activity

Explanation / Rationale

Consider:

i. These behaviors are easily detectable while the software is running. Hence, dynamic testing shall be used to identify them
ii. This is an example of deviations from standards, which is a typical defect that is easier found with static testing
iii. If the software is executed during the test, it is dynamic testing
iv. Identifying defects as early as possible is the test objective of both static testing and dynamic testing
v. This is an example of gaps in the test basis traceability or coverage, which is a typical defect that is easier found with static testing

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Early review is an example of the shift left approach
b) Is not correct. TDD is an example of the shift left approach
c) Is not correct. Early non-functional testing is an example of the shift left approach
d) Is correct. Test scripts should be subject to configuration management, so it makes no sense to create the test scripts before this process is set up

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Test environment readiness is a resource availability criterion; hence it belongs to the entry criteria
b) Is not correct. This is a resource availability criterion; hence it belongs to the entry criteria
c) Is correct. Estimated defect density is a measure of diligence; hence it belongs to the exit criteria.
d) Is not correct. Requirements translated into a given format result in testable requirements; hence it belongs to the entry criteria
e) Is correct. Automation of regression tests is a completion criterion; hence it belongs to the exit criteria

Explanation / Rationale

In the three-point estimation technique:

E = (optimistic + 4*most likely + pessimistic)/6

E = (2+(4*11)+14)/6 = 10

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. When a user reports a software failure, thanks to the unique identification of commits, it is possible to reassemble the files from the software version which was used by the user (as well as the corresponding versions of the test scripts) and thus reproduce the failure and locate the defect faster
b) Is not correct. If a change to the test environment causes unexpected issues during testing, configuration management allows testers to roll back to a previous version of the environment. This ensures that testing can continue without being affected by the change
c) Is not correct. Configuration management ensures that all identified documentation (e.g., requirement specifications) and software items are referenced unambiguously in test documentation (e.g., test plans)
d) Is correct. This is ensured by the defect management, not configuration management process

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. The ‘tests wear out’ principle is concerned with the idea that repeating identical tests on unaltered code is unlikely to uncover novel defects and therefore, modifying tests may be essential. By using high-level test conditions to generate new tests each time, the tests will not be identical and should not ‘wear out’
b) Is not correct. The ‘absence-of-defects fallacy’ principle is concerned with ensuring that users’ needs are fulfilled even if lots of testing is done and no defects are found (i.e., validation is also necessary). The use of high-level test conditions to generate test cases and execute tests does not directly address this concern
c) Is not correct. The ‘early testing saves time and money’ principle is concerned with fixing defects early on to prevent the occurrence of subsequent defects in derived work products, thereby reducing costs and the likelihood of failures. This is typically addressed by starting testing (both static and dynamic) as early as possible, but this is not addressed by using high-level test conditions to generate test cases and execute tests
d) Is not correct. The ‘Defects cluster together’ principle is concerned with the distribution of defects in a system, which typically follows a Pareto distribution. The use of high-level test conditions to generate test cases and execute tests does not address this concern, which is typically addressed by risk-based testing

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. In all types of reviews there is more than one role, even in informal ones
b) Is correct. There are several activities during the formal review process
c) Is not correct. Documentation to be reviewed should be distributed as early as possible
d) Is not correct. Defects found during the review should be reported

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. It is more often used in behavior-driven development (BDD)
b) Is not correct. It is the description of test-driven development (TDD)
c) Is correct. In acceptance test-driven development (ATDD) tests are written from acceptance criteria as part of the design process
d) Is not correct. It is used in BDD

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed risks and their mitigations:

1. Long system responses (1) can be tested in performance testing (B)
2. Changes of consumers’ preferences (2) are usually out of our control, so usually we accept this risk (A)
3. Flooding of the server room (3) can cause significant loss, so we should transfer the risk, e.g., by buying an insurance policy (D)
4. That patients above a certain age receive inaccurate reports (4) suggests a potential boundary problem, which can be effectively detected with techniques like BVA (C)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is correct. The correct combinations of risk and mitigation are: 1B, 2A, 3D and 4C
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

We want to run test cases according to their priorities, but we also need to consider the dependencies.
If we only consider priorities, we want to first run TC 5 and TC 7 (highest priority), then TC 1, TC 3, and TC 4, and finally TC 2 and TC 6 (lowest priority).
However, in order to run TC 7, we need to first run TC 4.
In order to run TC 5, we need to run TC 4 and TC 2, but TC 2 is blocked by TC 1, which should be run prior to TC 2.
So, in order to run priority 1 test cases as early as possible, the first five test cases should be: TC 4 - TC 7 - TC 1 - TC 2 - TC 5.
Next, we need to run TC 3, because it has higher priority than TC 6.
Thus the full schedule will be TC 4 – TC 7 – TC 1 – TC 2 – TC 5 – TC 3 – TC 6.
So, the sixth test case will be TC 3.

Thus:
a) Is correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

Some defect types that can only be detected by static testing, such as unreachable code, design patterns not implemented as desired and defects in non-executable work products. Some defect types that can be found by both static testing and dynamic testing, such as a programming defect that can be observed by a reviewer in a code review and which causes an observable failure during dynamic testing. And some defect types that can only be detected by dynamic testing, such as performance issues or memory issues that can only be observed when executing the code or system.

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Test-Driven Development (TDD) is a well-known example of a test-first approach to development
b) Is not correct. Coverage-Driven Development is not a correct example of a test-first approach to development
c) Is not correct. Quality-Driven Development is not a correct example of a test-first approach to development
d) Is not correct. Feature-Driven Development is not an example of a test-first approach to development, but is, instead, an agile software development methodology based around delivering features (as opposed to user stories in Scrum)

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed tool categories and their descriptions:

A. Static testing tools – support the tester in performing reviews and static analysis (4)
B. Tools supporting scalability and deployment standardization – For example, virtual machines, containerization tools (3)
C. DevOps tools – support the DevOps delivery pipeline, workflow tracking, automated build process(es), continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD) (1)
D. Collaboration tools – facilitate communication (2)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is correct. The correct match is: 1C, 2D, 3B, 4A
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

Considering:

Testing and quality assurance are not the same. Testing is the process consisting of all software development lifecycle (SDLC) activities, both static and dynamic, concerned with planning, preparation and evaluation of a component or system and related work products to determine that they satisfy specified requirements, to demonstrate that they are fit for purpose and to detect defects. Quality assurance is focused on establishing, introducing, monitoring, improving, and adhering to the quality-related processes.

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Assuming that testers could check the ease of changing the currency exchange system then it would be done by maintainability testing rather than maintenance testing, so this is not a trigger for maintenance testing
b) Is correct. A system modification (such as a fix or enhancement) is an example of a trigger for maintenance testing. The removal of the refund option of the currency exchange system was a fix that would lead to maintenance testing
c) Is not correct. If the agile team has started developing a user story that adds a new customer loyalty feature to the currency exchange system, then this will result in them testing the new feature, and then they would perform regression testing. No maintenance testing is required in this situation
d) Is not correct. Reconfiguration of the currency exchange system to support both the local language and English currency transactions is not a system modification, a change to the operational environment, or a system retirement, which are the three triggers for maintenance testing

Explanation / Rationale

The equivalence partitions are: {…, 99, 100}, {101, 102, …, 198, 199}, {200, 201, …}.
Thus, there are 4 boundary values, which are: 100, 101, 199 and 200.
In 2-value BVA, for each boundary value there are two coverage items (the boundary value and its closest neighbor belonging to the adjacent partition). As the closest neighbors are also boundary values in the adjacent partition, then there are just four coverage items.

Thus:
a) Is not correct. Only 100 and 200 are valid coverage items for 2-value BVA, so we achieve 50% coverage
b) Is not correct. Only 100 and 200 are valid coverage items for 2-value BVA, so we achieve 50% coverage
c) Is not correct. Only 100 and 101 are valid coverage items for 2-value BVA, so we achieve 50% coverage
d) Is correct. 101, 199 and 200 are valid coverage items for 2-value BVA, so we achieve 75% coverage

Explanation / Rationale

i. Is true. The SDLC has an influence on the test process
ii. Is false. The number of defects detected in previous projects may have some influence, but this is not as significant as i, iii and iv
iii. Is true. The identified product risks are one of the most important factors influencing the test process
iv. Is true. Regulatory requirements are important factors influencing the test process
v. Is false. The test environment has no significant influence on the test process

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. In exploratory testing, test cases are usually created during the exploratory testing session, alongside test analysis, test implementation and test execution
b) Is not correct. In exploratory testing, tests are simultaneously designed, executed, and evaluated while the tester learns about the test object
c) Is not correct. Exploratory testing results depend heavily on the tester’s experience, so even if the results of exploratory testing can be used as a predictor of risk and used to assess whether there will be fewer or more defects, for example, compared to the previous exploratory testing session, they are not a good example of reliable defect prediction models that can predict the number of remaining defects
d) Is correct. During exploratory testing, the testers can use any techniques that they find useful

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. It is often possible to use dynamic testing to cause a test object to fail in ways that could never be achieved by the users, such as by using fault injection. However, if the failure can never occur with real end users, then identifying it is not especially valuable as testing is ultimately aimed at improving the work product for the end users. Spending time testing for failures that cannot occur with real users is not an efficient use of a tester’s time
b) Is not correct. Static testing in the form of static analysis is used by developers to identify defects in their program code earlier than can be achieved through dynamic testing. Note, however, that static testing (and static analysis) is used to detect defects, not failures, which are found by dynamic testing. Thus it is the use of the term ‘failures’ that makes this an incorrect option
c) Is not correct. Static analysis directly detects anomalies in code, which may be defects, and this is normally for the developer, not the customer. The provision of evidence for release by the use of static analysis of elements that provide no output is nonsense
d) Is correct. Reviews are a form of static testing that can be applied from the very start of the software development lifecycle and are used to find defects that can be removed before subsequent development activities waste effort on faulty requirements. If the defects are not detected and removed early on, then when the defect is found derived work products, such as the design and code, will need to be changed as they were based on faulty requirements

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. To ensure successful reviews, it's important to secure management's support for the review process, however that does not mean that they should participate as reviewers
b) Is correct. To ensure successful reviews, it's important to break the work product into parts that are small enough to be reviewed in a reasonable timescale to prevent reviewers from losing focus during individual review or review meetings
c) Is not correct. To ensure successful reviews, it's important to clearly define objectives and measurable exit criteria, without evaluating participants
d) Is not correct. To ensure successful reviews, it's important to break down the review into smaller chunks to prevent reviewers from losing focus during individual review or review meetings. So you should not plan to cover one document per review

Explanation / Rationale

Consider:

i. It is a Project risk
ii. It is a Product risk
iii. It is a Product risk
iv. It is a Project risk
v. It is a Product risk

Thus:
a) Is correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. For a complex configuration item (e.g., a test environment), CM records the items it consists of, their relationships, and versions
b) Is not correct. CM tools do not execute test cases and do not calculate coverage
c) Is not correct. A CM tool is not a license management tool
d) Is not correct. CM tools do not generate test data

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Test design involves using test conditions to create test cases and other necessary testware, such as test data requirements and test charters for exploratory testing. Test environment requirements are also specified, including the necessary infrastructure and tools
b) Is not correct. Test execution involves executing test cases (as part of test procedures), however it does not directly cover the other testware mentioned in the question, such as test data requirements, test environment requirements and test conditions
c) Is not correct. Test analysis is used to identify the features that require testing. The test basis is analyzed and defined as test conditions, which are then prioritized along with related risks. While this activity involves working with test conditions, it does not cover the other testware mentioned in the question, such as test data requirements, test environment requirements and test cases
d) Is not correct. Test implementation includes the generation of test procedures, such as manual and automated test scripts, which are created from test cases and may be assembled into test suites. Test procedures are prioritized and arranged in a test execution schedule. Test data is created, and the test environment built, and its set up verified. While this activity involves explicitly working with test cases, and may use test data requirements and test environment requirements to create test data and the test environment, it does not cover test conditions

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Planning poker can estimate effort for a user story that is already written. It does not help in understanding what should be delivered
b) Is not correct. Reviews are not a collaborative user story writing practice
c) Is not correct. Iteration planning is a project-related practice, used to plan the work, not to understand what needs to be delivered
d) Is correct. Conversation explains how the software will be used and often allows the team to define meaningful acceptance criteria, thus obtaining a shared vision of what should be delivered

Explanation / Rationale

The ‘absence-of-defects fallacy’ is concerned with the idea that ensuring correctness in accordance with the requirements (i.e., verifying the absence of implementation defects) does not guarantee user satisfaction with the system. To address this it is also necessary to validate that the system meets users' needs and expectations, fulfills business objectives, and outperforms competing systems.
a) Is not correct. The ‘testing shows the presence, not the absence of defects’ principle explains that while testing can detect the existence of defects in the test object, it is not possible to demonstrate that there are no defects and, therefore, guarantee its correctness. Therefore, explaining that it is not possible for testing to show the absence of defects would partially address this principle, not the ‘absence-of-defects’ fallacy
b) Is correct. By supporting the end user to perform acceptance testing it should be possible to validate that the system meets users' needs and expectations
c) Is not correct. It is not possible to ensure that no implementation defects remain in the delivered system as the ‘testing shows the presence, not the absence of defects’ principle explains that while testing can detect the existence of defects in the test object, it is not possible to demonstrate that there are no defects and, therefore, guarantee its correctness
d) Is not correct. Modifying tests that cause no failures to ensure few defects remain is one way to address the ‘tests wear out’ principle. This principle is concerned with the idea that repeating identical tests on unaltered code is unlikely to uncover novel defects and therefore, modifying tests may be essential. This will not validate that the system meets users' needs and expectations

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Quality should be the responsibility of everyone working on the project and not the sole responsibility of the test team
b) Is not correct. First, it is not a benefit if an external test team does not meet delivery deadlines, and second, there is no reason to believe that external test teams will feel they do not have to meet strict delivery deadlines
c) Is not correct. It is bad practice for the test team to work in complete isolation, and we would expect an external test team to be concerned with changing project requirements and communicating well with developers
d) Is correct. Specifications are never perfect, meaning that assumptions will have to be made by the developer. An independent tester is useful in that they can challenge and verify the assumptions and subsequent interpretation made by the developer

Explanation / Rationale

There are 12 boundary values for the final result values: 0, 50, 51, 60, 61, 70, 71, 80, 81, 90, 91, and 100.
The test cases cover six of them (TC1 – 91, TC2 – 50, TC3 – 81, TC4 – 60, TC5 – 70 and TC7 – 51).
Therefore, the test cases cover 6/12 = 50%.
Thus:
a) Is correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Exploratory testing uses test charters, not a list of possible defects/failures. Although exploratory testing can incorporate the use of other test techniques, in this case fault attack is the most likely option
b) Is correct. This is a list of possible failures. Fault attacks are a methodical approach to the implementation of error guessing and require the tester to create or acquire a list of possible errors, defects and failures, and to design tests that will identify defects associated with the errors, expose the defects, or cause the failures
c) Is not correct. The tester is using a checklist of items to support their testing. Both error guessing and checklist-based testing use such lists, however, the list here is of possible failures, not test conditions, and so the MOST PROBABLE test technique is fault attack, which focuses on errors, defects and failures
d) Is not correct. BVA is based on an analysis of boundary values of equivalence partitions. The above list does not mention equivalence partitions or their boundaries

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. We want to check that Special users have the rights of Regular users, so we need to test access rights for a Special user, not for a Regular user
b) Is not correct. We want to check that Special users have the rights of Regular users, so we need to test access rights for a Special user, not for a Regular user
c) Is not correct. There is no floor 5 described in the acceptance criteria. The test cases should not extend the scope of the user story. But even if we would like to perform negative testing, this test is not directly related to AC3
d) Is correct. This way we can check if a Special user can access floors which are accessible to a Regular user