ISTQB Learning

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Exam 5

1 / 40

1. Which of the following is an advantage of the whole-team approach?

Select ONE option.

2 / 40

2. Decide which of the following statements (i-v) are true for static testing.

i. Abnormal external behaviors are easier to identify with this testing
ii. Discrepancies from a coding standard are easier to find with this testing
iii. It identifies failures caused by defects when the software is run
iv. Its test objective is to identify defects as early as possible
v. Missing coverage for critical security requirements is easier to find and fix

Select ONE option.

3 / 40

3. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a test plan?

Select ONE option.

4 / 40

4. Which of the following statements is a CORRECT example of the value of traceability?

Select ONE option.

5 / 40

5. Which of the following is an advantage of the whole-team approach?

Select ONE option.

6 / 40

6. Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed if the testing is focused on validation and is not being performed by testers?

Select ONE option.

7 / 40

7. Given the following example defects:

i. Two different parts of the design specification disagree due to the complexity of the design
ii. A response time is too long and so makes users lose patience
iii. A path in the code cannot be reached during execution
iv. A variable is declared but never subsequently used in the program
v. The amount of memory needed by the program to generate a report is too high

Which of the following BEST identifies example defects that could be found by static testing (rather than dynamic testing)?

Select ONE option.

8 / 40

8. Why does white-box testing facilitate defect detection even when the software specification is vague, outdated or incomplete?

Select ONE option.

9 / 40

9. Tools from which of the following categories help with the organization of test cases, detected defects and configuration management?

 

Select ONE option.

10 / 40

10. Given the following test tool categories:

i. Collaboration tools
ii. DevOps tools
iii. Management tools
iv. Non-functional testing tools
v. Test design and implementation tools

Tools from which of the categories are MOST likely to facilitate test execution?

Select ONE options.

11 / 40

11. Which of the following statements about DevOps is CORRECT?

Select ONE option.

12 / 40

12. You need to update one of the automated test scripts to be in line with a new requirement. Which process indicates that you create a new version of the test script in the test repository?

Select ONE option.

13 / 40

13. Which of the following is a typical test objective?

Select ONE option.

14 / 40

14. During a risk analysis the following risk was identified and assessed:

• Risk: Response time is too long to generate a report
• Risk likelihood: medium; risk impact: high
• Response to risk:

o An independent test team performs performance testing during system testing
o A selected sample of end users performs alpha and beta acceptance testing before the release

What measure is proposed to be taken in response to this analyzed risk?

Select ONE option.

15 / 40

15. You received the following defect report from the developers stating that the anomaly described in this test report is not reproducible.

Application hangs up
2022-May-03 – John Doe – Rejected
The application hangs up after entering “Test input: $ä” in the Name field on the new user creation screen. Tried to log off, log in with test_admin01 account, same issue. Tried with other test admin accounts, same issue. No error message received; log (see attached) contains fatal error notification. Based on the test case TC-1305, the application should accept the provided input and create the user. Please fix with high priority, this feature is related to REQ-0012, which is a critical new business requirement.

What critical information is MISSING from this test report that would have been useful for the developers?

Select ONE option.

16 / 40

16. Which of the following pieces of information contained in a test progress report is the LEAST useful for business representatives?

Select ONE option.

17 / 40

17. Which of the following is NOT anticipated by the tester while applying error guessing?

Select ONE option.

18 / 40

18. Your team uses planning poker to estimate the test effort for a newly required feature. There is a rule in your team that if there is no time to reach full agreement and the variation in the results is small, applying rules like “accept the number with the most votes” can be applied.
After two rounds, the consensus was not reached, so the third round was initiated. You can see the test estimation results in the table below.

Which of the following is the BEST example of the next step?

Select ONE option.

19 / 40

19. You are preparing a test execution schedule for executing seven test cases TC 1 to TC 7.

The following figure includes the priorities of these test cases (1=highest priority, 3 = lowest priority).

The figure also shows the dependencies between test cases using arrows. For instance, the arrow from TC 4 to TC 5 means that TC 5 can only be executed if TC 4 was previously executed.

Which test case should be executed sixth?

Select ONE option.

20 / 40

20. You are testing a sort function that gets a set of numbers as input and returns the same set of numbers sorted in ascending order. The log from the test execution looks as follows.

Which of the following provides the BEST description of the failure that can be used in a defect report?

Select ONE option.

21 / 40

21. Which TWO of the following options are common metrics used for reporting on the quality level of the test object?

Select TWO options.

22 / 40

22. You are testing a PIN validator, which accepts valid PINs and rejects invalid PINs. A PIN is a sequence of digits. A PIN is valid if it consists of four digits, at least two of which are different. You have identified the following valid equivalence partitions:

Variable: PIN code length

• The partition “length correct” - four-digit PINs
• The partition “length incorrect” - PINs with length other than 4

Variable: Number of different digits

• The partition “number of different digits correct” - PINs with at least two different digits
• The partition “number of different digits incorrect” - PINs with all digits being the same

Which of the following is a MINIMUM set of input test data that covers all identified equivalence partitions?

Select ONE option.

23 / 40

23. Your team follows the process that uses the DevOps delivery pipeline. The first three steps of this process are:

(1) Code development
(2) Submit code into a version control system and merge it into the “test” branch
(3) Perform component testing for the submitted code

Which of the following is BEST suited to be the entry criterion for step (2) of this pipeline?

Select ONE option.

24 / 40

24. Which of the following BEST describes how using checklist-based testing can result in increased coverage?

Select ONE option.

25 / 40

25. Which of the following statements about quality assurance (QA) and/or quality control (QC) is correct?

Select ONE option.

26 / 40

26. For a given risk, its risk level is $1,000 and its risk likelihood is estimated as 50%.

What is the risk impact?

Select ONE options.

27 / 40

27. Consider the following rule: “for every SDLC activity there is a corresponding test activity”. In which SDLC models does this rule hold?

Select ONE option.

28 / 40

28. Given the following descriptions of review activities:

1. Detected anomalies are deliberated upon, and determinations are reached regarding their status, ownership, and any further steps needed
2. Issues are recorded, and any needed updates are addressed prior to the acceptance of the work product
3. Reviewers employ techniques to come up with suggestions and questions about the work product and to spot anomalies
4. The objective of the review and its schedule are established to ensure a focused and efficient review
5. Participants are provided with access to the item being reviewed

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence in the review process of the activities that correspond to the descriptions?

Select ONE option.

29 / 40

29. Which of the following factors (i-v) have SIGNIFICANT influence on the test process?

i. The SDLC
ii. The number of defects detected in previous projects
iii. The identified product risks
iv. New regulatory requirements forcing formal white-box testing
v. The test environment setup

Select ONE option.

30 / 40

30. You test a system whose lifecycle is modeled by the state transition diagram shown below. The system starts in the INIT state and ends its operation in the OFF state.

What is the MINIMAL number of test cases to achieve valid transitions coverage?

Select ONE option.

31 / 40

31. Which of the following is MOST likely to be performed as part of system testing?

Select ONE option.

32 / 40

32. Which test activity involves working with test data requirements, test conditions, test environment requirements and test cases?

Select ONE option.

33 / 40

33. Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?

Select ONE option.

34 / 40

34. Which of the following are product risks?

Select TWO options.

35 / 40

35. You perform system testing of an e-commerce web application and are provided with the following requirement:

REQ 05-017. If the total cost of purchases exceeds $100, the customer gets a 5% discount on subsequent purchases. Otherwise, the customer does not receive a discount.

Which test techniques will be MOST helpful in designing test cases based on this requirement?

Select ONE option.

36 / 40

36. A storage system can store up to three elements and is modeled by the following state transition diagram. The variable N represents the number of currently stored elements.

Which of the following test cases, represented as sequences of events, achieves the highest level of valid transitions coverage?

Select ONE option.

37 / 40

37. Consider the following defect report for a Book Lending System.

Which of the following is MOST likely to help the developer reproduce the failure quickly?

Select ONE options.

38 / 40

38. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independence of testing?

Select ONE option.

39 / 40

39. During risk analysis the team considered the following risk: “The system allows too high a discount for a customer”. The team estimated the risk impact to be very high.

What can one say about the risk likelihood?

Select ONE option.

40 / 40

40. Which of the following is an example of how product risk analysis influences thoroughness and scope of testing?

Select ONE option.

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