Exam 5 – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 03, 2024 By

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Exam 5

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1. A wine storage system uses a control device that measures the wine cell temperature T (measured in °C, rounded to the nearest degree) and alarms the user if it deviates from the optimal value of 12, according to the following rules:

• if T = 12, the system says, “optimal temperature”

• if T < 12, the system says, “temperature is too low!”

• if T > 12, the system says, “temperature is too high!”

You want to use the 3-point boundary value analysis (BVA) to verify the behavior of the control device. A test input is a temperature in °C provided by the device.

What is the MINIMAL set of test inputs that achieves 100% of the desired coverage?

a) 11, 12, 13

b) 10, 12, 14

c) 10, 11, 12, 13, 14

d) 10, 11, 13, 14

Select ONE option.

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2. Which of the following is the BEST example of how traceability supports testing?

a) Performing the impact analysis of a change will give information about the completion of the tests

b) Analyzing the traceability between test cases and test results will give information about the estimated level of residual risk

c) Performing the impact analysis of a change will help selecting the right test cases for regression testing

d) Analyzing the traceability between the test basis, the test objects and the test cases will help in selecting test data to achieve the assumed coverage of the test object

Select ONE option.

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3. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent stakeholder feedback?

a) Changes to requirements are understood and implemented earlier

b) It ensures business stakeholders understand user requirements

c) It allows product owners to change their requirements as often as they want

d) End users are told which requirements will not be implemented prior to release

Select ONE option.

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4. Which of the following is NOT a valid purpose for a test report?

a) Tracking test progress and identifying areas that require further attention

b) Providing information on the tests executed, their results, and any issues or defects found

c) Providing information about each defect, such as the steps to reproduce it

d) Providing information on testing planned for the next period

Select ONE options.

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5. How can the testing quadrants be beneficial for testing?

a) They help in test planning by dividing the test process into four stages, corresponding to the four basic test levels: component, integration, system, and acceptance testing

b) They help in assessing the high-level coverage (e.g., requirements coverage) based on low-level coverage (e.g., code coverage)

c) They help non-technical stakeholders to understand the different types of tests and that some test types are more relevant to certain test levels than others

d) They help agile teams to develop a communication strategy based on classifying people according to four basic psychological types, and on modelling the relations between them

Select ONE options.

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6. Which item correctly identifies a potential risk of performing test automation?

a) It may introduce unknown regressions in production

b) Sufficient efforts to maintain testware may not be properly allocated

c) Testing tools and associated testware may not be sufficiently relied upon

d) It may reduce the time allocated for manual testing

Select ONE option.

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7. Which of the following is a characteristic of experience-based test techniques?

a) Test cases are created based on detailed design information

b) Items tested within the interface code section are used to measure coverage

c) The techniques heavily rely on the tester’s knowledge of the software and the business domain

d) The test cases are used to identify deviations from the requirements

Select ONE option.

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8. How is the whole team approach present in the interactions between testers and business representatives?

a) Business representatives decide on test automation approaches

b) Testers help business representatives to define test strategy

c) Business representatives are not part of the whole team approach

d) Testers help business representatives to create suitable acceptance tests

Select ONE option.

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9. Which work product can be used by an agile team to show the amount of work that has been completed and the amount of total work remaining for a given iteration?

a) Acceptance criteria

b) Defect report

c) Test completion report

d) Burndown chart

Select ONE option.

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10. Your favorite bicycle daily rental store has just introduced a new Customer Relationship Management system and asked you, one of their most loyal members, to test it.
The implemented features are as follows:

• Anyone can rent a bicycle, but members receive a 20% discount
• However, if the return deadline is missed, the discount is no longer available
• After 15 rentals, members get a gift: a T-Shirt

Decision table describing the implemented features looks as follows:

Based ONLY on the feature description of the Customer Relationship Management system, which of the above rules describes an impossible situation?

a) R4

b) R2

c) R6

d) R8

Select ONE option.

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11. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test automation?

a) The capability of generating test cases without access to the test basis

b) The achievement of increased coverage through more objective assessment

c) The increase in test execution times available with higher processing power

d) The prevention of human errors through greater consistency and repeatability

Select ONE option.

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12. During a risk analysis the following risk was identified and assessed:

• Risk: Response time is too long to generate a report
• Risk likelihood: medium; risk impact: high
• Response to risk:

o An independent test team performs performance testing during system testing
o A selected sample of end users performs alpha and beta acceptance testing before the release

What measure is proposed to be taken in response to this analyzed risk?

a) Risk acceptance

b) Contingency plan

c) Risk mitigation

d) Risk transfer

Select ONE option.

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13. You are testing a mobile application that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. You are running a test suite that involves evaluating each screen, and each field on each screen, against a general list of user interface best practices derived from a popular book on the topic that maximizes attractiveness, ease-of-use, and accessibility for such applications. Which of the following options BEST categorizes the test technique you are using?

a) Black-box

b) Exploratory

c) Checklist-based

d) Error guessing

Select ONE option.

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14. Your test suite S for a program P achieves 100% statement coverage. It consists of three test cases, each of which achieves 50% statement coverage.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a) Executing S will cause all possible failures in P

b) S achieves 100% branch coverage for P

c) Every executable statement in P containing a defect has been run at least once during the execution of S

d) After removing one test case from S, the remaining two test cases will still achieve 100% statement coverage

Select ONE option.

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15. Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?

a) Ensure management participate as reviewers

b) Split large work products into smaller parts

c) Set reviewer evaluation as an objective

d) Plan to cover one document per review

Select ONE option.

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16. You test a system whose lifecycle is modeled by the state transition diagram shown below. The system starts in the INIT state and ends its operation in the OFF state.

What is the MINIMAL number of test cases to achieve valid transitions coverage?

a) 4

b) 2

c) 7

d) 3

Select ONE option.

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17. Which of the following statements about DevOps is CORRECT?

a) To speed up releases, continuous integration is used to encourage developers to submit code quickly without the need to complete component testing

b) To be able to update and release systems on a more frequent basis, many automated regression tests are required to reduce the danger of regression

c) To treat both developers and operations equally, the testers will allocate more effort to release testing by operations using a shift-right approach

d) To create increased synergy between testers, developers and operations, the testing must become fully automated with no manual testing

Select ONE option.

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18. Given the following benefits and drawbacks of the independence of testing:

i. The testers work in a different location from the developers
ii. Testers question the assumptions programmers make while writing code
iii. A confrontational dynamic has been established between testers and developers
iv. Developers have convinced themselves that testers are mostly accountable for quality
v. Testers have different biases than those held by the developers

Which are MOST likely to be considered benefits?

a) i, iv

b) ii, v

c) i, iii, iv

d) ii, iii, v

Select ONE option.

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19. Which of the following statements about the chosen software development lifecycle is CORRECT?

a) If agile software development is used, system test automation replaces the need for regression testing

b) If a sequential development model is used, then the dynamic testing is typically restricted to later in the lifecycle

c) If an iterative development model is used, then component testing is typically performed manually by developers

d) If an incremental development model is used, then static testing is done in early increments and dynamic testing in later increments

Select ONE option.

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20. Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur as a result of a retrospective?

a) The quality of future test objects improves by identifying improvements in development practices

b) Test efficiency improves by speeding up the configuration of test environments through automation

c) End users’ understanding of the development and test processes is improved

d) Automated test scripts are enhanced through feedback from developers

Select ONE option.

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21. Which of the following is a product quality metric?

a) Mean time to failure

b) Number of defects found

c) Requirements coverage

d) Defect detection percentage

Select ONE option.

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22. Decide which of the following statements (i-v) are true for static testing.

i. Abnormal external behaviors are easier to identify with this testing
ii. Discrepancies from a coding standard are easier to find with this testing
iii. It identifies failures caused by defects when the software is run
iv. Its test objective is to identify defects as early as possible
v. Missing coverage for critical security requirements is easier to find and fix

a) i, iv, v are true for static testing

b) i, iii, iv are true for static testing

c) ii, iii are true for static testing

d) ii, iv, v are true for static testing

Select ONE option.

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23. In your project there has been a delay in the release of a brand-new application and test execution started late, but you have very detailed domain knowledge and good analytical skills. The full list of requirements has not yet been shared with the team, but management is asking for some test results to be presented.

Which test technique fits BEST in this situation?

a) Checklist-based testing

b) Error guessing

c) Exploratory testing

d) Branch testing

Select ONE option.

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24. Which of these statements is NOT a factor that contributes to successful reviews?

a) Participants should dedicate adequate time for the review

b) Splitting large work products into small parts to make the required effort less intense

c) Participants should avoid behaviors that might indicate boredom, exasperation, or hostility to other participants

d) Failures found should be acknowledged, appreciated, and handled objectively

Select ONE option.

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25. Which of the following are product risks?

a) Scope creep

b) Poor architecture

c) Cost-cutting

d) Poor tool support

e) Response time too long

Select TWO options.

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26. Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?

a) Component Test-Driven Development

b) Integration Test-Driven Development

c) System Test-Driven Development

d) Acceptance Test-Driven Development

Select ONE option.

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27. You are testing a mobile application that allows users to find a nearby restaurant based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (i.e., a smaller number means a higher priority), and dependencies:

Which of the following test cases should be executed as the third one?

a) TC 003

b) TC 005

c) TC 002

d) TC 001

Select ONE option.

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28. According to the testing quadrants model, which of the following falls into quadrant Q1 (“technology facing” and “support the team”)?

a) Usability testing

b) Functional testing

c) User acceptance testing

d) Component integration testing

Select ONE option.

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29. What does the test pyramid model show?

a) That tests may have different priorities

b) That tests may have different granularity

c) That tests may require different coverage criteria

d) That tests may depend on other tests

Select ONE option.

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30. Which of the following is a typical test objective?

a) Finding and fixing defects in the test object

b) Maintaining effective communications with developers

c) Validating that legal requirements have been met

d) Building confidence in the quality of the test object

Select ONE option.

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31. Which of the arguments below would you use to convince your manager to organize retrospectives at the end of each release cycle?

a) Retrospectives are very popular these days and clients would appreciate it if we added them to our processes

b) Organizing retrospectives will save the organization money because without them end user representatives do not provide immediate feedback about the product

c) Process weaknesses identified during the retrospective can be analyzed and serve as a to do list for the organization’s continuous process improvement program

d) Retrospectives embrace five values including courage and respect, which are crucial to maintain continuous improvement in the organization

Select ONE option.

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32. One of the ‘principles of testing’ states that exhaustive testing is impossible. Which of the following is an example of addressing this principle in practice?

a) Creating test cases that cover every possible specified output

b) Documenting all possible test input variations and prioritizing these based on importance

c) Starting testing as early as possible with reviews and other static testing approaches

d) Using equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to generate test cases

Select ONE option.

Explanation / Rationale

The ‘exhaustive testing is impossible’ principle is concerned with the fact that it is not feasible to test every possible variation of test inputs in all different circumstances, except in trivial cases. Instead, testing utilizes test techniques, test case prioritization, and risk-based testing to sample from the set of possibilities and focus testing efforts.
a) Is not correct. The principle states that it is not feasible to test everything except in trivial cases. Testing everything would require testing every possible variation of test inputs in all different circumstances, which is generally infeasible as there will be a practically infinite number. Testing every possible specified output will not address this problem as the relationship between inputs and specified outputs can be different for each test object. Sometimes there may be a practically infinite number of possible specified outputs (e.g., when there are several variables representing real numbers), whereas at other times there may be just two specified outputs, such as with a single variable that can be either true or false
b) Is not correct. The principle states that it is not feasible to test every possible variation of test inputs in all different circumstances. This is because for non-trivial systems there is a practically infinite number. Therefore, in practice, documenting all possible test input variations would be impractical as it would take an infinite length of time
c) Is not correct. Starting testing as early as possible with reviews and other static testing approaches will not address the problem of there being too many possible test cases. The ‘early testing saves time and money’ principle is concerned with fixing defects early on to prevent the occurrence of subsequent defects in derived work products, thereby reducing costs and the likelihood of failures
d) Is correct. The use of equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to generate test cases is one way to address the principle as these test techniques provide a systematic way to derive a finite subset of all possible test cases

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33. High-level test conditions are being used by testers to generate test cases and execute tests. Even though the test conditions remain the same, the test cases are varied each time. Which of the following ‘principles of testing’ is being addressed through the variation of test cases?

a) Tests wear out

b) Absence-of-defects fallacy

c) Early testing saves time and money

d) Defects cluster together

Select ONE option.

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34. Your test suite achieved 100% statement coverage. What is the consequence of this fact?

a) Each instruction in the code that contains a defect has been executed at least once

b) Any test suite containing more test cases than your test suite will also achieve 100% statement coverage

c) Each path in the code has been executed at least once

d) Every combination of input values has been tested at least once

Select ONE option.

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35. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a) Regression tests increase in number as the project progresses, whereas the number of confirmation tests decreases as the project progresses

b) Regression tests are created and run when the test object is fixed, whereas confirmation tests are run whenever the test object is enhanced

c) Regression testing is concerned with checking that the operational environment remains unchanged, whereas confirmation testing is concerned with testing changes to the test object

d) Regression testing is concerned with adverse effects in unchanged code, whereas confirmation testing is concerned with testing changed code

Select ONE option.

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36. You are working on a project to develop a system to analyze driving test results. You have been asked to design test cases based on the following decision table.

What test data will show that there are contradictory rules in the decision table?

a) C1 = T, C2 = T, C3 = F

b) C1 = T, C2 = F, C3 = T

c) C1 = T, C2 = T, C3 = T and C1 = F, C2 = T, C3 = T

d) C1 = F, C2 = F, C3 = F

Select ONE option.

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37. Consider the following acceptance criteria for a user story written from the perspective of an online store owner.

Given that the user is logged in and on the homepage,
When the user clicks on the "Add Item" button,
Then the "Create Item" form should appear,
And the user should be able to input a name and price for the new item.

In what format is this acceptance criteria written?

a) Rule-oriented

b) Scenario-oriented

c) Product-oriented

d) Process-oriented

Select ONE option.

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38. Which of the following statements about branch testing is CORRECT?

a) If a program includes only unconditional branches, then 100% branch coverage can be achieved without executing any test cases

b) If the test cases exercise all unconditional branches in the code, then 100% branch coverage is achieved

c) If 100% statement coverage is achieved, then 100% branch coverage is also achieved

d) If 100% branch coverage is achieved, then all decision outcomes in each decision statement in the code are exercised

Select ONE option.

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39. Consider the following rule: “for every SDLC activity there is a corresponding test activity”. In which SDLC models does this rule hold?

a) Only in sequential SDLC models

b) Only in iterative SDLC models

c) Only in iterative and incremental SDLC models

d) In sequential, incremental, and iterative SDLC models

Select ONE option.

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40. A phone ringing in a neighboring cubicle distracts a programmer causing him to improperly program the logic that checks the upper boundary of an input variable. Later, during system testing, a tester notices that this input field accepts invalid input values.

Which of the following correctly describes an incorrectly coded upper bound?

a) The root cause

b) A failure

c) An error

d) A defect

Select ONE option.

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