Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed review types:

1. Technical review - This type of review is performed by technically qualified reviewers and led by a moderator. The objectives are to gain consensus and make decisions on technical problems while also evaluating quality and building confidence in the work product, generating new ideas, motivating and enabling authors to improve, and detecting anomalies
2. Informal review - The main objective is to detect anomalies. The process is not defined and does not require formal documented output
3. Inspection - This is the most formal review type, and it follows the complete generic review process. The primary objective is to find the most anomalies, and other objectives include evaluating quality and building confidence in the work product, motivating and enabling authors to improve, and collecting metrics that can be used to enhance the software development life cycle (SDLC), including the inspection process. The author cannot act as the review leader or scribe
4. Walkthrough - Led by the author, this type of review serves various objectives such as evaluating quality and building confidence in the work product, educating reviewers, gaining consensus, generating new ideas, motivating and enabling authors to improve, and detecting anomalies. Reviewers might perform an individual review before the walkthrough, but this is not mandatory

A. Includes objectives such as gaining consensus, generating new ideas, and motivating authors to improve (A)
B. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it generates no formal documented output (D)
C. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it requires metrics collection to support process improvement (C)
D. Includes objectives such as educating reviewers, gaining consensus, generating new ideas and detecting potential defects (B)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct. The correct match is: 1A, 2D, 3C, 4B
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Coverage is always defined as the percentage of the covered elements. Therefore, it cannot exceed 100%
b) Is correct. If the statements executed by T1 and T2 were disjoint, the coverage of the test suite {T1, T2} would be 105%, which is impossible (see answer a). Therefore, at least 5% of executable statements must have been executed by both T1 and T2
c) Is not correct. Statement coverage does not tell us anything about the number of non-executable statements in the code
d) Is not correct. Even if a test suite achieves full statement coverage, this does not imply achieving full branch coverage

Explanation / Rationale

Test TC 001 must come first, followed by TC 002, to satisfy dependencies. Afterwards, TC 003 to satisfy priority and then TC 004, followed by TC 005.
Thus:
a) Is correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Performing the impact analysis will not give information about completeness of tests. Analyzing the impact analysis of changes will help to select the right test cases for execution
b) Is not correct. Traceability does not give information about the estimated level of residual risk if the test cases are not traced back to risks
c) Is correct. Performing the impact analysis of the changes helps in selecting the test cases for the regression test
d) Is not correct. Analyzing the traceability between the test basis, test objects and test cases does not help in selecting test data to achieve the assumed coverage of the test object. Selecting test data is more related to test analysis and test implementation, not traceability

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed testware, and the test activity that produces it:

i. The test completion report is an output of the test completion activity
ii. Data held in a database used for test inputs and expected results is the test data - output of test implementation activity
iii. The list of elements needed to build the test environment is the test environment requirements - output of test design activity.
iv. Documented sequences of test cases in execution order are the test procedures - output of test implementation activity
v. Test cases - output of test design activity

Test implementation produces the following outputs: test procedures (iv), automated test scripts, test suites, test data (ii), test execution schedule, and test environment elements such as stubs, drivers, simulators, and service virtualizations.

Thus:
a) Is correct. Items ii and iv in the list are produced as a result of test implementation
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

The five listed descriptions and the corresponding review process activities are:

1. This describes part of the ‘communication and analysis’ activity
2. This describes part of the ‘fixing and reporting’ activity
3. This describes part of the ‘individual review’ activity
4. This describes part of the ‘planning’ activity
5. This describes part of the ‘review initiation’ activity

The generic review process from ISO/IEC 20246, which is outlined in the syllabus, comprises the following activities in this logical order:

• Planning (4)
• Review initiation (5)
• Individual review (3)
• Communication and analysis (1)
• Fixing and reporting (2)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct. The correct sequence of activities is: 4 – 5 – 3 – 1 – 2
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Acceptance criteria are the conditions used to decide whether the user story is ready. They cannot show work progress
b) Is not correct. Defect reports inform about the defects. They do not show work progress
c) Is not correct. Test completion report can be created after the iteration is finished, so it will not show the progress continuously within an iteration
d) Is correct. Burndown charts are a graphical representation of work left to do versus time remaining. They are updated daily, so they can continuously show the work progress

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. We do not accept the risk; concrete actions are proposed
b) Is not correct. No contingency plans are proposed
c) Is correct. The proposed actions are related to testing, which is a form of risk mitigation
d) Is not correct. Risk is not transferred but mitigated

Explanation / Rationale

In the three-point estimation technique:

E = (optimistic + 4*most likely + pessimistic)/6

E = (2+(4*11)+14)/6 = 10

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is correct

Explanation / Rationale

Considering:

• Usability testing is in Q3 (1 – C)
• Component testing is in Q1 (2 – A)
• Functional testing is in Q2 (3 – B)
• Reliability testing is in Q4 (4 – D)

Thus:
a) Is correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Impediments to testing can be high level and business-related, so this is an important piece of information for business stakeholders
b) Is correct. Branch testing is a technical metric used by developers and technical testers. This information is of no interest to business representatives
c) Is not correct. Test progress is project related, so it may be useful for business representatives
d) Is not correct. Risks impact product quality, so it may be useful for business representatives

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Quality should be the responsibility of everyone working on the project and not the sole responsibility of the test team
b) Is not correct. First, it is not a benefit if an external test team does not meet delivery deadlines, and second, there is no reason to believe that external test teams will feel they do not have to meet strict delivery deadlines
c) Is not correct. It is bad practice for the test team to work in complete isolation, and we would expect an external test team to be concerned with changing project requirements and communicating well with developers
d) Is correct. Specifications are never perfect, meaning that assumptions will have to be made by the developer. An independent tester is useful in that they can challenge and verify the assumptions and subsequent interpretation made by the developer

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed test activities and their tasks:

A. Test analysis - To identify the features that require testing, the test basis is analyzed and defined as test conditions, which are then prioritized along with related risks. During this test analysis, defects in the test basis are typically uncovered, and the test object's testability may also be assessed. (Task 4)
B. Test design - Involves using test conditions to create test cases and other necessary testware, such as test data requirements and test charters for exploratory testing. (Task 1)
C. Test implementation - Test procedures, such as manual and automated test scripts, are created from test cases and may be assembled into test suites. Test procedures are prioritized and arranged in a test execution schedule. (Task 3)
D. Test completion - Occurs at project milestones, such as release, end of iteration or end of test level. Testware is identified and archived or handed to the appropriate teams for reuse, the test environment is shut down, and the test activities are analyzed for lessons learned and future improvements. (Task 2)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct. The CORRECT match is: 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Although it is true that the tester can implement and execute detailed test cases based on the checklist, it does not explain how this would result in increased coverage
b) Is not correct. Checklist items should not be automated. But even if they are, the automated test scripts always execute the tests in the same way, which usually does not result in increased coverage
c) Is not correct. It is true that each checklist item should be tested separately and independently. But this impacts the test execution order and does not impact the achieved coverage, and so does not result in increased coverage
d) Is correct. If the checklists are high-level, some variability in the actual testing is likely to occur, resulting in potentially greater coverage but less repeatability. If two testers follow a checklist of high-level items, each of them may use different test data, test steps, etc. This way, one tester will probably cover some areas not covered by the other tester and this will result in increased coverage

Explanation / Rationale

“test” and “error” transitions cannot occur in one test case.
Neither can both “done” transitions.
This means we need at least three test cases to achieve transition coverage. For example:

TC1: test, done
TC2: run, error, done
TC3: run, pause, resume, pause, done

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. QA concentrates on process improvement and implementation, using a preventive approach to avoid errors and defects, while testing is a form of QC that is used to detect defects
b) Is correct. QC aims to achieve appropriate levels of quality by focusing on identifying and correcting product defects. Testing is a significant part of QC and helps to uncover these defects
c) Is not correct. Although testing is a significant part of QC and helps to uncover defects, other (non-testing) techniques utilized in QC include formal methods like model checking and proof of correctness, as well as simulation and prototyping
d) Is not correct. QA concentrates on process improvement and implementation, using a preventive approach to avoid errors and defects, while testing is a form of QC that is used to detect defects

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Component testing (also called unit testing) involves testing individual components in isolation and is mostly verification against a specification, rather than validation against user needs. However, this testing is not normally performed by testers, as developers usually carry out this testing in their development environment
b) Is not correct. Component integration testing involves testing the interfaces and interactions between components and is mostly verification against a specification, rather than validation against user needs. However, this testing is not normally performed by testers, as developers usually carry out this testing
c) Is not correct. System integration testing examines the interfaces with other systems and external services and is mostly verification against a specification, rather than validation against user needs. This type of testing is also most often performed by testers
d) Is correct. Acceptance testing focuses on validating that the system meets the user's business needs and is ready for deployment. Ideally, this testing is carried out by the end users

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. ‘The capability of generating test cases without access to the test basis’ is not possible. The generation of test cases by either testers or tools requires access to the test basis
b) Is not correct. ‘The achievement of increased coverage through more objective assessment’ is not a direct benefit of test automation. Test automation will provide more objective assessment of coverage, however that objective assessment will not increase the coverage. Only by using the results of the coverage to write further test cases can the coverage possibly be increased
c) Is not correct. ‘The increase in test execution times available with higher processing power’ is a contradictory statement as higher processing power would normally reduce execution times, and increased execution times are not a benefit as the testing would take longer
d) Is correct. The prevention of human errors through greater consistency and repeatability is a benefit of test automation as test automation cannot suffer from human errors. For instance, it means that tests are consistently derived from requirements, test data is created in a systematic manner, and tests are executed by a tool in the same order with the same frequency

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed risks and their mitigations:

1. Long system responses (1) can be tested in performance testing (B)
2. Changes of consumers’ preferences (2) are usually out of our control, so usually we accept this risk (A)
3. Flooding of the server room (3) can cause significant loss, so we should transfer the risk, e.g., by buying an insurance policy (D)
4. That patients above a certain age receive inaccurate reports (4) suggests a potential boundary problem, which can be effectively detected with techniques like BVA (C)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is correct. The correct combinations of risk and mitigation are: 1B, 2A, 3D and 4C
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

Some defect types that can only be detected by static testing, such as unreachable code, design patterns not implemented as desired and defects in non-executable work products. Some defect types that can be found by both static testing and dynamic testing, such as a programming defect that can be observed by a reviewer in a code review and which causes an observable failure during dynamic testing. And some defect types that can only be detected by dynamic testing, such as performance issues or memory issues that can only be observed when executing the code or system.

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The test automation approach is defined by testers with the help of developers and business representatives
b) Is not correct. The test strategy is decided in collaboration with the developers
c) Is not correct. Testers, developers, and business representatives are part of the whole team approach
d) Is correct. Testers will work closely with business representatives to ensure that the desired quality levels are achieved. This includes supporting and collaborating with them to help them create suitable acceptance tests

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Test-Driven Development (TDD) is a well-known example of a test-first approach to development
b) Is not correct. Coverage-Driven Development is not a correct example of a test-first approach to development
c) Is not correct. Quality-Driven Development is not a correct example of a test-first approach to development
d) Is not correct. Feature-Driven Development is not an example of a test-first approach to development, but is, instead, an agile software development methodology based around delivering features (as opposed to user stories in Scrum)

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Quality control applies to all development activities, meaning that every software development activity has a corresponding test activity. However, here we are attempting to equate test levels with development levels, and, although we know what is meant by ‘test levels’, there is no common understanding of the term ‘ development level’
b) Is not correct. Every software development activity has a corresponding test activity; however test objectives are quite different. For instance, there might be a test objective of ensuring that a test object adheres to a contractual requirement that a certain type of testing must be performed before delivery. In this case there is no reason for there to be a corresponding development objective
c) Is not correct. Quality control applies to all development activities, meaning that every software development activity has a corresponding test activity. However, the same symmetry does not apply to testing and user activities. For instance, for some systems it is difficult to even identify the end users. Also, some test activities are focused on developers (e.g., testing for ease of maintainability), which has no user aspect to it
d) Is correct. Quality control applies to all development activities, meaning that every software development activity has a corresponding test activity

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. A line with a defect, when executed, does not have to cause a failure. For example, a line x := y / z will cause a failure only when z equals 0
b) Is not correct. 100% statement coverage does not guarantee 100% branch coverage. For example, a test case with x=0 for the code

1. IF (x=0) THEN
2. A;
3. ENDIF

achieves 100% statement coverage but does not cover the branch from 1 to 3
c) Is correct. 100% statement coverage means that each executable statement was executed at least once
d) Is not correct. The removed test case may provide coverage of some statements that are not covered by either of the other two test cases, in which case the remaining two test cases together will not achieve 100% statement coverage

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The feedback is from stakeholders (e.g., business representative, end user), not from developers, so this feedback is not likely to inform managers which developers are more or less productive
b) Is not correct. Early and frequent feedback from stakeholders is not used by project managers to prioritize how they interact with the different stakeholders
c) Is correct. Obtaining feedback from stakeholders early and often in the software development process can be highly beneficial as it facilitates early communication of potential quality issues, can prevent misunderstandings about requirements, and ensures that any changes in stakeholder requirements are understood and implemented sooner
d) Is not correct. Early and frequent feedback can prevent the development of a product that does not meet stakeholder needs, and results in costly rework and missed deadlines, so, ideally there should be no delay. Also, the feedback is from stakeholders (not to them), which includes the end users, so the end users providing feedback will not aid the end users’ understanding

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. While the sentence is true, it does not provide much value for the developer
b) Is correct. From the test results it seems that the system ignores duplicates and sorts the list disregarding the repetitions. This is probably the cause of failures in TC3, TC4, TC5. Such information may help the developer to find the defect and fix it more efficiently
c) Is not correct. The system does not fail in sorting negative numbers. The problem is rather in disregarding duplicates
d) Is not correct. The test cases TC3, TC4 and TC5 fail, but we aren’t aware that the test cases have any defects

Explanation / Rationale

There are three equivalence partitions: {…, –2, –1}, {0, 1, 2}, {3, 4, …}.
For 2-value BVA all the boundary values for all the equivalence partitions must be covered.
The boundary values are –1 (for the “temperature too low” partition), 0, 2 (for the “temperature OK” partition) and 3 (for the “temperature too high” partition).

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is correct. The correct option is: –1, 0, 2, 3
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed example defects:

i. Two different parts of the design specification disagree due to the complexity of the design – this is an example of a specification defect, which includes inconsistencies, ambiguities, contradictions, omissions, inaccuracies, and duplications, which can most easily be found by static testing
ii. A response time is too long and so makes users lose patience – this is an example of a response time defect, which can only be detected in practice by executing the program and measuring the response time, which can most easily be found by dynamic testing
iii. A path in the code cannot be reached during execution - this is an example of a coding defect, which includes variables with undefined values, undeclared variables, duplicated or unreachable code, and excessive code complexity, which can most easily be found by static testing
iv. A variable is declared but never subsequently used in the program - this is an example of a coding defect, which includes variables with undefined values, undeclared variables, duplicated or unreachable code, and excessive code complexity, which can most easily be found by static testing
v. The amount of memory needed by the program to generate a report is too high – this is an example of a performance defect, which can only be detected in practice by executing the program and measuring the memory used, which can most easily be found by dynamic testing

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is correct. The correct match for static testing is i, iii, and iv

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is correct. This rule holds for all SDLC models

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Priorities for user stories are determined by the business representative together with the development team
b) Is not correct. Testers focus on both functional and non-functional aspects of the system to be tested
c) Is correct. According to the syllabus, this is one of the ways testers add value to iteration and release planning
d) Is not correct. Early test design is not part of release planning. Early test design does not automatically guarantee the release of quality software

Explanation / Rationale

“Small garden” and “large garden” can go only with “ground floor”, so we need two test cases with “ground floor” which cover these two “garden type” partitions.
We need two more test cases to cover the two other “floor” partitions and a remaining ”garden type” partition of “no garden”.
We need a total of four test cases:

TC1 (ground floor, small garden)
TC2 (ground floor, large garden)
TC3 (first floor, no garden)
TC4 (second or higher floor, no garden)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

Test cases TC1, TC2, TC3 and TC4 cover, respectively, rules R2, R3, R7 and R6 in the decision table.
a) Is correct. The conditions “66-year-old”, “unregistered” and “no experience” match rule R4, which is not covered by the existing test cases, so after adding this test case, the decision table coverage will increase
b) Is not correct. The conditions “55-year-old”, “unregistered” and “2 years of experience” match rule R2, already covered by TC1. So adding this test case will not increase the coverage
c) Is not correct. The conditions “19-year-old”, “registered” and “5 years of experience” match rule R6, already covered by TC4. So adding this test case will not increase the coverage
d) Is not correct. The existing test cases cover only 4 out of 7 columns of the decision table. The coverage can be increased by adding test cases that cover yet uncovered columns, that is, R1, R4 and R5

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Early review is an example of the shift left approach
b) Is not correct. TDD is an example of the shift left approach
c) Is not correct. Early non-functional testing is an example of the shift left approach
d) Is correct. Test scripts should be subject to configuration management, so it makes no sense to create the test scripts before this process is set up

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Checking that the sort function puts the elements of the list or array in ascending order is evaluating the functional correctness of the sort function, which is part of functional testing
b) Is not correct. Assessing whether the sort function meets its non-functional requirement to complete within one second is part of testing its performance efficiency, which is part of non-functional testing
c) Is not correct. Evaluating the ease with which the sort function can be modified from sorting ascending to sorting descending is testing its modifiability, a form of non-functional maintainability testing, which is part of non-functional testing
d) Is not correct. Assessing that the sort function still functions correctly when moved from a 32-bit to a 64-bit architecture is testing its adaptability, a form of portability testing, which is part of non-functional testing

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Dynamic testing does cause failures (from which defects can then be located and fixed). However, debugging is concerned with locating defects and fixing these defects. Therefore, debugging does not fix failures
b) Is not correct. Both testing and debugging contribute to improving the quality of the test object, so should really both be considered positively. Debugging is generally considered to be a positive activity as it is fixing something. Dynamic testing does involve intentionally causing the test object to fail, which is why some people consider it a negative activity, but that is a very narrow view (and not one typically held by testers). Both positive and negative test cases are possible. Positive test cases check that the test object correctly performs what it is supposed to do, while negative testing checks that the test object does not do what it is not supposed to do
c) Is correct. Testing determines that defects exist either directly through observation of the defect in reviews (or by a tool in static analysis), or indirectly by causing a failure in dynamic testing. Debugging is a separate activity from testing (normally performed by developers) and is concerned with locating defects (only for dynamic testing) and fixing the defects
d) Is not correct. The causes of defects are typically human errors. Testing finds defects either directly through static testing, or indirectly by causing failures in dynamic testing, and debugging fixes defects. So, testing does not find the cause of defects and debugging does not fix the causes of defects

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Risk monitoring is part of risk control, not risk analysis
b) Is not correct. Risk identification itself does not allow us to implement risk mitigation activities. The mitigating actions are defined during the risk control phase
c) Is correct. This is an example of how risk analysis influences the thoroughness and scope of testing
d) Is not correct. Coverage items are derived using test techniques, not through risk analysis

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Defect management is no less expensive. Finding and fixing defects later in SDLC is more costly
b) Is not correct. This is a benefit of static testing
c) Is not correct. This is a benefit of static testing
d) Is not correct. This is a benefit of static testing

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. The ‘tests wear out’ principle is concerned with the idea that repeating identical tests on unaltered code is unlikely to uncover novel defects and therefore, modifying tests may be essential. By using high-level test conditions to generate new tests each time, the tests will not be identical and should not ‘wear out’
b) Is not correct. The ‘absence-of-defects fallacy’ principle is concerned with ensuring that users’ needs are fulfilled even if lots of testing is done and no defects are found (i.e., validation is also necessary). The use of high-level test conditions to generate test cases and execute tests does not directly address this concern
c) Is not correct. The ‘early testing saves time and money’ principle is concerned with fixing defects early on to prevent the occurrence of subsequent defects in derived work products, thereby reducing costs and the likelihood of failures. This is typically addressed by starting testing (both static and dynamic) as early as possible, but this is not addressed by using high-level test conditions to generate test cases and execute tests
d) Is not correct. The ‘Defects cluster together’ principle is concerned with the distribution of defects in a system, which typically follows a Pareto distribution. The use of high-level test conditions to generate test cases and execute tests does not address this concern, which is typically addressed by risk-based testing

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. When a user reports a software failure, thanks to the unique identification of commits, it is possible to reassemble the files from the software version which was used by the user (as well as the corresponding versions of the test scripts) and thus reproduce the failure and locate the defect faster
b) Is not correct. If a change to the test environment causes unexpected issues during testing, configuration management allows testers to roll back to a previous version of the environment. This ensures that testing can continue without being affected by the change
c) Is not correct. Configuration management ensures that all identified documentation (e.g., requirement specifications) and software items are referenced unambiguously in test documentation (e.g., test plans)
d) Is correct. This is ensured by the defect management, not configuration management process

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Testing quadrants have nothing to do with describing the relationships between test levels
b) Is not correct. Testing quadrants cannot help in assessing any type of coverage
c) Is correct. Testing quadrants allow managers and other stakeholders to understand the relationships between test types, the activities they support (team support or product critique), and the viewpoint they are focused on (business- or technology-facing)
d) Is not correct. Testing quadrants is not a psychological model