Exam 5 – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 03, 2024 By

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Exam 5

Name

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1. Which of the following tests is MOST likely to be performed as part of functional testing?

a) The test checks that the sort function puts the elements of the list or array in ascending order

b) The test checks whether the sort function completes sorting within one second of starting

c) The test checks how easily the sort function can be changed from sorting ascending to sorting descending

d) The test checks that the sort function still functions correctly when moved from a 32-bit to a 64-bit architecture

Select ONE option.

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2. You were given a task to analyze and fix causes of failures in a new system to be released.

Which activity are you performing?

a) Debugging

b) Software testing

c) Requirement elicitation

d) Defect management

Select ONE option.

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3. The following list contains risks that have been identified for a new software product to be developed:

i. Management moves two experienced testers to another project
ii. The system does not comply with functional safety standards
iii. System response time exceeds user requirements
iv. Stakeholders have inaccurate expectations
v. Disabled people have problems when using the system

Which of them are project risks?

a) i, iv are project risks

b) iv, v are project risks

c) i, iii are project risks

d) ii, v are project risks

Select ONE option.

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4. Consider the following part of a test plan.

Testing will be performed using component testing and component integration testing. The regulations require to demonstrate that 100% branch coverage is achieved for each component classified as critical.

Which part of the test plan does this part belong to?

a) Communication

b) Risk register

c) Context of testing

d) Test approach

Select ONE option.

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5. How is the whole team approach present in the interactions between testers and business representatives?

a) Business representatives decide on test automation approaches

b) Testers help business representatives to define test strategy

c) Business representatives are not part of the whole team approach

d) Testers help business representatives to create suitable acceptance tests

Select ONE option.

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6. Tools from which of the following categories help with the organization of test cases, detected defects and configuration management?

a) Test execution and coverage tools

b) Test design and implementation tools

c) Defect management tools

d) Test management tools

Select ONE option.

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7. Which of the following is MOST likely to impact how testing is performed for a given test object?

a) The average level of experience of the organization’s marketing team

b) The knowledge of users that a new system is being developed for them

c) The number of years’ experience of the members of the test team

d) The end user’s organizational structure for a commercial music streaming application

Select ONE option.

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8. Which TWO of the following options are common metrics used for reporting on the quality level of the test object?

a) Number of defects found during system testing

b) Total effort on test design divided by the number of designed test cases

c) Number of executed test procedures

d) Number of defects found divided by the size of a work product

e) Time needed to repair a defect

Select TWO options.

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9. Which of the following options shows an example of test activities that contribute to success?

a) Having testers involved during various software development lifecycle (SDLC) activities will help to detect defects in work products

b) Testers try not to disturb the developers while coding, so that the developers write better code

c) Testers collaborating with end users help to improve the quality of defect reports during component integration and system testing

d) Certified testers will design much better test cases than non-certified testers

Select ONE option.

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10. Which of the following is a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

a) Testers should review work products as part of the next development phase

b) Testers should review work products as soon as drafts are available

c) Testers should review work products before test analysis and design begins

d) Testers should review work products immediately after they are published

Select ONE option.

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11. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes:

• There is the role of a scribe
• The main purpose is to evaluate quality
• The meeting is led by the author of the work product
• There is individual preparation
• A review report is produced

Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used?

a) Informal review

b) Walkthrough

c) Technical review

d) Inspection

Select ONE option.

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12. Which of the following statements describe a valid test objective?

a) To prove that there are no unfixed defects in the system under test

b) To prove that there will be no failures after the implementation of the system into production

c) To reduce the risk level of the test object and to build confidence in the quality level

d) To verify that there are no untested combinations of inputs

Select ONE option.

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13. Which of the following are product risks?

a) Scope creep

b) Poor architecture

c) Cost-cutting

d) Poor tool support

e) Response time too long

Select TWO options.

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14. Your team analyzes the following user story in order to define the acceptance criteria:

As a registered customer, I want to be able to view my previous orders on the company's website, so that I can keep track of my purchases.

Which of the following test cases will NOT be relevant for this user story?

a) Input: the customer logs into their account on the website and clicks the “see order history” button Expected output: the system shows a list of all the customer’s previous orders, including the date, order number, and total cost

b) Input: the customer clicks on an order from the order list Expected output: the system displays the individual items purchased, along with their prices and quantities

c) Input: the customer clicks “Sort ascending” button on the order history screen Expected output: the system shows the order history sorted by order number in ascending order

d) Input: an unregistered customer registers as a new customer with a valid e-mail address that does not already exist in the customer database Expected output: the system accepts the registration and creates the account

Select ONE option.

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15. Consider the following user story:

As an Editor
I want to review content before it is published
so that I can assure the grammar is correct

and its acceptance criteria:

• The user can log in to the content management system with "Editor" role
• The editor can view existing content pages
• The editor can edit the page content
• The editor can add markup comments
• The editor can save changes
• The editor can reassign to the "content owner" role to make updates

Which of the following is the BEST example of an ATDD test for this user story?

a) Test if the editor can save the document after edit the page content

b) Test if the content owner can log in and make updates to the content

c) Test if the editor can schedule the edited content for publication

d) Test if the editor can reassign to another editor to make updates

Select ONE option.

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16. Your organization’s test strategy suggests that once a system is going to be retired, data migration shall be tested. As part of what test type is this testing MOST likely to be performed?

a) Maintenance testing

b) Regression testing

c) Component testing

d) Integration testing

Select ONE option.

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17. In many software organizations the test department is called the Quality Assurance (QA) department. Is this sentence correct or not and why?

a) It is correct. Testing and QA mean exactly the same thing

b) It is correct. These names can be used interchangeably because both testing and QA focus their activities on the same quality issues

c) It is not correct. Testing is something more; testing includes all activities with regard to quality. QA focuses on quality-related processes

d) It is not correct. QA is focused on quality-related processes while testing concentrates on demonstrating that a component or system is fit for purpose and to detect defects

Select ONE option.

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18. You work in a team that develops a mobile application for food ordering. In the current iteration the team decided to implement the payment functionality.

Which of the following activities is a part of test analysis?

a) Estimating that testing the integration with the payment service will take 8 person-days

b) Deciding that the team should test if it is possible to properly share payment between many users

c) Using boundary value analysis (BVA) to derive the test data for the test cases that check the correct payment processing for the minimum allowed amount to be paid

d) Analyzing the discrepancy between the actual result and expected result after executing a test case that checks the process of payment with a credit card, and reporting a defect

Select ONE option.

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19. Which of the following skills (i-v) are the MOST important skills of a tester?

i. Having domain knowledge
ii. Creating a product vision
iii. Being a good team player
iv. Planning and organizing the work of the team
v. Critical thinking

a) ii and iv are important

b) i, iii and v are important

c) i, ii and v are important

d) iii and iv are important

Select ONE option.

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20. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test automation?

a) The capability of generating test cases without access to the test basis

b) The achievement of increased coverage through more objective assessment

c) The increase in test execution times available with higher processing power

d) The prevention of human errors through greater consistency and repeatability

Select ONE option.

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21. Given the following descriptions of review activities:

1. Detected anomalies are deliberated upon, and determinations are reached regarding their status, ownership, and any further steps needed
2. Issues are recorded, and any needed updates are addressed prior to the acceptance of the work product
3. Reviewers employ techniques to come up with suggestions and questions about the work product and to spot anomalies
4. The objective of the review and its schedule are established to ensure a focused and efficient review
5. Participants are provided with access to the item being reviewed

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence in the review process of the activities that correspond to the descriptions?

a) 4 – 3 – 5 – 2 – 1

b) 4 – 5 – 3 – 1 – 2

c) 5 – 4 – 1 – 3 – 2

d) 5 – 4 – 3 – 2 – 1

Select ONE option.

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22. Which of the following activities in the test process makes the MOST use of test progress reports?

a) Test design

b) Test completion

c) Test analysis

d) Test planning

Select ONE option.

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23. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent feedback?

a) It improves the test process for future projects

b) It forces customers to prioritize their requirements based on agreed risks

c) It is the only way to measure the quality of changes

d) It helps avoid requirements misunderstandings

Select ONE option.

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24. One of the ‘principles of testing’ states that exhaustive testing is impossible. Which of the following is an example of addressing this principle in practice?

a) Creating test cases that cover every possible specified output

b) Documenting all possible test input variations and prioritizing these based on importance

c) Starting testing as early as possible with reviews and other static testing approaches

d) Using equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to generate test cases

Select ONE option.

Explanation / Rationale

The ‘exhaustive testing is impossible’ principle is concerned with the fact that it is not feasible to test every possible variation of test inputs in all different circumstances, except in trivial cases. Instead, testing utilizes test techniques, test case prioritization, and risk-based testing to sample from the set of possibilities and focus testing efforts.
a) Is not correct. The principle states that it is not feasible to test everything except in trivial cases. Testing everything would require testing every possible variation of test inputs in all different circumstances, which is generally infeasible as there will be a practically infinite number. Testing every possible specified output will not address this problem as the relationship between inputs and specified outputs can be different for each test object. Sometimes there may be a practically infinite number of possible specified outputs (e.g., when there are several variables representing real numbers), whereas at other times there may be just two specified outputs, such as with a single variable that can be either true or false
b) Is not correct. The principle states that it is not feasible to test every possible variation of test inputs in all different circumstances. This is because for non-trivial systems there is a practically infinite number. Therefore, in practice, documenting all possible test input variations would be impractical as it would take an infinite length of time
c) Is not correct. Starting testing as early as possible with reviews and other static testing approaches will not address the problem of there being too many possible test cases. The ‘early testing saves time and money’ principle is concerned with fixing defects early on to prevent the occurrence of subsequent defects in derived work products, thereby reducing costs and the likelihood of failures
d) Is correct. The use of equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to generate test cases is one way to address the principle as these test techniques provide a systematic way to derive a finite subset of all possible test cases

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25. Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed if the testing is focused on validation and is not being performed by testers?

a) Component testing

b) Component integration testing

c) System integration testing

d) Acceptance testing

Select ONE option.

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26. What is the MAIN difference between black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques?

a) The test object

b) The test level at which the test technique is used

c) The test basis

d) The software development lifecycle (SDLC) in which the test technique can be used

Select ONE option.

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27. Which of the following statements about branch testing is CORRECT?

a) If a program includes only unconditional branches, then 100% branch coverage can be achieved without executing any test cases

b) If the test cases exercise all unconditional branches in the code, then 100% branch coverage is achieved

c) If 100% statement coverage is achieved, then 100% branch coverage is also achieved

d) If 100% branch coverage is achieved, then all decision outcomes in each decision statement in the code are exercised

Select ONE option.

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28. You are testing a temperature control system for a horticultural cold storage facility. The system receives the temperature (in full degrees Celsius) as the input. If the temperature is between 0 and 2 degrees inclusive, the system displays the message “temperature OK”. For lower temperatures, the system displays the message "temperature too low" and for higher temperatures it displays the message “temperature too high”.

Using two-value boundary value analysis, which of the following sets of test inputs provides the highest level of boundary value coverage?

a) –1, 3

b) 0, 2

c) –1, 0, 2, 3

d) –2, 0, 2, 4

Select ONE option.

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29. Which of the following is NOT a valid purpose for a test report?

a) Tracking test progress and identifying areas that require further attention

b) Providing information on the tests executed, their results, and any issues or defects found

c) Providing information about each defect, such as the steps to reproduce it

d) Providing information on testing planned for the next period

Select ONE options.

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30. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test automation?

a) It provides coverage measures that are too complicated for humans to derive

b) It shares responsibility for the testing with the tool vendor

c) It removes the need for critical thinking when analyzing test results

d) It generates test cases from an analysis of the program code

Select ONE option.

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31. Which participant in the review process is responsible for ensuring that the review meetings run effectively and that everyone at the meetings can voice their opinions freely?

a) Manager

b) Moderator

c) Chairperson

d) Review Leader

Select ONE option.

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32. Your favorite bicycle daily rental store has just introduced a new Customer Relationship Management system and asked you, one of their most loyal members, to test it.
The implemented features are as follows:

• Anyone can rent a bicycle, but members receive a 20% discount
• However, if the return deadline is missed, the discount is no longer available
• After 15 rentals, members get a gift: a T-Shirt

Decision table describing the implemented features looks as follows:

Based ONLY on the feature description of the Customer Relationship Management system, which of the above rules describes an impossible situation?

a) R4

b) R2

c) R6

d) R8

Select ONE option.

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33. Which of the following BEST describes retrospectives?

a) Retrospectives allow team members to identify other team members who did not fully contribute to achieving quality as required by the whole-team approach

b) Retrospectives give testers an opportunity to identify activities that were successful so that these are retained when potential improvements are made in the future

c) Retrospectives are where agile team members are allowed to voice their concerns about management and customers in a blame-free environment

d) Retrospectives give agile team members a forum where they focus on discussing the plan and technical decisions for the next iteration

Select ONE option.

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34. Let the branch coverage metric be defined as BCov = (X / Y) * 100%.

What do X and Y represent in this formula?

a) X = number of decision outcomes exercised by the test cases Y = total number of decision outcomes in the code

b) X = number of conditional branches exercised by the test cases Y = total number of branches in the code

c) X = number of branches exercised by the test cases Y = total number of branches in the code

d) X = number of conditional branches exercised by the test cases Y = total number of decision outcomes in the code

Select ONE option.

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35. Given the following example defects:

i. Two different parts of the design specification disagree due to the complexity of the design
ii. A response time is too long and so makes users lose patience
iii. A path in the code cannot be reached during execution
iv. A variable is declared but never subsequently used in the program
v. The amount of memory needed by the program to generate a report is too high

Which of the following BEST identifies example defects that could be found by static testing (rather than dynamic testing)?

a) ii, v

b) iii, v

c) i, ii, iv

d) i, iii, iv

Select ONE option.

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36. The navigation system software has been updated due to it suggesting routes that break traffic laws, such as driving the wrong way down one-way streets. Which of the following BEST describes the testing that will be performed?

a) Only confirmation testing

b) Confirmation testing then regression testing

c) Only regression testing

d) Regression testing then confirmation testing

Select ONE option.

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37. The following decision table contains the rules for determining the risk of atherosclerosis.

You designed the test cases with the following test input data:

TC1: Cholesterol = 125 mg/dl Blood pressure = 141 mm Hg
TC2: Cholesterol = 200 mg/dl Blood pressure = 201 mm Hg
TC3: Cholesterol = 124 mg/dl Blood pressure = 201 mm Hg
TC4: Cholesterol = 109 mg/dl Blood pressure = 200 mm Hg
TC5: Cholesterol = 201 mg/dl Blood pressure = 140 mm Hg

What is the decision table coverage achieved by these test cases?

a) 40%

b) 60%

c) 80%

d) 100%

Select ONE option.

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38. Which of the following BEST describes an example of how configuration management (CM) supports testing?

a) Having the version number of the environment, the CM tool can retrieve the version numbers of libraries, stubs and drivers used in that environment

b) Having a record of the values of the test inputs, the CM tool can execute the test cases for these configurations and calculate test coverage

c) Having data about the date of purchase of a software license, the CM tool automatically generates information about the fact that the product license is coming to an end

d) Having the version number of the test case, the CM tool can automatically generate test data for this test case

Select ONE option.

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39. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independence of testing?

a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team

b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines

c) An independent test team can work separately from the developers, need not be distracted with project requirement changes, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system

d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer

Select ONE option.

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40. Which of the following is MOST likely to describe a task performed by someone in a test management role?

a) Evaluate test basis and test object

b) Define test environment requirements

c) Assess testability of test object

d) Create test completion report

Select ONE option.

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