Exam 5 – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 03, 2024 By

Admin

Exam 5

Name

1 / 40

1. Which of the following statements about the chosen software development lifecycle is CORRECT?

a) If agile software development is used, system test automation replaces the need for regression testing

b) If a sequential development model is used, then the dynamic testing is typically restricted to later in the lifecycle

c) If an iterative development model is used, then component testing is typically performed manually by developers

d) If an incremental development model is used, then static testing is done in early increments and dynamic testing in later increments

Select ONE option.

2 / 40

2. Which of the following is true about exploratory testing?

a) Test cases are designed before the exploratory testing session starts

b) The tester can perform test execution, but cannot perform test design

c) Exploratory testing results are good predictors of the number of remaining defects

d) During exploratory testing the tester may use black-box test techniques

Select ONE option.

3 / 40

3. You are testing a PIN validator, which accepts valid PINs and rejects invalid PINs. A PIN is a sequence of digits. A PIN is valid if it consists of four digits, at least two of which are different. You have identified the following valid equivalence partitions:

Variable: PIN code length

• The partition “length correct” - four-digit PINs
• The partition “length incorrect” - PINs with length other than 4

Variable: Number of different digits

• The partition “number of different digits correct” - PINs with at least two different digits
• The partition “number of different digits incorrect” - PINs with all digits being the same

Which of the following is a MINIMUM set of input test data that covers all identified equivalence partitions?

a) 1, 1111, 1234

b) 111, 1111, 1112

c) 1, 12345

d) 12345, 1234

Select ONE option.

4 / 40

4. Given the following descriptions of review activities:

1. Detected anomalies are deliberated upon, and determinations are reached regarding their status, ownership, and any further steps needed
2. Issues are recorded, and any needed updates are addressed prior to the acceptance of the work product
3. Reviewers employ techniques to come up with suggestions and questions about the work product and to spot anomalies
4. The objective of the review and its schedule are established to ensure a focused and efficient review
5. Participants are provided with access to the item being reviewed

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence in the review process of the activities that correspond to the descriptions?

a) 4 – 3 – 5 – 2 – 1

b) 4 – 5 – 3 – 1 – 2

c) 5 – 4 – 1 – 3 – 2

d) 5 – 4 – 3 – 2 – 1

Select ONE option.

5 / 40

5. Which of the following is an example of how product risk analysis influences thoroughness and scope of testing?

a) The test manager monitors and reports the level of all known risks on a daily basis so the stakeholders can make an informed decision on the release date

b) One of the identified risks was "Lack of support of open-source databases", so the team decided to integrate the system with an open-source database

c) During the quantitative risk analysis, the team estimated the total level of all identified risks and reported it as the total residual risk before testing

d) Risk assessment revealed a very high level of performance risks, so it was decided to perform detailed performance efficiency testing early in the SDLC

Select ONE option.

6 / 40

6. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independence of testing?

a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team

b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines

c) An independent test team can work separately from the developers, need not be distracted with project requirement changes, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system

d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer

Select ONE option.

7 / 40

7. You need to update one of the automated test scripts to be in line with a new requirement. Which process indicates that you create a new version of the test script in the test repository?

a) Traceability management

b) Maintenance testing

c) Configuration management

d) Requirements engineering

Select ONE option.

8 / 40

8. You are testing a form that verifies the correctness of the length of the password given as input. The form accepts a password with the correct length and rejects a password that is too short or too long. The password length is correct if it has between 6 and 12 characters inclusive. Otherwise, it is considered incorrect.

At first, the form is empty (password length = 0). You apply boundary value analysis to the “password length” variable.

Your set of test cases achieves 100% 2-value boundary value coverage. The team decided that due to the high risk of this component, test cases should be added to ensure 100% 3-value boundary value coverage.

Which additional password lengths should be tested to achieve this?

a) 4, 5, 13, 14

b) 7, 11

c) 1, 5, 13

d) 1, 4, 7, 11, 14

Select ONE option.

9 / 40

9. What does the test pyramid model show?

a) That tests may have different priorities

b) That tests may have different granularity

c) That tests may require different coverage criteria

d) That tests may depend on other tests

Select ONE option.

10 / 40

10. At the beginning of each iteration, the team estimates the amount of work (in person-days) they will need to complete during the iteration. Let E(n) be the estimated amount of work for iteration n, and let A(n) be the actual amount of work done in iteration n. From the third iteration, the team uses the following estimation model based on extrapolation:

The graph shows the estimated and actual amount of work for the first four iterations.

What is the estimated amount of work for iteration #5?

a) 10.5 person-days

b) 8.25 person-days

c) 6.5 person-days

d) 9.4 person-days

Select ONE option.

11 / 40

11. Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and debugging?

a) Testing causes failures while debugging fixes failures

b) Testing is a negative activity while debugging is a positive activity

c) Testing determines that defects exist while debugging removes defects

d) Testing finds the cause of defects while debugging fixes the cause of defects

Select ONE option.

12 / 40

12. The following is a list of the work products produced in the SDLC.

i. Business requirements
ii. Schedule
iii. Test budget
iv. Third-party executable code
v. User stories and their acceptance criteria

Which of them can be reviewed?

a) i and iv can be reviewed

b) i, ii, iii and iv can be reviewed

c) i, ii, iii, and v can be reviewed

d) iii, iv, v can be reviewed

Select ONE option.

13 / 40

13. Consider the following defect report for a web-based shopping application:

What is the MOST important information that is missing from this report?

a) Name of the tester and date of the report

b) Test environment elements and their version numbers

c) Identification of the test object

d) Impact on the interests of stakeholders

Select ONE option.

14 / 40

14. Let the branch coverage metric be defined as BCov = (X / Y) * 100%.

What do X and Y represent in this formula?

a) X = number of decision outcomes exercised by the test cases Y = total number of decision outcomes in the code

b) X = number of conditional branches exercised by the test cases Y = total number of branches in the code

c) X = number of branches exercised by the test cases Y = total number of branches in the code

d) X = number of conditional branches exercised by the test cases Y = total number of decision outcomes in the code

Select ONE option.

15 / 40

15. Which of the following is the BEST example of how traceability supports testing?

a) Performing the impact analysis of a change will give information about the completion of the tests

b) Analyzing the traceability between test cases and test results will give information about the estimated level of residual risk

c) Performing the impact analysis of a change will help selecting the right test cases for regression testing

d) Analyzing the traceability between the test basis, the test objects and the test cases will help in selecting test data to achieve the assumed coverage of the test object

Select ONE option.

16 / 40

16. How do testers add value to iteration and release planning?

a) Testers determine the priority of the user stories to be developed

b) Testers focus only on the functional aspects of the system to be tested

c) Testers participate in the detailed risk identification and risk assessment of user stories

d) Testers guarantee the release of high-quality software through early test design during the release planning

Select ONE option.

17 / 40

17. Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between decision table testing and branch testing?

a) In decision table testing, the test cases are derived from the decision statements in the code. In branch testing, the test cases are derived from knowledge of the control flow of the test object.

b) In decision table testing, the test cases are derived from the specification that describes the business logic. In branch testing the test cases are based on anticipation of potential defects in the source code.

c) In decision table testing, the test cases are derived from knowledge of the control flow of the test object. In branch testing, test cases are derived from the specification that describes the business logic.

d) In decision table testing, the test cases are independent of how the software is implemented. In branch testing, test cases can be created only after the design or implementation of the code.

Select ONE option.

18 / 40

18. Which of these statements is NOT a factor that contributes to successful reviews?

a) Participants should dedicate adequate time for the review

b) Splitting large work products into small parts to make the required effort less intense

c) Participants should avoid behaviors that might indicate boredom, exasperation, or hostility to other participants

d) Failures found should be acknowledged, appreciated, and handled objectively

Select ONE option.

19 / 40

19. Which of the following statements about the independence of testing is CORRECT?

a) Independent testers will find defects due to their different technical perspective from developers, but their independence may lead to an adversarial relationship with the developers

b) Developers’ familiarity with their own code means they only find a few defects in it, however their shared software background with testers means these defects would also be found by the testers

c) Independent testing requires testers who are outside the developer’s team and ideally from outside the organization, however these testers find it difficult to understand the application domain

d) Testers from outside the developer’s team are more independent than testers from within the team, but the testers from within the team are more likely to be blamed for delays in product release

Select ONE option.

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. The primary benefit of independence in testing is that testers are more likely to identify different types of failures and defects compared to developers, due to their varied backgrounds, technical viewpoints, and potential biases, including cognitive bias. However, the main disadvantage of independence in testing is that testers may become isolated from the development team, leading to communication problems, a lack of collaboration, and potentially an adversarial relationship, with testers being blamed for delays and bottlenecks in the release process
b) Is not correct. A developer’s familiarity with the code does not mean that they rarely find defects in it, instead this familiarity means they can efficiently find many defects in their own code. And, rather than developers and testers having a shared background, developers having a different background to testers is normally cited as the reason that testers and developers find different kinds of defects
c) Is not correct. Testing can be conducted at different levels of independence, ranging from no independence for the author to very high independence for testers from outside the organization. In most projects, multiple levels of independence are utilized, with developers performing component and component integration testing, the test team performing system and system integration testing, and business representatives performing acceptance testing. So, testers can be in the developer’s team and do not need to come from outside the organization. Knowledge of the application domain will change from case-to-case and is not dependent on the level of independence
d) Is not correct. Testing can be conducted at different levels of independence, ranging from no independence for the author to very high independence for testers from outside the organization, with testers from outside the developer’s team generally more independent than testers from within the team. However, there is more reason to believe that testers from outside the team are likely to be more isolated from the developers and so are more likely to be blamed for delays in product release

20 / 40

20. During risk analysis the team considered the following risk: “The system allows too high a discount for a customer”. The team estimated the risk impact to be very high.

What can one say about the risk likelihood?

a) It is also very high. High risk impact always implies high risk likelihood

b) It is very low. High risk impact always implies low risk likelihood

c) One cannot say anything about risk likelihood. Risk impact and risk likelihood are independent.

d) Risk likelihood is not important with such a high-risk impact. One does not need to define it.

Select ONE option.

21 / 40

21. Which TWO of the following statements provide the BEST rationale for using exploratory testing?

a) Testers have not been allocated enough time for test design and test execution

b) The existing test strategy requires that testers use formal, black-box test techniques

c) The specification is written in a formal language that can be processed by a tool

d) Testers are the members of an agile team and have good programming skills

e) Testers are experienced in the business domain and have good analytical skills

Select TWO options.

22 / 40

22. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent feedback?

a) It improves the test process for future projects

b) It forces customers to prioritize their requirements based on agreed risks

c) It is the only way to measure the quality of changes

d) It helps avoid requirements misunderstandings

Select ONE option.

23 / 40

23. Which test activity involves working with test data requirements, test conditions, test environment requirements and test cases?

a) Test design

b) Test execution

c) Test analysis

d) Test implementation

Select ONE option.

24 / 40

24. Given the following test tasks:

1. Derive test cases from test conditions
2. Identify reusable testware
3. Organize test cases into test procedures
4. Evaluate test basis and test object

And the following test activities:

A. Test analysis
B. Test design
C. Test implementation
D. Test completion

Which of the following BEST matches the tasks with the activities?

a) 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C

b) 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A

c) 1C, 2A, 3B, 4D

d) 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B

Select ONE option.

25 / 40

25. W A developer was asked to implement the following business rule:

You design the test cases using 2-value boundary value analysis.

Which of the following sets of test inputs achieves the greatest coverage?

a) 100, 150, 200, 201

b) 99, 100, 200, 201

c) 98, 99, 100, 101

d) 101, 150, 199, 200

Select ONE option.

26 / 40

26. Your organization’s test strategy suggests that once a system is going to be retired, data migration shall be tested. As part of what test type is this testing MOST likely to be performed?

a) Maintenance testing

b) Regression testing

c) Component testing

d) Integration testing

Select ONE option.

27 / 40

27. You are preparing a test execution schedule for executing seven test cases TC 1 to TC 7.

The following figure includes the priorities of these test cases (1=highest priority, 3 = lowest priority).

The figure also shows the dependencies between test cases using arrows. For instance, the arrow from TC 4 to TC 5 means that TC 5 can only be executed if TC 4 was previously executed.

Which test case should be executed sixth?

a) TC 3

b) TC 5

c) TC 6

d) TC 2

Select ONE option.

28 / 40

28. You test a system whose lifecycle is modeled by the state transition diagram shown below. The system starts in the INIT state and ends its operation in the OFF state.

What is the MINIMAL number of test cases to achieve valid transitions coverage?

a) 4

b) 2

c) 7

d) 3

Select ONE option.

29 / 40

29. Which of the following is an example of how product risk analysis may influence the thoroughness and scope of testing?

a) Continuous risk monitoring allows us to identify emerging risk as soon as possible

b) Risk identification allows us to implement risk mitigation activities and reduce the risk level

c) The assessed risk level helps us to select the rigor of testing

d) Risk analysis allows us to derive coverage items

Select ONE option.

30 / 40

30. Given the following test tool categories:

i. Collaboration tools
ii. DevOps tools
iii. Management tools
iv. Non-functional testing tools
v. Test design and implementation tools

Tools from which of the categories are MOST likely to facilitate test execution?

a) i, v

b) ii, iv

c) i, iii, v

d) ii, iii, iv

Select ONE options.

31 / 40

31. Which of the following test activities are MOST likely to involve the application of boundary value analysis and equivalence partitioning?

a) Test implementation

b) Test design

c) Test execution

d) Test monitoring

e) Test analysis

Select TWO options.

32 / 40

32. Which of the following is an advantage of the whole-team approach?

a) It allows team members to take on any role at any time

b) It only needs a single team to support the complete development project

c) It embeds business representatives alongside developers in the same team

d) It generates a team synergy that benefits the entire project

Select ONE option.

33 / 40

33. Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?

a) Ensure management participate as reviewers

b) Split large work products into smaller parts

c) Set reviewer evaluation as an objective

d) Plan to cover one document per review

Select ONE option.

34 / 40

34. Which collaborative user story writing practice enables the team to achieve a collective understanding of what needs to be delivered?

a) Planning poker, so that a team can achieve consensus on the effort needed to implement a user story

b) Reviews, so that a team can detect inconsistencies and contradictions in a user story

c) Iteration planning, so that user stories with the highest business value for a customer can be prioritized for implementation

d) Conversation, so that team members can understand how the software will be used

Select ONE option.

35 / 40

35. One of the ‘principles of testing’ states that exhaustive testing is impossible. Which of the following is an example of addressing this principle in practice?

a) Creating test cases that cover every possible specified output

b) Documenting all possible test input variations and prioritizing these based on importance

c) Starting testing as early as possible with reviews and other static testing approaches

d) Using equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to generate test cases

Select ONE option.

Explanation / Rationale

The ‘exhaustive testing is impossible’ principle is concerned with the fact that it is not feasible to test every possible variation of test inputs in all different circumstances, except in trivial cases. Instead, testing utilizes test techniques, test case prioritization, and risk-based testing to sample from the set of possibilities and focus testing efforts.
a) Is not correct. The principle states that it is not feasible to test everything except in trivial cases. Testing everything would require testing every possible variation of test inputs in all different circumstances, which is generally infeasible as there will be a practically infinite number. Testing every possible specified output will not address this problem as the relationship between inputs and specified outputs can be different for each test object. Sometimes there may be a practically infinite number of possible specified outputs (e.g., when there are several variables representing real numbers), whereas at other times there may be just two specified outputs, such as with a single variable that can be either true or false
b) Is not correct. The principle states that it is not feasible to test every possible variation of test inputs in all different circumstances. This is because for non-trivial systems there is a practically infinite number. Therefore, in practice, documenting all possible test input variations would be impractical as it would take an infinite length of time
c) Is not correct. Starting testing as early as possible with reviews and other static testing approaches will not address the problem of there being too many possible test cases. The ‘early testing saves time and money’ principle is concerned with fixing defects early on to prevent the occurrence of subsequent defects in derived work products, thereby reducing costs and the likelihood of failures
d) Is correct. The use of equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to generate test cases is one way to address the principle as these test techniques provide a systematic way to derive a finite subset of all possible test cases

36 / 40

36. Given the following task descriptions:

1. The quality characteristics to be evaluated and the exit criteria are selected
2. Everyone has access to the work product
3. Anomalies are identified in the work product
4. Anomalies are discussed

And the following review activities

A. Individual review
B. Review initiation
C. Planning
D. Communication and analysis

Which of the following BEST matches the task descriptions and activities?

a) 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A

b) 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A

c) 1C, 2A, 3B, 4D

d) 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D

Select ONE option.

37 / 40

37. You are testing a temperature control system for a horticultural cold storage facility. The system receives the temperature (in full degrees Celsius) as the input. If the temperature is between 0 and 2 degrees inclusive, the system displays the message “temperature OK”. For lower temperatures, the system displays the message "temperature too low" and for higher temperatures it displays the message “temperature too high”.

Using two-value boundary value analysis, which of the following sets of test inputs provides the highest level of boundary value coverage?

a) –1, 3

b) 0, 2

c) –1, 0, 2, 3

d) –2, 0, 2, 4

Select ONE option.

38 / 40

38. You work as a tester in a project on a mobile application for food ordering for one of your clients. The client sent you a list of requirements. One of them, with high priority, says

“The order must be processed in less than 10 seconds in 95% of the cases”.

You created a set of test cases in which a number of random orders were made, the processing time measured, and the test results were checked against the requirements.

What test type did you perform?

a) Functional, because the test cases cover the user’s business requirement for the system

b) Non-functional, because the measure the system’s performance

c) Functional, because the test cases interact with the user interface

d) Structural, because we need to know the internal structure of the program to measure the order processing time

Select ONE option.

39 / 40

39. Which of the following activities in the test process makes the MOST use of test progress reports?

a) Test design

b) Test completion

c) Test analysis

d) Test planning

Select ONE option.

40 / 40

40. Given the following testware:

i. Test completion report
ii. Data held in a database used for test inputs and expected results
iii. The list of elements needed to build the test environment
iv. Documented sequences of test cases in execution order
v. Test cases

Which of the following BEST shows the testware produced as a result of performing test implementation?

a) ii, iv

b) iii, v

c) i, ii, v

d) i, iii, iv

Select ONE option.

0%