ISTQB Learning

Test your knowledge

0%
35
Created on By Admin

Exam 5

1 / 40

1. Which of the following pieces of information contained in a test progress report is the LEAST useful for business representatives?

Select ONE option.

2 / 40

2. Tools from which of the following categories help with the organization of test cases, detected defects and configuration management?

 

Select ONE option.

3 / 40

3. Which TWO of the following statements provide the BEST rationale for using exploratory testing?

Select TWO options.

4 / 40

4. Which of the following BEST describes the way acceptance criteria can be documented?

Select ONE option.

5 / 40

5. Which of the following is a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

Select ONE option.

6 / 40

6. Which of the following are advantages of DevOps?

i. Faster product release and faster time to market
ii. Increases the need for repetitive manual testing
iii. Constant availability of executable software
iv. Reduction in the number of regression tests associated with code refactoring
v. Setting up the test automation framework is inexpensive since everything is automated

Select ONE option.

7 / 40

7. Which of the following BEST fits as an element of the checklist used in checklist-based testing?

Select ONE option.

8 / 40

8. During risk analysis the team considered the following risk: “The system allows too high a discount for a customer”. The team estimated the risk impact to be very high.

What can one say about the risk likelihood?

Select ONE option.

9 / 40

9. Consider the following test categories (1-4) and agile testing quadrants (A-D):

1. Usability testing
2. Component testing
3. Functional testing
4. Reliability testing

A. Agile testing quadrant Q1: technology facing, supporting the development team
B. Agile testing quadrant Q2: business facing, supporting the development team
C. Agile testing quadrant Q3: business facing, critique the product
D. Agile testing quadrant Q4: technology facing, critique the product

How do the following test categories map onto the agile testing quadrants?

Select ONE option.

10 / 40

10. Which work product can be used by an agile team to show the amount of work that has been completed and the amount of total work remaining for a given iteration?

Select ONE option.

11 / 40

11. Given the following descriptions of review activities:

1. Detected anomalies are deliberated upon, and determinations are reached regarding their status, ownership, and any further steps needed
2. Issues are recorded, and any needed updates are addressed prior to the acceptance of the work product
3. Reviewers employ techniques to come up with suggestions and questions about the work product and to spot anomalies
4. The objective of the review and its schedule are established to ensure a focused and efficient review
5. Participants are provided with access to the item being reviewed

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence in the review process of the activities that correspond to the descriptions?

Select ONE option.

12 / 40

12. What is the relationship between the testing quadrants, test levels and test types?

Select ONE option.

13 / 40

13. You perform system testing of an e-commerce web application and are provided with the following requirement:

REQ 05-017. If the total cost of purchases exceeds $100, the customer gets a 5% discount on subsequent purchases. Otherwise, the customer does not receive a discount.

Which test techniques will be MOST helpful in designing test cases based on this requirement?

Select ONE option.

14 / 40

14. Which of the following statements BEST describes the acceptance test-driven development (ATDD) approach?

Select ONE option.

15 / 40

15. Given the following test tasks:

1. Derive test cases from test conditions
2. Identify reusable testware
3. Organize test cases into test procedures
4. Evaluate test basis and test object

And the following test activities:

A. Test analysis
B. Test design
C. Test implementation
D. Test completion

Which of the following BEST matches the tasks with the activities?

Select ONE option.

16 / 40

16. For a given risk, its risk level is $1,000 and its risk likelihood is estimated as 50%.

What is the risk impact?

Select ONE options.

17 / 40

17. Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?

Select ONE option.

18 / 40

18. Which of the following is a typical test objective?

Select ONE option.

19 / 40

19. Which of the following is NOT an example of how configuration management supports testing?

Select ONE option.

20 / 40

20. Given the following benefits and drawbacks of the independence of testing:

i. The testers work in a different location from the developers
ii. Testers question the assumptions programmers make while writing code
iii. A confrontational dynamic has been established between testers and developers
iv. Developers have convinced themselves that testers are mostly accountable for quality
v. Testers have different biases than those held by the developers

Which are MOST likely to be considered benefits?

Select ONE option.

21 / 40

21. Given the following review types:

1. Technical review
2. Informal review
3. Inspection
4. Walkthrough

And the following descriptions:

A. Includes objectives such as gaining consensus, generating new ideas, and motivating authors to improve
B. Includes objectives such as educating reviewers, gaining consensus, generating new ideas and detecting potential defects
C. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it requires metrics collection to support process improvement
D. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it generates no formal documented output

Which of the following BEST matches the review types and the descriptions?

Select ONE option.

22 / 40

22. Your test suite achieved 100% statement coverage. What is the consequence of this fact?

Select ONE option.

23 / 40

23. Which of the following BEST describes an example of how configuration management (CM) supports testing?

Select ONE option.

24 / 40

24. Which of the following BEST describes how using checklist-based testing can result in increased coverage?

Select ONE option.

25 / 40

25. Which of the following is MOST likely to impact how testing is performed for a given test object?

Select ONE option.

26 / 40

26. You are working on a project to develop a system to analyze driving test results. You have been asked to design test cases based on the following decision table.

What test data will show that there are contradictory rules in the decision table?

Select ONE option.

27 / 40

27. According to the testing quadrants model, which of the following falls into quadrant Q1 (“technology facing” and “support the team”)?

Select ONE option.

28 / 40

28. In many software organizations the test department is called the Quality Assurance (QA) department. Is this sentence correct or not and why?

Select ONE option.

29 / 40

29. The following list contains risks that have been identified for a new software product to be developed:

i. Management moves two experienced testers to another project
ii. The system does not comply with functional safety standards
iii. System response time exceeds user requirements
iv. Stakeholders have inaccurate expectations
v. Disabled people have problems when using the system

Which of them are project risks?

Select ONE option.

30 / 40

30. Which of the following is the BEST example of how traceability supports testing?

Select ONE option.

31 / 40

31. Your team uses planning poker to estimate the test effort for a newly required feature. There is a rule in your team that if there is no time to reach full agreement and the variation in the results is small, applying rules like “accept the number with the most votes” can be applied.
After two rounds, the consensus was not reached, so the third round was initiated. You can see the test estimation results in the table below.

Which of the following is the BEST example of the next step?

Select ONE option.

32 / 40

32. Which TWO of the following options are common metrics used for reporting on the quality level of the test object?

Select TWO options.

33 / 40

33. Which TWO of the following options are the exit criteria for testing a system?

Select TWO options.

34 / 40

34. You want to apply branch testing to the code represented by the following control flow graph.

How many coverage items do you need to test?

Select ONE option.

35 / 40

35. You are testing a sort function that gets a set of numbers as input and returns the same set of numbers sorted in ascending order. The log from the test execution looks as follows.

Which of the following provides the BEST description of the failure that can be used in a defect report?

Select ONE option.

36 / 40

36. The team wants to estimate the time needed for one tester to execute four test cases for a software component. The team has gathered the following measures of the effort used to execute a single test case:

• Best-case scenario: 1 hour
• Worst-case scenario: 8 hours
• Most likely scenario: 3 hours

Given that the three-point estimation technique is being used, what is the final estimate of the time needed to execute all four test cases?

Select ONE option.

37 / 40

37. You have just started designing test cases for the following user story.

In all test cases the precondition is as follows: there are only two products available, products A and B. Product A costs $100 and product B costs $110.

Which of the following is the BEST example of a test case for this user story?

Select ONE option.

38 / 40

38. Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur as a result of a retrospective?

Select ONE option.

39 / 40

39. Given the following test tool categories:

i. Collaboration tools
ii. DevOps tools
iii. Management tools
iv. Non-functional testing tools
v. Test design and implementation tools

Tools from which of the categories are MOST likely to facilitate test execution?

Select ONE options.

40 / 40

40. Which of the following statements describe a valid test objective?

Select ONE option.

0%

Scroll to top