Exam 5 – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 03, 2024 By

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Exam 5

Name

1 / 40

1. What is the MAIN difference between black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques?

a) The test object

b) The test level at which the test technique is used

c) The test basis

d) The software development lifecycle (SDLC) in which the test technique can be used

Select ONE option.

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2. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a test plan?

a) To define test data and expected results for component tests and component integration tests

b) To define as exit criteria from the component test level that “100% statement coverage and 100% branch coverage must be achieved”

c) To describe what fields the test progress report shall contain and what should be the form of this report

d) To explain why system integration testing will be excluded from testing, although the test strategy requires this test level

Select ONE option.

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3. Which of the following is NOT a valid purpose for a test report?

a) Tracking test progress and identifying areas that require further attention

b) Providing information on the tests executed, their results, and any issues or defects found

c) Providing information about each defect, such as the steps to reproduce it

d) Providing information on testing planned for the next period

Select ONE options.

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4. Which participant in the review process is responsible for ensuring that the review meetings run effectively and that everyone at the meetings can voice their opinions freely?

a) Manager

b) Moderator

c) Chairperson

d) Review Leader

Select ONE option.

5 / 40

5. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independence of testing?

a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team

b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines

c) An independent test team can work separately from the developers, need not be distracted with project requirement changes, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system

d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer

Select ONE option.

6 / 40

6. Which of the following statements BEST describes the acceptance test-driven development (ATDD) approach?

a) In ATDD, acceptance criteria are typically created based on the given/when/then format

b) In ATDD, test cases are mainly created at component testing and are code-oriented

c) In ATDD, tests are created, based on acceptance criteria to drive the development of the related software

d) in ATDD, tests are based on the desired behavior of the software, which makes it easier for team members to understand them

Select ONE option.

7 / 40

7. The following list contains risks that have been identified for a new software product to be developed:

i. Management moves two experienced testers to another project
ii. The system does not comply with functional safety standards
iii. System response time exceeds user requirements
iv. Stakeholders have inaccurate expectations
v. Disabled people have problems when using the system

Which of them are project risks?

a) i, iv are project risks

b) iv, v are project risks

c) i, iii are project risks

d) ii, v are project risks

Select ONE option.

8 / 40

8. Which TWO of the following tasks belong MAINLY to a testing role?

a) Configure test environments

b) Maintain the product backlog

c) Design solutions to new requirements

d) Create the test plan

e) Report on achieved coverage

Select TWO options.

9 / 40

9. Given the following test tool categories:

i. Collaboration tools
ii. DevOps tools
iii. Management tools
iv. Non-functional testing tools
v. Test design and implementation tools

Tools from which of the categories are MOST likely to facilitate test execution?

a) i, v

b) ii, iv

c) i, iii, v

d) ii, iii, iv

Select ONE options.

10 / 40

10. Which of the following are product risks?

a) Scope creep

b) Poor architecture

c) Cost-cutting

d) Poor tool support

e) Response time too long

Select TWO options.

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11. Which of the following is NOT an example of the shift left approach?

a) Reviewing the user requirements before they are formally accepted by the stakeholders

b) Writing a component test before the corresponding code is written

c) Executing a performance efficiency test for a component during component testing

d) Writing a test script before setting up the configuration management process

Select ONE option.

12 / 40

12. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a) Regression tests increase in number as the project progresses, whereas the number of confirmation tests decreases as the project progresses

b) Regression tests are created and run when the test object is fixed, whereas confirmation tests are run whenever the test object is enhanced

c) Regression testing is concerned with checking that the operational environment remains unchanged, whereas confirmation testing is concerned with testing changes to the test object

d) Regression testing is concerned with adverse effects in unchanged code, whereas confirmation testing is concerned with testing changed code

Select ONE option.

13 / 40

13. Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed if the testing is focused on validation and is not being performed by testers?

a) Component testing

b) Component integration testing

c) System integration testing

d) Acceptance testing

Select ONE option.

14 / 40

14. Consider the following test categories (1-4) and agile testing quadrants (A-D):

1. Usability testing
2. Component testing
3. Functional testing
4. Reliability testing

A. Agile testing quadrant Q1: technology facing, supporting the development team
B. Agile testing quadrant Q2: business facing, supporting the development team
C. Agile testing quadrant Q3: business facing, critique the product
D. Agile testing quadrant Q4: technology facing, critique the product

How do the following test categories map onto the agile testing quadrants?

a) 1C, 2A, 3B, 4D

b) 1D, 2A, 3C, 4B

c) 1C, 2B, 3D, 4A

d) 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A

Select ONE option.

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15. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent stakeholder feedback?

a) Managers are aware of which developers are less productive

b) It allows project managers to prioritize their stakeholder interactions

c) It facilitates early communication of potential quality issues

d) End users better understand why the delivery of the work product is delayed

Select ONE option.

16 / 40

16. Which of the following is NOT anticipated by the tester while applying error guessing?

a) The developer misunderstood the formula in the user story for calculating the interest

b) The developer wrote “FA = A*(1+IR^N)” instead of “FA = A*(1+IR)^N” in the source code

c) The developer missed the seminar on new compound interest rate legislation

d) The accuracy of the interest calculated by the system is not precise enough

Select ONE option.

17 / 40

17. What is the relationship between the testing quadrants, test levels and test types?

a) Testing quadrants represent particular combinations of test levels and test types, defining their location in the software development lifecycle

b) Testing quadrants describe the degree of granularity of individual test types performed at each test level

c) Testing quadrants assign the test types that can be performed to the test levels

d) Testing quadrants group test levels and test types by several criteria such as targeting specific stakeholders

Select ONE option.

18 / 40

18. You have been assigned as a tester to a team producing a new system incrementally. You have noticed that no changes have been made to the existing regression test cases for several iterations and no new regression defects were identified. Your manager is happy, but you are not. Which testing principle explains your skepticism?

a) Tests wear out

b) Absence-of-errors fallacy

c) Defects cluster together

d) Exhaustive testing is impossible

Select ONE option.

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19. Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?

a) Behavior-Driven Development

b) Test Level Driven Development

c) Function-Driven Development

d) Performance-Driven Development

Select ONE option.

20 / 40

20. Which of the following skills (i-v) are the MOST important skills of a tester?

i. Having domain knowledge
ii. Creating a product vision
iii. Being a good team player
iv. Planning and organizing the work of the team
v. Critical thinking

a) ii and iv are important

b) i, iii and v are important

c) i, ii and v are important

d) iii and iv are important

Select ONE option.

21 / 40

21. Which of the arguments below would you use to convince your manager to organize retrospectives at the end of each release cycle?

a) Retrospectives are very popular these days and clients would appreciate it if we added them to our processes

b) Organizing retrospectives will save the organization money because without them end user representatives do not provide immediate feedback about the product

c) Process weaknesses identified during the retrospective can be analyzed and serve as a to do list for the organization’s continuous process improvement program

d) Retrospectives embrace five values including courage and respect, which are crucial to maintain continuous improvement in the organization

Select ONE option.

22 / 40

22. In your project there has been a delay in the release of a brand-new application and test execution started late, but you have very detailed domain knowledge and good analytical skills. The full list of requirements has not yet been shared with the team, but management is asking for some test results to be presented.

Which test technique fits BEST in this situation?

a) Checklist-based testing

b) Error guessing

c) Exploratory testing

d) Branch testing

Select ONE option.

23 / 40

23. You received the following defect report from the developers stating that the anomaly described in this test report is not reproducible.

Application hangs up
2022-May-03 – John Doe – Rejected
The application hangs up after entering “Test input: $ä” in the Name field on the new user creation screen. Tried to log off, log in with test_admin01 account, same issue. Tried with other test admin accounts, same issue. No error message received; log (see attached) contains fatal error notification. Based on the test case TC-1305, the application should accept the provided input and create the user. Please fix with high priority, this feature is related to REQ-0012, which is a critical new business requirement.

What critical information is MISSING from this test report that would have been useful for the developers?

a) Expected result and actual result

b) References and defect status

c) Test environment and test item

d) Priority and severity

Select ONE option.

24 / 40

24. Which of the following is a characteristic of experience-based test techniques?

a) Test cases are created based on detailed design information

b) Items tested within the interface code section are used to measure coverage

c) The techniques heavily rely on the tester’s knowledge of the software and the business domain

d) The test cases are used to identify deviations from the requirements

Select ONE option.

25 / 40

25. Given the following roles in reviews:

1. Scribe
2. Review leader
3. Facilitator
4. Manager

And the following responsibilities in reviews:

A. Ensures the effective running of review meetings and the setting up a safe review environment
B. Records review information, such as decisions and new anomalies found during the review meeting
C. Decides what is to be reviewed and provides resources, such as staff and time for the review
D. Takes overall responsibility for the review such as organizing when and where the review will take place

Which of the following BEST matches the roles and responsibilities?

a) 1A, 2B, 3D, 4C

b) 1A, 2C, 3B, 4D

c) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C

d) 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A

Select ONE option.

26 / 40

26. How can white-box testing be useful in support of black-box testing?

a) White-box coverage measures can help testers evaluate black-box tests in terms of the code coverage achieved by these black-box tests

b) White-box coverage analysis can help testers identify unreachable fragments of the source code

c) Branch testing subsumes black-box test techniques, so achieving full branch coverage guarantees achieving full coverage of any black-box technique

d) White-box test techniques can provide coverage items for black-box techniques

Select ONE option.

27 / 40

27. You are testing a sort function that gets a set of numbers as input and returns the same set of numbers sorted in ascending order. The log from the test execution looks as follows.

Which of the following provides the BEST description of the failure that can be used in a defect report?

a) The system fails to sort several sets of numbers. Reference: TC3, TC4, TC5.

b) The system seems to disregard duplicates while sorting. Reference: TC3, TC4, TC5.

c) The system fails to sort negative numbers. Reference: TC4, TC5.

d) TC3, TC4 and TC5 have defects (duplicate input data) and should be corrected.

Select ONE option.

28 / 40

28. Which of the following BEST define EXIT criteria in a testing project?

a) The budget is approved

b) Budget runs out

c) Test basis is available

d) Test cases achieved at least 80% statement coverage

e) All test analysts are ISTQB certified at the Foundation Level

Select TWO options.

29 / 40

29. Which of the following statements about branch testing is CORRECT?

a) If a program includes only unconditional branches, then 100% branch coverage can be achieved without executing any test cases

b) If the test cases exercise all unconditional branches in the code, then 100% branch coverage is achieved

c) If 100% statement coverage is achieved, then 100% branch coverage is also achieved

d) If 100% branch coverage is achieved, then all decision outcomes in each decision statement in the code are exercised

Select ONE option.

30 / 40

30. Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?

a) Ensure management participate as reviewers

b) Split large work products into smaller parts

c) Set reviewer evaluation as an objective

d) Plan to cover one document per review

Select ONE option.

31 / 40

31. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent stakeholder feedback?

a) Changes to requirements are understood and implemented earlier

b) It ensures business stakeholders understand user requirements

c) It allows product owners to change their requirements as often as they want

d) End users are told which requirements will not be implemented prior to release

Select ONE option.

32 / 40

32. Your team follows the process that uses the DevOps delivery pipeline. The first three steps of this process are:

(1) Code development
(2) Submit code into a version control system and merge it into the “test” branch
(3) Perform component testing for the submitted code

Which of the following is BEST suited to be the entry criterion for step (2) of this pipeline?

a) Static analysis returns no high severity warnings for the submitted code

b) System version control reports no conflicts when merging code into the “test” branch

c) Component tests are compiled and ready to be executed

d) Statement coverage is at least 80%

Select ONE option.

33 / 40

33. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of static testing?

a) Having less expensive defect management due to the ease of detecting defects later in the SDLC

b) Fixing defects found during static testing is generally much less expensive than fixing defects found during dynamic testing

c) Finding coding defects that might not have been found by only performing dynamic testing

d) Detecting gaps and inconsistencies in requirements

Select ONE option.

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34. Which work product can be used by an agile team to show the amount of work that has been completed and the amount of total work remaining for a given iteration?

a) Acceptance criteria

b) Defect report

c) Test completion report

d) Burndown chart

Select ONE option.

35 / 40

35. You want to apply branch testing to the code represented by the following control flow graph.

How many coverage items do you need to test?

a) 2

b) 4

c) 8

d) 7

Select ONE option.

36 / 40

36. You are testing a web application that allows users to SEARCH for products, VIEW product details, ADD products to a shopping cart, and place an ORDER.
You have prepared the following five test cases, which you want to execute according to their priorities:

TC1: SEARCH product A Priority: medium

TC2: VIEW product A details Priority: low

TC3: ADD product B to a shopping cart Priority: medium

TC4: ADD product C to a shopping cart Priority: high

TC5: place an ORDER Priority: high

You also identified the following logical dependencies between test cases:

• SEARCH functionality must be tested before VIEW functionality can be tested, as product details rely on search functionality.
• VIEW functionality must be tested before ADD functionality, as adding products relies on the availability of accurate product details.
• ADD functionality must be tested before ORDER functionality, as placing an order relies on the availability of accurate shopping cart information.

Which test case should be executed as the fourth one?

a) TC3

b) TC1

c) TC2

d) TC4

Select ONE option.

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37. Consider the following part of a test plan.

Testing will be performed using component testing and component integration testing. The regulations require to demonstrate that 100% branch coverage is achieved for each component classified as critical.

Which part of the test plan does this part belong to?

a) Communication

b) Risk register

c) Context of testing

d) Test approach

Select ONE option.

38 / 40

38. Which of the following is an example of how product risk analysis may influence the thoroughness and scope of testing?

a) Continuous risk monitoring allows us to identify emerging risk as soon as possible

b) Risk identification allows us to implement risk mitigation activities and reduce the risk level

c) The assessed risk level helps us to select the rigor of testing

d) Risk analysis allows us to derive coverage items

Select ONE option.

39 / 40

39. According to the testing quadrants model, which of the following falls into quadrant Q1 (“technology facing” and “support the team”)?

a) Usability testing

b) Functional testing

c) User acceptance testing

d) Component integration testing

Select ONE option.

40 / 40

40. During risk analysis the team considered the following risk: “The system allows too high a discount for a customer”. The team estimated the risk impact to be very high.

What can one say about the risk likelihood?

a) It is also very high. High risk impact always implies high risk likelihood

b) It is very low. High risk impact always implies low risk likelihood

c) One cannot say anything about risk likelihood. Risk impact and risk likelihood are independent.

d) Risk likelihood is not important with such a high-risk impact. One does not need to define it.

Select ONE option.

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