Exam 1 – 75 minutes – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 23, 2024 By

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Exam 1 - 75 minutes

Name

1 / 40

1. Which of the following is NOT true for white-box testing?

a) During white-box testing the entire software implementation is considered

b) White-box coverage metrics can help identify additional tests to increase code coverage

c) White-box test techniques can be used in static testing

d) White-box testing can help identify gaps in requirements implementation

Select ONE option.

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2. Which of the following statements BEST describes the acceptance test-driven development (ATDD) approach?

a) In ATDD, acceptance criteria are typically created based on the given/when/then format

b) In ATDD, test cases are mainly created at component testing and are code-oriented

c) In ATDD, tests are created, based on acceptance criteria to drive the development of the related software

d) in ATDD, tests are based on the desired behavior of the software, which makes it easier for team members to understand them

Select ONE option.

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3. Consider the following part of a test plan.

Testing will be performed using component testing and component integration testing. The regulations require to demonstrate that 100% branch coverage is achieved for each component classified as critical.

Which part of the test plan does this part belong to?

a) Communication

b) Risk register

c) Context of testing

d) Test approach

Select ONE option.

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4. Which of the following BEST describe the collaborative approach to user story writing?

a) User stories are created by testers and developers and then accepted by business representatives

b) User stories are created by business representatives, developers, and testers together

c) User stories are created by business representatives and verified by developers and testers

d) User stories are created in a way that they are independent, negotiable, valuable, estimable, small, and testable

Select ONE option.

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5. What task may management take on during a formal review?

a) Taking overall responsibility for the review

b) Deciding what is to be reviewed

c) Ensuring the effective running of review meetings, and mediating, if necessary

d) Recording review information such as review decisions

Select ONE option.

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6. Which of the arguments below would you use to convince your manager to organize retrospectives at the end of each release cycle?

a) Retrospectives are very popular these days and clients would appreciate it if we added them to our processes

b) Organizing retrospectives will save the organization money because without them end user representatives do not provide immediate feedback about the product

c) Process weaknesses identified during the retrospective can be analyzed and serve as a to do list for the organization’s continuous process improvement program

d) Retrospectives embrace five values including courage and respect, which are crucial to maintain continuous improvement in the organization

Select ONE option.

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7. Which of these statements is NOT a factor that contributes to successful reviews?

a) Participants should dedicate adequate time for the review

b) Splitting large work products into small parts to make the required effort less intense

c) Participants should avoid behaviors that might indicate boredom, exasperation, or hostility to other participants

d) Failures found should be acknowledged, appreciated, and handled objectively

Select ONE option.

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8. You test a system whose lifecycle is modeled by the state transition diagram shown below. The system starts in the INIT state and ends its operation in the OFF state.

What is the MINIMAL number of test cases to achieve valid transitions coverage?

a) 4

b) 2

c) 7

d) 3

Select ONE option.

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9. Which of the following statements describe a valid test objective?

a) To prove that there are no unfixed defects in the system under test

b) To prove that there will be no failures after the implementation of the system into production

c) To reduce the risk level of the test object and to build confidence in the quality level

d) To verify that there are no untested combinations of inputs

Select ONE option.

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10. You work in a team that develops a mobile application for food ordering. In the current iteration the team decided to implement the payment functionality.

Which of the following activities is a part of test analysis?

a) Estimating that testing the integration with the payment service will take 8 person-days

b) Deciding that the team should test if it is possible to properly share payment between many users

c) Using boundary value analysis (BVA) to derive the test data for the test cases that check the correct payment processing for the minimum allowed amount to be paid

d) Analyzing the discrepancy between the actual result and expected result after executing a test case that checks the process of payment with a credit card, and reporting a defect

Select ONE option.

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11. Which of the following pieces of information contained in a test progress report is the LEAST useful for business representatives?

a) Impediments to testing

b) Branch coverage achieved

c) Test progress

d) New risks within the test cycle

Select ONE option.

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12. Your organization’s test strategy suggests that once a system is going to be retired, data migration shall be tested. As part of what test type is this testing MOST likely to be performed?

a) Maintenance testing

b) Regression testing

c) Component testing

d) Integration testing

Select ONE option.

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13. During a risk analysis the following risk was identified and assessed:

• Risk: Response time is too long to generate a report
• Risk likelihood: medium; risk impact: high
• Response to risk:

o An independent test team performs performance testing during system testing
o A selected sample of end users performs alpha and beta acceptance testing before the release

What measure is proposed to be taken in response to this analyzed risk?

a) Risk acceptance

b) Contingency plan

c) Risk mitigation

d) Risk transfer

Select ONE option.

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14. You are testing a mobile application that allows users to find a nearby restaurant based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (i.e., a smaller number means a higher priority), and dependencies:

Which of the following test cases should be executed as the third one?

a) TC 003

b) TC 005

c) TC 002

d) TC 001

Select ONE option.

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15. Which of the following are advantages of DevOps?

i. Faster product release and faster time to market
ii. Increases the need for repetitive manual testing
iii. Constant availability of executable software
iv. Reduction in the number of regression tests associated with code refactoring
v. Setting up the test automation framework is inexpensive since everything is automated

a) i, ii, iv are advantages

b) iii, v are advantages

c) i, iii are advantages

d) ii, iv, v are advantages

Select ONE option.

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16. You were given a task to analyze and fix causes of failures in a new system to be released.

Which activity are you performing?

a) Debugging

b) Software testing

c) Requirement elicitation

d) Defect management

Select ONE option.

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17. Consider the following rule: “for every SDLC activity there is a corresponding test activity”. In which SDLC models does this rule hold?

a) Only in sequential SDLC models

b) Only in iterative SDLC models

c) Only in iterative and incremental SDLC models

d) In sequential, incremental, and iterative SDLC models

Select ONE option.

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18. Which of the following BEST describes the way acceptance criteria can be documented?

a) Performing retrospectives to determine the actual needs of the stakeholders regarding a given user story

b) Using the given/when/then format to describe an example test condition related to a given user story

c) Using verbal communication to reduce the risk of misunderstanding the acceptance criteria by others

d) Documenting risks related to a given user story in a test plan to facilitate the risk-based testing of a given user story

Select ONE option.

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19. Which item correctly identifies a potential risk of performing test automation?

a) It may introduce unknown regressions in production

b) Sufficient efforts to maintain testware may not be properly allocated

c) Testing tools and associated testware may not be sufficiently relied upon

d) It may reduce the time allocated for manual testing

Select ONE option.

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20. Which work product can be used by an agile team to show the amount of work that has been completed and the amount of total work remaining for a given iteration?

a) Acceptance criteria

b) Defect report

c) Test completion report

d) Burndown chart

Select ONE option.

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21. A phone ringing in a neighboring cubicle distracts a programmer causing him to improperly program the logic that checks the upper boundary of an input variable. Later, during system testing, a tester notices that this input field accepts invalid input values.

Which of the following correctly describes an incorrectly coded upper bound?

a) The root cause

b) A failure

c) An error

d) A defect

Select ONE option.

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22. How do testers add value to iteration and release planning?

a) Testers determine the priority of the user stories to be developed

b) Testers focus only on the functional aspects of the system to be tested

c) Testers participate in the detailed risk identification and risk assessment of user stories

d) Testers guarantee the release of high-quality software through early test design during the release planning

Select ONE option.

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23. Which TWO of the following options are the exit criteria for testing a system?

a) Test environment readiness

b) The ability to log in to the test object by the tester

c) Estimated defect density is reached

d) Requirements are translated into given/when/then format

e) Regression tests are automated

Select TWO options.

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24. Consider the following testware.

Which test activity produces this testware as an output?

a) Test planning

b) Test monitoring and control

c) Test analysis

d) Test design

Select ONE option.

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25. In your project there has been a delay in the release of a brand-new application and test execution started late, but you have very detailed domain knowledge and good analytical skills. The full list of requirements has not yet been shared with the team, but management is asking for some test results to be presented.

Which test technique fits BEST in this situation?

a) Checklist-based testing

b) Error guessing

c) Exploratory testing

d) Branch testing

Select ONE option.

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26. Which of the following skills (i-v) are the MOST important skills of a tester?

i. Having domain knowledge
ii. Creating a product vision
iii. Being a good team player
iv. Planning and organizing the work of the team
v. Critical thinking

a) ii and iv are important

b) i, iii and v are important

c) i, ii and v are important

d) iii and iv are important

Select ONE option.

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27. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the test pyramid?

a) The test pyramid emphasizes having a larger number of tests at the lower test levels

b) The closer to the top of the pyramid, the more formal your test automation should be

c) Usually, component testing and component integration testing are automated using API-based tools

d) For system testing and acceptance testing, the automated tests are typically created using GUI-based tools

Select ONE option.

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28. Which of the following is NOT an example of the shift left approach?

a) Reviewing the user requirements before they are formally accepted by the stakeholders

b) Writing a component test before the corresponding code is written

c) Executing a performance efficiency test for a component during component testing

d) Writing a test script before setting up the configuration management process

Select ONE option.

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29. You are working as a tester in the team that follows the V-model. The choice of software development lifecycle (SDLC) model impacts the timing of testing, which of the following statement is NOT true?

a) Dynamic testing can be performed early in the SDLC

b) Static testing can be performed early in the SDLC

c) Test planning can be performed early in the SDLC

d) Acceptance testing can be performed early in the SDLC

Select ONE option.

30 / 40

30. Which of the following is an example of how product risk analysis influences thoroughness and scope of testing?

a) The test manager monitors and reports the level of all known risks on a daily basis so the stakeholders can make an informed decision on the release date

b) One of the identified risks was "Lack of support of open-source databases", so the team decided to integrate the system with an open-source database

c) During the quantitative risk analysis, the team estimated the total level of all identified risks and reported it as the total residual risk before testing

d) Risk assessment revealed a very high level of performance risks, so it was decided to perform detailed performance efficiency testing early in the SDLC

Select ONE option.

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31. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independence of testing?

a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team

b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines

c) An independent test team can work separately from the developers, need not be distracted with project requirement changes, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system

d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer

Select ONE option.

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32. Which of the following statements about branch testing is CORRECT?

a) If a program includes only unconditional branches, then 100% branch coverage can be achieved without executing any test cases

b) If the test cases exercise all unconditional branches in the code, then 100% branch coverage is achieved

c) If 100% statement coverage is achieved, then 100% branch coverage is also achieved

d) If 100% branch coverage is achieved, then all decision outcomes in each decision statement in the code are exercised

Select ONE option.

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33. Which TWO of the following options are common metrics used for reporting on the quality level of the test object?

a) Number of defects found during system testing

b) Total effort on test design divided by the number of designed test cases

c) Number of executed test procedures

d) Number of defects found divided by the size of a work product

e) Time needed to repair a defect

Select TWO options.

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34. You are testing a user story with three acceptance criteria: AC1, AC2 and AC3. AC1 is covered by test case TC1, AC2 by TC2, and AC3 by TC3. The test execution history had three test runs on three consecutive versions of the software as follows:

Tests are repeated once you are informed that all defects found in the test run are corrected and a new version of the software is available.
Which of the above tests are executed as regression tests?

a) Only 4, 7, 8, 9

b) Only 5, 7

c) Only 4, 6, 8, 9

d) Only 5, 6

Select ONE option.

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35. You are testing a mobile application that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. You are running a test suite that involves evaluating each screen, and each field on each screen, against a general list of user interface best practices derived from a popular book on the topic that maximizes attractiveness, ease-of-use, and accessibility for such applications. Which of the following options BEST categorizes the test technique you are using?

a) Black-box

b) Exploratory

c) Checklist-based

d) Error guessing

Select ONE option.

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36. How is the whole team approach present in the interactions between testers and business representatives?

a) Business representatives decide on test automation approaches

b) Testers help business representatives to define test strategy

c) Business representatives are not part of the whole team approach

d) Testers help business representatives to create suitable acceptance tests

Select ONE option.

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37. The following is a list of the work products produced in the SDLC.

i. Business requirements
ii. Schedule
iii. Test budget
iv. Third-party executable code
v. User stories and their acceptance criteria

Which of them can be reviewed?

a) i and iv can be reviewed

b) i, ii, iii and iv can be reviewed

c) i, ii, iii, and v can be reviewed

d) iii, iv, v can be reviewed

Select ONE option.

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38. Which test activity does a data preparation tool support?

a) Test monitoring and control

b) Test analysis and design

c) Test implementation and execution

d) Test completion

Select ONE option.

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39. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent feedback?

a) It improves the test process for future projects

b) It forces customers to prioritize their requirements based on agreed risks

c) It is the only way to measure the quality of changes

d) It helps avoid requirements misunderstandings

Select ONE option.

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40. Your team uses the three-point estimation technique to estimate the test effort for a new high-risk feature. The following estimates were made:

• Most optimistic estimation: 2 person-hours
• Most likely estimation: 11 person-hours
• Most pessimistic estimation: 14 person-hours

What is the final estimate?

a) 9 person-hours

b) 14 person-hours

c) 11 person-hours

d) 10 person-hours

Select ONE option.

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