Exam 5 – 75 minutes – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 23, 2024 By

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Exam 5 - 75 minutes

Name

1 / 40

1. Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?

a) Ensure management participate as reviewers

b) Split large work products into smaller parts

c) Set reviewer evaluation as an objective

d) Plan to cover one document per review

Select ONE option.

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2. Which of the arguments below would you use to convince your manager to organize retrospectives at the end of each release cycle?

a) Retrospectives are very popular these days and clients would appreciate it if we added them to our processes

b) Organizing retrospectives will save the organization money because without them end user representatives do not provide immediate feedback about the product

c) Process weaknesses identified during the retrospective can be analyzed and serve as a to do list for the organization’s continuous process improvement program

d) Retrospectives embrace five values including courage and respect, which are crucial to maintain continuous improvement in the organization

Select ONE option.

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3. Given the following descriptions of review activities:

1. Detected anomalies are deliberated upon, and determinations are reached regarding their status, ownership, and any further steps needed
2. Issues are recorded, and any needed updates are addressed prior to the acceptance of the work product
3. Reviewers employ techniques to come up with suggestions and questions about the work product and to spot anomalies
4. The objective of the review and its schedule are established to ensure a focused and efficient review
5. Participants are provided with access to the item being reviewed

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence in the review process of the activities that correspond to the descriptions?

a) 4 – 3 – 5 – 2 – 1

b) 4 – 5 – 3 – 1 – 2

c) 5 – 4 – 1 – 3 – 2

d) 5 – 4 – 3 – 2 – 1

Select ONE option.

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4. How do testers add value to iteration and release planning?

a) Testers determine the priority of the user stories to be developed

b) Testers focus only on the functional aspects of the system to be tested

c) Testers participate in the detailed risk identification and risk assessment of user stories

d) Testers guarantee the release of high-quality software through early test design during the release planning

Select ONE option.

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5. Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between decision table testing and branch testing?

a) In decision table testing, the test cases are derived from the decision statements in the code. In branch testing, the test cases are derived from knowledge of the control flow of the test object.

b) In decision table testing, the test cases are derived from the specification that describes the business logic. In branch testing the test cases are based on anticipation of potential defects in the source code.

c) In decision table testing, the test cases are derived from knowledge of the control flow of the test object. In branch testing, test cases are derived from the specification that describes the business logic.

d) In decision table testing, the test cases are independent of how the software is implemented. In branch testing, test cases can be created only after the design or implementation of the code.

Select ONE option.

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6. Which of the following is an example of how product risk analysis may influence the thoroughness and scope of testing?

a) Continuous risk monitoring allows us to identify emerging risk as soon as possible

b) Risk identification allows us to implement risk mitigation activities and reduce the risk level

c) The assessed risk level helps us to select the rigor of testing

d) Risk analysis allows us to derive coverage items

Select ONE option.

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7. Which of the following is the BEST example of how traceability supports testing?

a) Performing the impact analysis of a change will give information about the completion of the tests

b) Analyzing the traceability between test cases and test results will give information about the estimated level of residual risk

c) Performing the impact analysis of a change will help selecting the right test cases for regression testing

d) Analyzing the traceability between the test basis, the test objects and the test cases will help in selecting test data to achieve the assumed coverage of the test object

Select ONE option.

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8. Which of the following is NOT true for white-box testing?

a) During white-box testing the entire software implementation is considered

b) White-box coverage metrics can help identify additional tests to increase code coverage

c) White-box test techniques can be used in static testing

d) White-box testing can help identify gaps in requirements implementation

Select ONE option.

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9. Your test suite achieved 100% statement coverage. What is the consequence of this fact?

a) Each instruction in the code that contains a defect has been executed at least once

b) Any test suite containing more test cases than your test suite will also achieve 100% statement coverage

c) Each path in the code has been executed at least once

d) Every combination of input values has been tested at least once

Select ONE option.

10 / 40

10. What is the MAIN difference between black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques?

a) The test object

b) The test level at which the test technique is used

c) The test basis

d) The software development lifecycle (SDLC) in which the test technique can be used

Select ONE option.

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11. Decide which of the following statements (i-v) are true for static testing.

i. Abnormal external behaviors are easier to identify with this testing
ii. Discrepancies from a coding standard are easier to find with this testing
iii. It identifies failures caused by defects when the software is run
iv. Its test objective is to identify defects as early as possible
v. Missing coverage for critical security requirements is easier to find and fix

a) i, iv, v are true for static testing

b) i, iii, iv are true for static testing

c) ii, iii are true for static testing

d) ii, iv, v are true for static testing

Select ONE option.

12 / 40

12. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes:

• There is the role of a scribe
• The main purpose is to evaluate quality
• The meeting is led by the author of the work product
• There is individual preparation
• A review report is produced

Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used?

a) Informal review

b) Walkthrough

c) Technical review

d) Inspection

Select ONE option.

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13. Which of the following pieces of information contained in a test progress report is the LEAST useful for business representatives?

a) Impediments to testing

b) Branch coverage achieved

c) Test progress

d) New risks within the test cycle

Select ONE option.

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14. You are working on a project to develop a system to analyze driving test results. You have been asked to design test cases based on the following decision table.

What test data will show that there are contradictory rules in the decision table?

a) C1 = T, C2 = T, C3 = F

b) C1 = T, C2 = F, C3 = T

c) C1 = T, C2 = T, C3 = T and C1 = F, C2 = T, C3 = T

d) C1 = F, C2 = F, C3 = F

Select ONE option.

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15. A wine storage system uses a control device that measures the wine cell temperature T (measured in °C, rounded to the nearest degree) and alarms the user if it deviates from the optimal value of 12, according to the following rules:

• if T = 12, the system says, “optimal temperature”

• if T < 12, the system says, “temperature is too low!”

• if T > 12, the system says, “temperature is too high!”

You want to use the 3-point boundary value analysis (BVA) to verify the behavior of the control device. A test input is a temperature in °C provided by the device.

What is the MINIMAL set of test inputs that achieves 100% of the desired coverage?

a) 11, 12, 13

b) 10, 12, 14

c) 10, 11, 12, 13, 14

d) 10, 11, 13, 14

Select ONE option.

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16. You are working as a tester in the team that follows the V-model. The choice of software development lifecycle (SDLC) model impacts the timing of testing, which of the following statement is NOT true?

a) Dynamic testing can be performed early in the SDLC

b) Static testing can be performed early in the SDLC

c) Test planning can be performed early in the SDLC

d) Acceptance testing can be performed early in the SDLC

Select ONE option.

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17. Which item correctly identifies a potential risk of performing test automation?

a) It may introduce unknown regressions in production

b) Sufficient efforts to maintain testware may not be properly allocated

c) Testing tools and associated testware may not be sufficiently relied upon

d) It may reduce the time allocated for manual testing

Select ONE option.

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18. Which of the following test activities are MOST likely to involve the application of boundary value analysis and equivalence partitioning?

a) Test implementation

b) Test design

c) Test execution

d) Test monitoring

e) Test analysis

Select TWO options.

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19. In your project there has been a delay in the release of a brand-new application and test execution started late, but you have very detailed domain knowledge and good analytical skills. The full list of requirements has not yet been shared with the team, but management is asking for some test results to be presented.

Which test technique fits BEST in this situation?

a) Checklist-based testing

b) Error guessing

c) Exploratory testing

d) Branch testing

Select ONE option.

20 / 40

20. Which of the following is MOST likely to be performed as part of system testing?

a) Security testing of a credit management system by an independent test team

b) Testing the interface of a currency exchange system with an external banking system

c) Beta testing of a remote learning system by courseware developers

d) Testing interactions between the user interface and database of a human resources system

Select ONE option.

21 / 40

21. Which of the following is an advantage of the whole-team approach?

a) It allows team members to take on any role at any time

b) It only needs a single team to support the complete development project

c) It embeds business representatives alongside developers in the same team

d) It generates a team synergy that benefits the entire project

Select ONE option.

22 / 40

22. Which types of failures (1-4) fit which test levels (A-D) BEST?

1. Failures in system behavior as it deviates from the user’s business needs
2. Failures in communication between components
3. Failures in logic in a module
4. Failures in not correctly implemented business rules

A. Component testing
B. Component integration testing
C. System testing
D. Acceptance testing

a) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C

b) 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A

c) 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C

d) 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D

Select ONE option.

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23. You were given a task to analyze and fix causes of failures in a new system to be released.

Which activity are you performing?

a) Debugging

b) Software testing

c) Requirement elicitation

d) Defect management

Select ONE option.

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24. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a test plan?

a) To define test data and expected results for component tests and component integration tests

b) To define as exit criteria from the component test level that “100% statement coverage and 100% branch coverage must be achieved”

c) To describe what fields the test progress report shall contain and what should be the form of this report

d) To explain why system integration testing will be excluded from testing, although the test strategy requires this test level

Select ONE option.

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25. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent stakeholder feedback?

a) Changes to requirements are understood and implemented earlier

b) It ensures business stakeholders understand user requirements

c) It allows product owners to change their requirements as often as they want

d) End users are told which requirements will not be implemented prior to release

Select ONE option.

26 / 40

26. Given the following test tasks:

1. Derive test cases from test conditions
2. Identify reusable testware
3. Organize test cases into test procedures
4. Evaluate test basis and test object

And the following test activities:

A. Test analysis
B. Test design
C. Test implementation
D. Test completion

Which of the following BEST matches the tasks with the activities?

a) 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C

b) 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A

c) 1C, 2A, 3B, 4D

d) 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B

Select ONE option.

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27. You run two test cases, T1 and T2, on the same code. Test T1 achieved 40% statement coverage and test T2 achieved 65% statement coverage.

Which of the following sentences must be necessarily true?

a) The test suite composed with tests T1 and T2 achieves 105% statement coverage

b) There exists at least one statement that must have been executed by both T1 and T2

c) At least 5% of the statements in the code under test are non-executable

d) The test suite composed of tests T1 and T2 achieves full branch coverage

Select ONE option.

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28. Which of the following is a product quality metric?

a) Mean time to failure

b) Number of defects found

c) Requirements coverage

d) Defect detection percentage

Select ONE option.

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29. You are testing a PIN validator, which accepts valid PINs and rejects invalid PINs. A PIN is a sequence of digits. A PIN is valid if it consists of four digits, at least two of which are different. You have identified the following valid equivalence partitions:

Variable: PIN code length

• The partition “length correct” - four-digit PINs
• The partition “length incorrect” - PINs with length other than 4

Variable: Number of different digits

• The partition “number of different digits correct” - PINs with at least two different digits
• The partition “number of different digits incorrect” - PINs with all digits being the same

Which of the following is a MINIMUM set of input test data that covers all identified equivalence partitions?

a) 1, 1111, 1234

b) 111, 1111, 1112

c) 1, 12345

d) 12345, 1234

Select ONE option.

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30. You are testing a simplified apartment search form which has only two search criteria:

• floor (with three possible options: ground floor; first floor; second or higher floor)
• garden type (with three possible options: no garden; small garden; large garden)

Only apartments on the ground floor have gardens. The form has a built-in validation mechanism that will not allow you to use the search criteria which violate this rule.

Each test has two input values: floor and garden type. You want to apply equivalence partitioning (EP) to cover each floor and each garden type in your tests.

What is the minimal number of test cases to achieve 100% EP coverage?

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

Select ONE option

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31. Given the following risks:

1. Ineffective loop implementation causes long system responses
2. Consumers change their preferences
3. Flooding of the server room
4. Patients above a certain age receive inaccurate reports

And the following mitigation activities:

A. Risk acceptance
B. Performance testing
C. Using boundary value analysis as the test technique
D. Risk transfer

Which of the following BEST matches the risks with the mitigation activities?

a) 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B

b) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C

c) 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C

d) 1C, 2A, 3D, 4B

Select ONE option.

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32. You perform system testing of an e-commerce web application and are provided with the following requirement:

REQ 05-017. If the total cost of purchases exceeds $100, the customer gets a 5% discount on subsequent purchases. Otherwise, the customer does not receive a discount.

Which test techniques will be MOST helpful in designing test cases based on this requirement?

a) White-box test techniques

b) Black-box test techniques

c) Experience-based test techniques

d) Risk-based test techniques

Select ONE option.

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33. Given the following task descriptions:

1. The quality characteristics to be evaluated and the exit criteria are selected
2. Everyone has access to the work product
3. Anomalies are identified in the work product
4. Anomalies are discussed

And the following review activities

A. Individual review
B. Review initiation
C. Planning
D. Communication and analysis

Which of the following BEST matches the task descriptions and activities?

a) 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A

b) 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A

c) 1C, 2A, 3B, 4D

d) 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D

Select ONE option.

34 / 40

34. The navigation system software has been updated due to it suggesting routes that break traffic laws, such as driving the wrong way down one-way streets. Which of the following BEST describes the testing that will be performed?

a) Only confirmation testing

b) Confirmation testing then regression testing

c) Only regression testing

d) Regression testing then confirmation testing

Select ONE option.

35 / 40

35. Which of the following statements about DevOps is CORRECT?

a) To speed up releases, continuous integration is used to encourage developers to submit code quickly without the need to complete component testing

b) To be able to update and release systems on a more frequent basis, many automated regression tests are required to reduce the danger of regression

c) To treat both developers and operations equally, the testers will allocate more effort to release testing by operations using a shift-right approach

d) To create increased synergy between testers, developers and operations, the testing must become fully automated with no manual testing

Select ONE option.

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36. Which of the following statements about the different testing roles is MOST likely to be CORRECT?

a) In Agile software development, the test management role is the primary responsibility of the team, while the testing role is primarily the responsibility of a single individual from outside the team

b) The testing role is primarily responsible for test monitoring and control, while the test management role is primarily responsible for test planning and test completion

c) In Agile software development, test management activities that span multiple teams are handled by a test manager outside the team, while some test management tasks are handled by the team itself

d) The test management role is primarily responsible for test analysis and test design, while the testing role is primarily responsible for test implementation and execution

Select ONE option.

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37. Your team follows the process that uses the DevOps delivery pipeline. The first three steps of this process are:

(1) Code development
(2) Submit code into a version control system and merge it into the “test” branch
(3) Perform component testing for the submitted code

Which of the following is BEST suited to be the entry criterion for step (2) of this pipeline?

a) Static analysis returns no high severity warnings for the submitted code

b) System version control reports no conflicts when merging code into the “test” branch

c) Component tests are compiled and ready to be executed

d) Statement coverage is at least 80%

Select ONE option.

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38. You work as a tester in a project on a mobile application for food ordering for one of your clients. The client sent you a list of requirements. One of them, with high priority, says

“The order must be processed in less than 10 seconds in 95% of the cases”.

You created a set of test cases in which a number of random orders were made, the processing time measured, and the test results were checked against the requirements.

What test type did you perform?

a) Functional, because the test cases cover the user’s business requirement for the system

b) Non-functional, because the measure the system’s performance

c) Functional, because the test cases interact with the user interface

d) Structural, because we need to know the internal structure of the program to measure the order processing time

Select ONE option.

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39. The system for selling cinema tickets calculates the discount type based on the client’s birth year (BY) and on the current year (CY) as follows:

Let D be the difference between CY and BY, that is, D = CY – BY

• If D < 0 then print the error message “birth year cannot be greater than current year”

• If 0 ≤ D < 18 then apply the student discount

• If 18 ≤ D < 65 then apply no discount • If D ≥ 65 then apply the pensioner discount

Your test suite already contains two test cases:

• BY = 1990, CY = 2020, expected result: no discount
• BY = 2030, CY = 2029, expected result: print the error message

Which of the following test data sets should be added to achieve full valid equivalence partitioning coverage for the discount type?

a) BY = 2001, CY = 2065

b) BY = 1900, CY = 1965

c) BY = 1965, CY = 1900

d) BY = 2011, CY = 2029

e) BY = 2000, CY = 2000

Select TWO options.

40 / 40

40. Which of the following is NOT an example of the shift left approach?

a) Reviewing the user requirements before they are formally accepted by the stakeholders

b) Writing a component test before the corresponding code is written

c) Executing a performance efficiency test for a component during component testing

d) Writing a test script before setting up the configuration management process

Select ONE option.

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