0% 2 12345678910111213141516171819202122232425262728293031323334353637383940 Created on June 25, 2024 By Admin 2018v3.1 - Exam 4 Name 1 / 40 1. Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester? a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and set the tools usage guidelines b) The test manager plans, coordinates, and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides on the release of the test object d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester executes the tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Selection of tools is a test manager task b) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers c) Is not correct. The tester does not decide on the release of the test object d) Is not correct. The tester specifies the test cases, the test manager does the prioritization 2 / 40 2. A daily radiation recorder for plants produces a sunshine score based on a combination of the number of hours a plant is exposed to the sun (below 3 hours, 3 to 6 hours or above 6 hours) and the average intensity of the sunshine (very low, low, medium, high). Given the following test cases: What is the minimum number of additional test cases that are needed to ensure full coverage of ALL VALID INPUT equivalence partitions? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The following valid input equivalence partitions can be identified: • Hours 1. Below 3 hours 2. 3 to 6 hours 3. Above 6 hours • Intensity 4. Very low 5. Low 6. Medium 7. High The given test cases cover the following valid input equivalence partitions: Thus, the missing valid input equivalence partitions are: (2), (5) and (7). These can be covered by two test cases, as (2) can be combined with either (5) or (7). Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 3 / 40 3. You are working as a tester on an Agile team and have participated in over two dozen user story refinement sessions with the product owner and the developers on the team at the start of each iteration. As the reviews have gotten more effective at detecting defects in user stories and the product owner more proficient at correcting those defects, you and the team notice that the team’s velocity, as shown in your burndown charts, has started to increase. Which of the following is a benefit of static testing that is MOST DIRECTLY related to the team’s increased velocity? a) Increasing total cost of quality b) Reducing testing cost c) Increasing development productivity d) Reducing total cost of quality Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Reviews reduce, not increase, the total cost of quality b) Is not correct. Increasing velocity is a sign of increasing development productivity overall, not just testing, so B only partially applies c) Is correct. Velocity is a way of measuring productivity in Agile development d) Is not correct. The benefit mentioned here has to do with increasing overall development team productivity 4 / 40 4. Which of the following BEST defines risk level? a) Risk level is calculated by adding together the probabilities of all problem situations and the financial harm that results from them b) Risk level is estimated by multiplying the likelihood of a threat to the system by the chance that the threat will occur and will result in financial damage c) Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable event and the expected impact of that event d) Risk level is the sum of all potential hazards to a system multiplied by the sum of all potential losses from that system Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Risk is determined by considering a combination of the likelihood of problem situations and the harm that may result from them but cannot be calculated by adding these together (the probability would be in the range 0 to 1 and the harm could be in dollars) b) Is not correct. Risk is determined by considering a combination of a likelihood and an impact. This definition only considers likelihood and chance (both forms of probability) with no consideration of the impact (or harm) c) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers d) Is not correct. Risk is determined by considering a combination of a likelihood and an impact. This definition only considers hazards and losses (a hazard is a bad event, like a risk, while loss is a form of impact) with no consideration of the likelihood (or probability) 5 / 40 5. Which of the following options are roles in a formal review? a) Developer, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Tester b) Author, Moderator, Manager, Reviewer, Developer c) Author, Manager, Review leader, Reviewer, Designer d) Author, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Scribe Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Tester and developer are NOT roles in a formal review b) Is not correct. Developer is NOT a role in a formal review c) Is not correct. Designer is NOT a role in a formal review d) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers 6 / 40 6. Which activities are carried out within the planning of a formal review? a) Collection of metrics for the evaluation of the effectiveness of the review b) Answer any questions the participants may have c) Definition and Verification of fulfillment of entry criteria for the review d) Evaluation of the review findings against the exit criteria Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. ‘Collection of metrics’ belongs to the main activity “Fixing and Reporting” b) Is not correct. ‘Answer any question.’ belongs to the main activity “Initiate Review” c) Is correct. The checking of entry criteria takes place in the planning of a formal review d) Is not correct. The evaluation of the review findings against the exit criteria belongs to the main activity “Issue communication and analysis” 7 / 40 7. Which of the review types below is the BEST option to choose when the review must follow a formal process based on rules and checklists? a) Informal Review b) Technical Review c) Inspection d) Walkthrough Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Informal review does not use a formal process b) Is not correct. Use of checklists are optional c) Is correct. Inspection is a formal process based on rules and checklists d) Is not correct. Does not explicitly require a formal process and the use of checklists is optional 8 / 40 8. During an Agile development effort, a product owner discovers a previously unknown regulatory requirement that applies to most of the user stories within a particular epic. The user stories are updated to provide for the necessary changes in software behavior. The programmers on the team are modifying the code appropriately. As a tester on the team, what types of tests will you run? a) Confirmation tests b) Regression tests c) Functional tests d) Change-related tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The change in behavior may be either functional or non-functional you need to run change-related tests, some of which are confirmation tests and others are regression tests. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 9 / 40 9. Which of the following is an example of a failure in a car cruise control system? a) The developer of the system forgot to rename variables after a cut-and-paste operation b) Unnecessary code that sounds an alarm when reversing was included in the system c) The system stops maintaining a set speed when the radio volume is increased or decreased d) The design specification for the system wrongly states speeds Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This is an example of a mistake made by the developer b) Is not correct. This is an example of a defect (something wrong in the code that may cause a failure) c) Is correct. This is a deviation from the expected functionality - a cruise control system should not be affected by the radio d) Is not correct. This is an example of a defect (something wrong in a specification that may cause a failure if subsequently implemented) 10 / 40 10. Which one of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test execution tools? a) It is easy to create regression tests b) It is easy to maintain version control of test assets c) It is easy to design tests for security testing d) It is easy to run regression tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The benefits are not when creating regressions tests, more in executing them b) Is not correct. This is done by configuration management tools c) Is not correct. This needs specialized tools d) Is correct. Reduction in repetitive manual work (e.g., running regression tests, environment set up/tear down tasks, re-entering the same test data, and checking against coding standards), thus saving time 11 / 40 11. Which of the following are two factors that can be used to determine the level of risk? a) Testing and development b) Dynamic and reactive c) Statement and decision d) Likelihood and impact Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The level of risk will be determined by the likelihood of an adverse event happening and the impact (the harm) from that event. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 12 / 40 12. Which of the following qualities is MORE likely to be found in a tester’s mindset rather than in a developer’s? a) A tester´s mindset tends to grow and mature as the tester gains experience b) Ability to see what might go wrong c) Good communication with team members d) Focus on getting all things done Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Both developers and testers gain from experience b) Is correct. Developers are often more interested in designing and building solutions than in contemplating what might be wrong with those solutions c) Is not correct. Both developers and testers should be able to communicate well d) Is not correct. Testers shall focus on the quality, not on the quantity 13 / 40 13. Which of the following statements is true? a) Impact analysis is useful for confirmation testing during maintenance testing b) Confirmation testing is useful for regression testing during system design c) Impact analysis is useful for regression testing during maintenance testing d) Confirmation testing is useful for impact analysis during maintenance testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While impact analysis is useful during maintenance testing it is not necessary for confirmation testing since confirmation testing is on the intended effects of a bug fix or other change b) Is not correct. Confirmation and regression testing are two separate activities, and confirmation testing is not part of system design c) Is correct. Impact analysis can be used to select regression tests for maintenance testing d) Is not correct. Confirmation testing is not part of impact analysis, though confirmation testing will typically happen during maintenance testing 14 / 40 14. Which one of the following answers describes a test condition? a) A distinguishing characteristic of a component or system b) A testable aspect of a component or system identified as a basis for testing c) The degree to which a software product provides functions which meet stated and implied needs when the software is used under specified conditions d) Test cases designed to execute combinations of conditions and actions resulting from them Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Definition of feature according to glossary b) Is correct. From glossary c) Is not correct. Definition of functionality suitability according to glossary d) Is not correct. Like Definition of Decision table testing according to glossary 15 / 40 15. Prior to an iteration planning session, you are studying a user story and its acceptance criteria, deriving test conditions and associated test cases from the user story as a way of applying the principle of early QA and test. What test technique are you applying? a) White-box b) Black-box c) Experience-based d) Error guessing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Structure-based, or white-box techniques are based on an analysis of the architecture, detailed design, internal structure, or the code of the test object b) Is correct. Behavior-based, or black-box techniques are based on an analysis of the appropriate test basis (e.g., formal requirements documents, specifications, use cases, user stories, or business processes), which describe functional and non-functional behavior c) Is not correct. Experience-based techniques leverage the experience of developers, testers, and users to determine what should be tested d) Is not correct. Error guessing is a type of experience-based testing, which is not black-box 16 / 40 16. In a formal review, what is the role name for the participant who runs an inspection meeting? a) Facilitator b) Programmer c) Author d) Project manager Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. The facilitator or moderator runs the review meetings b) Is not correct. This is not a role name for a formal review participant c) Is not correct. The facilitator or moderator runs the review meetings d) Is not correct. The facilitator or moderator runs the review meetings 17 / 40 17. You have just completed a pilot project for a regression testing tool. You understand the tool much better and have tailored your testing process to it. You have standardized an approach to using the tool and its associated work products. Which of the following is a typical test automation pilot project goal that remains to be carried out? a) Learn more details about the tool b) See how the tool would fit with existing processes and practices c) Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing, and maintaining the tool and the test assets d) Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This is an objective for a pilot, but you have achieved it because you understand the tool much better due to the pilot b) Is not correct. This is an objective for a pilot, but you have achieved it because you have tailoring your testing processes c) Is not correct. This is an objective for a pilot, but you have achieved it because you have standardized an approach to using the tool and its associated work products d) Is correct. Assessing the benefits and configuring the metrics collection are the two objectives missing from this list 18 / 40 18. You are defining the process for carrying out product risk analysis as part of each iteration on an Agile project. Which of the following is the proper place to document this process in a test plan? a) Scope of testing b) Approach of testing c) Metrics of testing d) Configuration management of the test object Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While scope is a topic addressed in a test plan, the implementation of a risk-based testing strategy on this project is the approach, so this topic should be addressed in that section b) Is correct. Approach is a topic addressed in a test plan and the implementation of a risk-based testing strategy on this project is the approach c) Is not correct. While metrics for test monitoring and control is a topic addressed in a test plan, the implementation of a risk-based testing strategy on this project is the approach, so this topic should be addressed in that section d) Is not correct. Configuration management is not a topic addressed in a test plan 19 / 40 19. Which of the following can affect and be part of the (initial) test planning? a) Budget limitations b) Test log c) Failure rate d) Use cases Select ONE options. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Making decisions about what to test are documented in the test plan. This means when you are planning the test and there are budget limitations, prioritizing is needed; what should be tested and what should be omitted b) Is not correct. Test monitoring and control c) Is not correct. Common test metrics d) Is not correct. It is a part of test analysis 20 / 40 20. You are reading a user story in the product backlog to prepare for a meeting with the product owner and a developer, noting potential defects as you go. Which of the following statements is true about this activity? a) It is not a static test, because static testing involves execution of the test object b) It is not a static test, because static testing is always performed using a tool c) It is a static test, because any defects you find could be found cheaper during dynamic testing d) It is a static test because static testing does not involve execution of the test object Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Static testing does not involve execution of the test object b) Is not correct. Some static tests involve the use of a tool, especially static analysis, but reviews (such as the activity described here) do not necessarily involve the use of a tool c) Is not correct. The review activity described here is part of a static test, but defects found in static tests are usually cheaper than those found in dynamic testing d) Is correct. Static testing does not involve execution of the test object 21 / 40 21. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the unit’s field is 0.1 units. Which of the following is a set of input values that cover the boundary values with two-point boundary values for this field? a) 0.3, 10.0, 28.0 b) 0.4, 0.5, 0.6, 24, 9, 25, 0, 25.1 c) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0 25.1 d) 0.5, 0.6, 24.9, 25.0 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There are three equivalence partitions, with the boundaries as shown: • Invalid too low (0.4 and below) • Valid (0.5 to 25.0) • Invalid too high (25.1 and above) Thus: a) Is not correct. None of those four boundary values are included in this set of tests. These tests do cover the equivalence partitions b) Is not correct. All these four boundary values are included in this set of tests, but two additional values are included, one for each boundary. These are the values associated with three-point boundary value analysis c) Is correct. Each of those four two-point boundary values are included in this set of tests d) Is not correct. These four values are all included in the valid partition 22 / 40 22. Programmers often write and execute unit tests against code which they have written. During this self-testing activity, which of the following is a tester mindset that programmers should adopt to perform this unit testing effectively? a) Good communication skills b) Code coverage c) Evaluating code defects d) Attention to detail Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The programmer appears to be performing unit testing on their own code b) Is not correct. Code coverage is useful for unit testing, but it is not a tester mindset c) Is not correct. The programmer’s mindset included contemplating what might be wrong with the code, but that is not a tester’s mindset d) Is correct. This tester mindset, attention to detail, will help programmers find defects during unit testing 23 / 40 23. Mr. Test has been testing software applications on mobile devices for a period of 5 years. He has a wealth of experience in testing mobile applications and achieves better results in a shorter time than others. Over several months, Mr. Test did not modify the existing automated test cases and did not create any new test cases. This leads to fewer and fewer defects being found by executing the tests. What principle of testing did Mr. Test not observe? a) Testing depends on the environment b) Exhaustive testing is not possible c) Repeating of same tests will not find new defects d) Defects cluster together Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Testing is context dependent, regardless of it being manual or automated (principle #6), but does not result in detecting a decreasing number of faults as described above b) Is not correct. Exhaustive testing is impossible, regardless of the amount of effort put into testing (principle #2) c) Is correct. Principle #5 says “If the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually these tests no longer find any new defects. To detect new defects, existing tests and test data may need changing, and new tests may need to be written.” Automated regression testing of the same test cases will not bring new findings d) Is not correct. ”Defect cluster together” (principle #4). A small number of modules usually contain most of the defects, but this does not mean that fewer and fewer defects will be found 24 / 40 24. Which of the following statements is a valid objective for testing? a) The test should start as late as possible so that development had enough time to create a good product b) To validate whether the test object works as expected by the users and other stakeholders c) To prove that all possible defects are identified d) To prove that any remaining defects will not cause any failures Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Contradiction to principle 3: “Early testing saves time and money” b) Is correct. This is one objective of testing c) Is not correct. Principle #2 states that exhaustive testing is impossible, so one can never prove that all defects were identified d) Is not correct. To make an assessment whether a defect will cause a failure or not, one must detect the defect first. Saying that no remaining defect will cause a failure implicitly means that all defects were found. This again contradicts principle #2 25 / 40 25. Which of the following is a common test metric often used to monitor BOTH test preparation and test execution? a) Test case status b) Defect find/fix rates c) Test environment preparation d) Estimated cost to find the next defect Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Percentage of test cases prepared is a common metric during test preparation while percentage of test cases passed, failed, not run, etc., are common during test execution b) Is not correct. Defect reports are typically filed during test execution, based on failures found c) Is not correct. Test environment preparation is part implementation and would generally be complete before test execution d) Is not correct. Defects are typically reported during test execution, based on failures found, so the cost to find the next defect is available during test execution only 26 / 40 26. Which of the following statements BEST compares the purposes of confirmation testing and regression testing? a) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that all previously run tests still work correctly, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to ensure that any fixes made to one part of the system have not adversely affected other parts b) The purpose of confirmation testing is to check that a previously found defect has been fixed, while the purpose of regression testing is to ensure that no other parts of the system have been adversely affected by the fix c) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that any changes to one part of the system have not caused another part to fail, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check that all previously run tests still provide the same results as before d) The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that changes to the system were made successfully, while the purpose of regression testing is to run tests that previously failed to ensure that they now work correctly Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Although the description of regression testing is largely correct, the description of confirmation testing (which should be testing a defect has been fixed) is not correct b) Is correct. The descriptions of both confirmation and regression testing match the intent of those in the syllabus c) Is not correct. Although the description of regression testing is largely correct, the description of confirmation testing (re-running all previously run tests to get the same results) is not correct, as the purpose of confirmation testing is to check that tests that previously failed now pass (the fix worked) d) Is not correct. Although the description of confirmation testing is largely correct, the description of regression testing (re-running tests that previously failed) is not correct (this is a more detailed description of confirmation testing) 27 / 40 27. You are engaged in planning a test effort for a new mobile banking application. As part of estimation, you first meet with the proposed testers and others on the project. The team is well-coordinated and has already worked on similar projects. To verify the resulting estimate, you then refer to some industry averages for testing effort and costs on similar projects, published by a reputable consultant. Which statement accurately describes your estimation approach? a) A simultaneous expert-based and metrics-based approach b) Primarily an expert-based approach, augmented with a metrics-based approach c) Primarily a metrics-based approach, augmented with an expert-based approach d) Primarily planning poker, checked by velocity from burndown charts Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The two methods are used sequentially, not simultaneously b) Is correct. The primary sources of information come from the experienced testers, who are the experts. The consultant’s industry averages augment the original estimate from published metrics c) Is not correct. The expert-based approach is the primary approach, augmented by a metrics-based approach d) Is not correct. We do not know if this project is following Agile methods, and burndown charts do not come from external consultants 28 / 40 28. You are testing a mobile app that allows users to find a nearby restaurant, based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (smaller number is high priority), and dependencies, in the following format: Which of the following is a possible test execution schedule that considers both priorities and dependencies? a) 01.001, 01.002, 01.003, 01.005, 01.004 b) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.003, 01.005 c) 01.003, 01.004, 01.002, 01.001, 01.002 d) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.005, 01.003 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Test 01.001 must come first, followed by 01.002, to satisfy dependencies. Afterwards, 01.004 and 01.003 should be run in either order, followed by 01.005, to satisfy priority. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 29 / 40 29. Which of the following descriptions of statement coverage is CORRECT? a) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of lines of source code exercised by tests b) Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests c) Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of lines of source code (without comments) exercised by tests d) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements exercised by tests. The number of executable statements is often close to the number of lines of code minus the comments, but this option only talks about the number of lines of code exercised and not the proportion exercised b) Is correct. Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements exercised by tests (normally presented as a percentage) c) Is not correct. Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of executable statements exercised by tests, however many of the lines of source code are not executable (e.g., comments) d) Is not correct. Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements exercised by tests. This option only talks about the number of executable statements exercised and not the proportion (or percentage) exercised 30 / 40 30. Which of the following activities is part of the main activity "test analysis" in the test process? a) Identifying any required infrastructure and tools b) Creating test suites from test scripts c) Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement d) Evaluating the test basis for testability Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This activity is performed during the test design activity (test design) b) Is not correct. This activity is performed during the test implementation activity (test implementation) c) Is not correct. This activity is performed during the test completion activity (test completion) d) Is correct. This activity is performed during the test analysis activity (test analysis) 31 / 40 31. How can white-box testing be applied during user acceptance testing? a) To check if large volumes of data can be transferred between integrated systems b) To check if all code statements and code decision paths have been executed c) To check if all work process flows have been covered d) To cover all web page navigations Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Relevant for integration testing b) Is not correct. Relevant for component testing c) Is correct. For acceptance testing, tests are designed to cover all workflows defined in the functional requirements documents. d) Is not correct. Relevant for system testing 32 / 40 32. A batch application has been in production unchanged for over two years. It runs overnight once a month to produce statements that will be e-mailed to customers. For each customer, the application goes through every account and lists every transaction on that account in the last month. It uses a nested-loop structure to process customers (outer loop), each customer’s accounts (middle loop), and each account’s transactions (inner loop). One night, the batch application terminates prematurely, failing to e-mail statements to some customers, when it encounters a customer with one account for which no transactions occurred in the last month. This is a very unusual situation and has not occurred in the years since this application was placed in production. While fixing the defect, a programmer asks you to recommend test techniques that are effective against this kind of defect. Which of the following test techniques would most likely have been able to detect the underlying defect? a) Decision testing b) Statement testing c) Checklist-based testing d) Error guessing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. For a loop construct, statement coverage only requires that all statements within the loop are executed, but decision coverage requires testing of both the conditions where the loop is executed and when it is bypassed b) Is not correct. For a loop construct, statement coverage only requires that all statements within the loop are executed, but decision coverage requires testing of both the conditions where the loop is executed and when it is bypassed c) Is not correct. Checklists are based on experience, defect and failure data, knowledge about what is important for the user, and an understanding of why and how software fails, none of which is likely to have led to the inclusion of such a test condition d) Is not correct. While it is possible that someone might anticipate a developer making the mistaken assumption that there would always be at least one transaction in a month for every account, only decision testing guarantees testing of that condition 33 / 40 33. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes: • There is a role of a scribe • The purpose is to detect potential defects • The review meeting is led by the author • Reviewers find potential defects by individual review • A review report is produced Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used? a) Informal Review b) Walkthrough c) Technical Review d) Inspection Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering the attributes: • There is a role of a scribe – specified for walkthroughs, technical reviews, and inspections; thus, the reviews being performed cannot be informal reviews • The purpose is to detect potential defects – the purpose of detecting potential defects is specified for all types of review. • The review meeting is led by the author – this is not allowed for inspections and is typically not the author for technical reviews, but is part of walkthroughs, and allowed for informal reviews • Reviewers find potential issues by individual review - all types of reviews can include individual review (even informal reviews) • A review report is produced - all types of reviews can produce a review report, although it would be less likely for an informal review Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 34 / 40 34. Consider the following decision table for the portion of an online airline reservation system that allows frequent flyers to redeem points for reward travel: Suppose that there are two equivalence partitions for the condition where “Account/password okay” is not true, one where the account is invalid and another where the account is valid, but the password is invalid. Suppose that there is only one equivalence partition corresponding to the condition where “Account/password okay” is true, where both the account and password are valid. If you want to design tests to cover the equivalence partitions for “Account/password okay” and also for this portion of the decision table, what is the minimum number of tests required? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 9 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There is at least one test for each column in the decision table. However, column one requires two tests, one where the account is invalid and another where the account is valid, but the password is invalid, so the minimum number of tests is four. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is correct d) Is not correct 35 / 40 35. Which of the following provides the BEST description of exploratory testing? a) A testing practice in which an in-depth investigation of the background of the test object is used to identify potential weaknesses that are examined by test cases b) An approach to testing whereby the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests c) An approach to test design in which test activities are planned as uninterrupted sessions of test analysis and design, often used in conjunction with checklist-based testing d) Testing based on the tester's experience, knowledge, and intuition Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Exploratory testing is often carried out when timescales are short, so making in-depth investigations of the background of the test object is unlikely b) Is correct. Glossary definition c) Is not correct. Based on the Glossary definition of session-based testing, but with test execution replaced by test analysis d) Is not correct. Glossary definition of experience-based testing 36 / 40 36. You are working as a tester on an online banking system. Availability is considered one of the top products (quality) risks for the system. You find a reproducible failure that results in customers losing their connections to the bank Web site when transferring funds between common types of accounts and being unable to reconnect for between three and five minutes. Which of the following would be a good summary for a defect report for this failure, one that captures both the essence of the failure and its impact on stakeholders? a) Web server logs show error 0x44AB27 when running test 07.005, which is not an expected error message in /tmp filesystem b) Developers have introduced major availability defect which will seriously upset our customers c) Performance is slow and reliability flaky under load d) Typical funds-transfer transaction results in termination of customer session, with a delay in availability when attempting to reconnect Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While this information is useful for developers, it does not provide managers with a sense of the impact on product quality b) Is not correct. This summary does not provide developers or managers with the necessary information and attacks the developers c) Is not correct. This summary does not provide developers or managers with the necessary information and attacks the developers d) Is correct. This summary gives a good sense of the failure and its impact 37 / 40 37. Which statement about the relationship between statement coverage and decision coverage is true? a) 100% decision coverage also guarantees 100% statement coverage b) 100% statement coverage also guarantees 100% decision coverage c) 50% decision coverage also guarantees 50% statement coverage d) Decision coverage can never reach 100% Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. The statement is true. Achieving 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage b) Is not correct. The statement is false because achieving 100 % statement coverage does not in any case mean that the decision coverage is 100% c) Is not correct. The statement is false because we can only do statements about 100% values d) Is not correct. The statement is false 38 / 40 38. The following statement refers to decision coverage: “When the code contains only a single ‘if’ statement and no loops or CASE statements, and its execution is not nested within the test, any single test case we run will result in 50% decision coverage.” Which of the following statement is correct? a) The statement is true. Any single test case provides 100% statement coverage and therefore 50% decision coverage b) The statement is true. Any single test case would cause the outcome of the “if” statement to be either true or false c) The statement is false. A single test case can only guarantee 25% decision coverage in this case d) The statement is false. The statement is too broad. It may be correct or not, depending on the tested software Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While the given statement is true, the explanation is not. The relationship between statement and decision coverage is misrepresented b) Is correct. Since any test case will cause the outcome of the “if” statement to be either TRUE or FALSE, by definition we achieved 50% decision coverage c) Is not correct. A single test case can give more than 25% decision coverage, this means according to the statement above always 50 % decision coverage d) Is not correct. The statement is specific and always true, because each test case achieves 50 % decision coverage 39 / 40 39. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an incremental development model? a) Defining requirements, designing software and testing are done in phases where in each phase a piece of the system is added b) A phase in the development process should begin when the previous phase is complete c) Testing is viewed as a separate phase which takes place after development has been completed d) Testing is added to development as an increment Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Incremental development involves establishing requirements, designing, building, and testing a system in pieces b) Is not correct. This is a sequential model c) Is not correct. This describes the waterfall model d) Is not correct. Testing alone is not an increment/additional step in the development 40 / 40 40. As a test manager you are responsible for testing the following parts of requirements: • R1 - Process anomalies • R2 - Synchronization • R3 - Approval • R4 - Problem solving • R5 - Financial data • R6 - Diagram data • R7 - Changes to the user profile Notation: Logical requirement dependencies (A -> B means, that B depends on A): Which one of the following options structures the test execution schedule according to the requirement dependencies? a) R1 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 b) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R4 ; R7 ; R5 ; R6 c) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R4 ; R7 d) R1 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. R4 is dependent on R2, so R2 should be tested before R4 b) Is not correct. R4 is dependent on R2, R5 and R6, so R5 and R6 should be tested before R4 c) Is correct. The tests are specified in a sequence that takes the dependencies into account d) Is not correct. R2 is dependent on R3, so R3 should be tested before R2 0% Restart quiz
