2018v3.1 – Exam 4 – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 25, 2024 By

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2018v3.1 - Exam 4

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1. The following statement refers to decision coverage:

“When the code contains only a single ‘if’ statement and no loops or CASE statements, and its execution is not nested within the test, any single test case we run will result in 50% decision coverage.”

Which of the following statement is correct?

a) The statement is true. Any single test case provides 100% statement coverage and therefore 50% decision coverage

b) The statement is true. Any single test case would cause the outcome of the “if” statement to be either true or false

c) The statement is false. A single test case can only guarantee 25% decision coverage in this case

d) The statement is false. The statement is too broad. It may be correct or not, depending on the tested software

Select ONE option.

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2. Which of the following is a typical test objective?

a) Preventing defects

b) Repairing defects

c) Comparing actual results to expected results

d) Analyzing the cause of failure

Select ONE option.

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3. A fitness app measures the number of steps that are walked each day and provides feedback to encourage the user to keep fit.

The feedback for different numbers of steps should be:

Up to 1000 - Couch Potato!
Above 1000, up to 2000 - Lazy Bones!
Above 2000, up to 4000 - Getting There!
Above 4000, up to 6000 - Not Bad!
Above 6000 - Way to Go!

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the BEST equivalence partition coverage?

a) 0, 1000, 2000, 3000, 4000

b) 1000, 2001, 4000, 4001, 6000

c) 123, 2345, 3456, 4567, 5678

d) 666, 999, 2222, 5555, 6666

Select ONE option.

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4. A company's employees are paid bonuses if they work more than a year in the company and achieve a target which is individually agreed before.

These facts can be shown in a decision table:

Which of the following test cases represents a situation that can happen in real life, and is missing in the above decision table?

a) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO

b) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= YES

c) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO

d) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= NO

Select ONE option.

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5. Which one of the following is NOT included in a test summary report?

a) Defining pass/fail criteria and objectives of testing

b) Deviations from the test approach

c) Measurements of actual progress against exit criteria

d) Evaluation of the quality of the test object

Select ONE option.

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6. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independent testing?

a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team, so ensuring everyone is aware that quality is the test team’s overall responsibility

b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines

c) An independent test team can work totally separately from the developers, need not be distracted with changing project requirements, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system

d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer

Select ONE option.

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7. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Impact analysis is useful for confirmation testing during maintenance testing

b) Confirmation testing is useful for regression testing during system design

c) Impact analysis is useful for regression testing during maintenance testing

d) Confirmation testing is useful for impact analysis during maintenance testing

Select ONE option.

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8. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the correction has been successfully implemented, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the correction has no side effects

b) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the system is still working in a new environment

c) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed

d) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the new functionality is working, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed

Select ONE option.

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9. As a result of risk analysis, more testing is being directed to those areas of the system under test where initial testing found more defects than average.

Which of the following testing principles is being applied?

a) Beware of the pesticide paradox

b) Testing is context dependent

c) Absence-of-errors is a fallacy

d) Defects cluster together

Select ONE option.

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10. Which of the following statements on the use of checklists in a formal review is CORRECT?

a) As part of the review planning, the reviewers create the checklists needed for the review

b) As part of the issue communication, the reviewers fill in the checklists provided for the review

c) As part of the review meeting, the reviewers create defect reports based on the checklists provided for the review

d) As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists needed for the review

Select ONE option.

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11. Given that the testing being performed has the following attributes:

• Based on interface specifications
• Focused on finding failures in communication
• The test approach uses both functional and structural test types

Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed?

a) Integration testing

b) Acceptance testing

c) System testing

d) Component testing

Select ONE option.

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12. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units.

Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field?

a) 10.0, 28.0

b) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1

c) 0.2, 0.9, 29.5

d) 12.3

Select ONE option.

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13. Given the following state model of a battery charger software:

Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level of transition coverage for the model?

a) OFF → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → LOW

b) WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE

c) HIGH → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE

d) WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT

Select ONE option.

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14. You are performing system testing of a train reservation system. Based on the test cases performed, you have noticed that the system occasionally reports that no trains are available, although this should be the case. You have provided the developers with a summary of the defect and the version of the tested system. They recognize the urgency of the defect and are now waiting for you to provide further details.

In addition to the information already provided, the following additional information is given:

1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect
2. Identification of the test object
3. Details of the test environment
4. Urgency/priority to fix
5. Actual results
6. Reference to test case specification

Which of this additional information is most useful to include in the defect report?

a) 1, 2, 6

b) 1, 4, 5, 6

c) 2, 3, 4, 5

d) 3, 5, 6

Select ONE option.

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15. You will be invited to a review. The work product to be reviewed is a description of the in-house document creation process. The aim of the description is to present the work distribution between the different roles involved in the process in a way that can be clearly understood by everyone.

You will be invited to a checklist-based review. The checklist will also be sent to you. It includes the following points:

i. Is the person who performs the activity clearly identified for each activity?
ii. Are the entry criteria clearly defined for each activity?
iii. Are the exit criteria clearly defined for each activity?
iv. Are the supporting roles and their scope of work clearly defined for each activity?

In the following we show an excerpt of the work result to be reviewed, for which you should use the checklist above:

"After checking the customer documentation for completeness and correctness, the software architect creates the system specification. Once the software architect has completed the system specification, he invites testers and verifiers to the review. A checklist describes the scope of the review. Each invited reviewer creates review comments - if necessary - and concludes the review with an official review done-comment."

Which of the following statements about your review is correct?

a) Point ii) of the checklist has been violated because it is not clear which condition must be fulfilled to invite to the review

b) You notice that in addition to the tester and the verifier, the validator must also be invited. Since this item is not part of your checklist, you do not create a corresponding comment

c) Point iii) of the checklist has been violated as it is not clear what marks the review as completed

d) Point i) of the checklist has been violated because it is not clear who is providing the checklist for the invitation to the review

Select ONE option.

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16. Which of the following qualities is MORE likely to be found in a tester’s mindset rather than in a developer’s?

a) A tester´s mindset tends to grow and mature as the tester gains experience

b) Ability to see what might go wrong

c) Good communication with team members

d) Focus on getting all things done

Select ONE option.

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17. Which of the following statements about static testing are MOST true?

a) Static testing is a cheap way to detect and remove defects

b) Static testing makes dynamic testing less challenging

c) Static testing makes it possible to find run-time problems early in the lifecycle

d) When testing safety-critical system, static testing has less value because dynamic testing finds the defects better

Select ONE options.

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18. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes:

• There is a role of a scribe
• The purpose is to detect potential defects
• The review meeting is led by the author
• Reviewers find potential defects by individual review
• A review report is produced

Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used?

a) Informal Review

b) Walkthrough

c) Technical Review

d) Inspection

Select ONE option.

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19. Match the following test work products (1-4) with the right description (A-D).

1. Test suite
2. Test case
3. Test script
4. Test charter

A. A set of test scripts to be executed in a specific test run
B. A set of instructions for the execution of a test
C. Contains expected results
D. Documentation of test activities in session-based exploratory testing

a) 1A, 2C, 3B, 4D

b) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C

c) 1A, 2C, 3D, 4B

d) 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A

Select ONE option.

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20. Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

a) Risk level is calculated by adding together the probabilities of all problem situations and the financial harm that results from them

b) Risk level is estimated by multiplying the likelihood of a threat to the system by the chance that the threat will occur and will result in financial damage

c) Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable event and the expected impact of that event

d) Risk level is the sum of all potential hazards to a system multiplied by the sum of all potential losses from that system

Select ONE option.

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21. Programmers often write and execute unit tests against code which they have written. During this self-testing activity, which of the following is a tester mindset that programmers should adopt to perform this unit testing effectively?

a) Good communication skills

b) Code coverage

c) Evaluating code defects

d) Attention to detail

Select ONE option.

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22. In a formal review, what is the role name for the participant who runs an inspection meeting?

a) Facilitator

b) Programmer

c) Author

d) Project manager

Select ONE option.

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23. Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester?

a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and set the tools usage guidelines

b) The test manager plans, coordinates, and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests

c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides on the release of the test object

d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester executes the tests

Select ONE option.

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24. Which one of the statements below describes the most common situation for a failure discovered during testing or in production?

a) The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box

b) The wrong version of a compiled source code file was included in the build

c) The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables

d) The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm

Select ONE option.

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25. Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review?

a) Manager – Decides on the execution of reviews

b) Review Leader - Ensures effective running of review meetings

c) Scribe – Fixes defects in the work product under review

d) Moderator – Monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness

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26. You have been asked to take part in a checklist-based review of the following excerpt from the requirements specification for a library system:

Librarians can:

1. Register new borrowers
2. Return books from borrowers
3. Accept fines from borrowers
4. Add new books to the system with their ISBN, author and title
5. Remove books from the system
6. Get system responses within 5 seconds

Borrowers can:

7. Borrow a maximum of 3 books at one time
8. View the history of books they have borrowed/reserved
9. Be fined for failing to return a book within 3 weeks
10. Get system responses within 3 seconds
11. Borrow a book at no cost for a maximum of 4 weeks
12. Reserve books (if they are on-loan)

All users (librarians and borrowers):

13. Can search for books by ISBN, author, or title
14. Can browse the system catalogue
15. The system shall respond to user requests within 3 seconds
16. The user interface shall be easy-to-use

You have been assigned the checklist entry that requires you to review the specification for inconsistencies between individual requirements (i.e., conflicts between requirements).

Which of the following CORRECTLY identifies inconsistencies between pairs of requirements?

a) 6-10, 6-15, 7-12

b) 6-15, 9-11

c) 6-10, 6-15, 9-11

d) 6-15, 7-12

Select ONE option.

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27. You are testing an unattended gasoline pump that only accepts credit cards. Once the credit card is validated, the pump nozzle placed into the tank, and the desired grade selected, the customer enters the desired amount of fuel in gallons using the keypad. The keypad only allows the entry of digits. Fuel is sold in tenths (0.1) of a gallon, up to 50.0 gallons.

Which of the following is a minimum set of desired amounts that covers the equivalence partitions for this input?

a) 0.0, 20.0, 60.0

b) 0.0, 0.1, 50.0

c) 0.0, 0.1, 50.0, 70.0

d) -0.1, 0.0, 0.1, 49.9, 50.0, 50.1

Select ONE option.

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28. Consider a mobile app that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. A user story has just been added to the set of features that checks customers’ social media accounts and bank records to give personalized greetings on birthdays and other personal milestones. Which of the following test techniques could a PROGRAMMER use during a unit test of the code to ensure that coverage of situations when the greetings ARE supposed to occur and when the greetings ARE NOT supposed to occur?

a) Statement testing

b) Exploratory testing

c) State transition testing

d) Decision testing

Select ONE option.

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29. You are testing a mobile app that allows users to find a nearby restaurant, based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (smaller number is high priority), and dependencies, in the following format:

Which of the following is a possible test execution schedule that considers both priorities and dependencies?

a) 01.001, 01.002, 01.003, 01.005, 01.004

b) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.003, 01.005

c) 01.003, 01.004, 01.002, 01.001, 01.002

d) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.005, 01.003

Select ONE option.

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30. Which of the following is an example of a failure in a car cruise control system?

a) The developer of the system forgot to rename variables after a cut-and-paste operation

b) Unnecessary code that sounds an alarm when reversing was included in the system

c) The system stops maintaining a set speed when the radio volume is increased or decreased

d) The design specification for the system wrongly states speeds

Select ONE option.

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31. During a period of intensive project overtime, a system architecture document is sent to various project participants, announcing a previously unplanned technical review to occur in one week. No adjustments are made to the participants’ list of assigned tasks. Based on this information alone, which of the following is a factor for review success that is MISSING?

a) Appropriate review type

b) Adequate time to prepare

c) Sufficient metrics to evaluate the author

d) Well-managed review meeting

Select ONE option.

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32. A speed control and reporting system has the following characteristics:

• If you drive 50 km/h or less, nothing will happen.
• If you drive faster than 50 km/h, but no more than 55 km/h, you will be warned.
• If you drive faster than 55 km/h but not more than 60 km/h, you will be fined.
• If you drive faster than 60 km/h, your driving license will be suspended.
• The speed in km/h is available to the system as an integer value.

Which would be the most likely set of values (km/h) identified by applying the boundary value analysis, where only the values on the boundaries of the equivalence classes are selected?

a) 0, 49, 50, 54, 59, 60

b) 50, 55, 60

c) 49, 50, 54, 55, 60, 62

d) 50, 51, 55, 56, 60, 61

Select ONE option.

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33. Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PRODUCT risk?

a) The expected security features may not be supported by the system architecture

b) The developers may not have time to fix all the defects found by the test team

c) The test cases may not provide full coverage of the specified requirements

d) The performance test environment may not be ready before the system is due for delivery

Select ONE option.

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34. Which of the following provides the definition of the term test case?

a) Subset of the value domain of a variable within a component or system in which all values are expected to be treated the same based on the specification

b) A set of preconditions, inputs, actions, expected results and post conditions, developed based on test conditions

c) Work products produced during the test process for use in planning, designing, executing, evaluating, and reporting on testing

d) A source to determine an expected result to compare with the actual result of the system under test

Select ONE option.

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35. Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case?

a) Test cases are created to exercise defined basic, exceptional and error behaviors performed by the system under test in collaboration with actors

b) Test cases are derived by identifying the components included in the use case and creating integration tests that exercise the interactions of these components

c) Test cases are generated by analyzing the interactions of the actors with the system to ensure the user interfaces are easy to use

d) Test cases are derived to exercise each of the decision points in the business process flows of the use case, to achieve 100% decision coverage of these flows

Select ONE option.

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36. Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the test manager?

a) Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing

b) Review tests developed by others

c) Prepare and acquire test data

d) Analyze, review, and assess requirements, specifications, and models for testability

Select ONE option.

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37. Which one of the following is the description of statement coverage?

a) It is a metric, which is the percentage of test cases that have been executed

b) It is a metric, which is the percentage of statements in the source code that have been executed

c) It is a metric, which is the number of statements in the source code that have been executed by test cases that are passed

d) It is a metric, that gives a true/false confirmation if all statements are covered or not

Select ONE option.

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38. An employee’s bonus is to be calculated. It cannot be negative, but it can be calculated down to zero. The bonus is based on the length of employment:

• Less than or equal to 2 years
• More than 2 years but less than 5 years
• 5 to 10 years inclusively
• Longer than 10 years

What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for calculating the bonus?

a) 3

b) 5

c) 2

d) 4

Select ONE option.

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39. Which of the following statements BEST compares the purposes of confirmation testing and regression testing?

a) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that all previously run tests still work correctly, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to ensure that any fixes made to one part of the system have not adversely affected other parts

b) The purpose of confirmation testing is to check that a previously found defect has been fixed, while the purpose of regression testing is to ensure that no other parts of the system have been adversely affected by the fix

c) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that any changes to one part of the system have not caused another part to fail, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check that all previously run tests still provide the same results as before

d) The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that changes to the system were made successfully, while the purpose of regression testing is to run tests that previously failed to ensure that they now work correctly

Select ONE option.

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40. Which of the following provides the BEST description of exploratory testing?

a) A testing practice in which an in-depth investigation of the background of the test object is used to identify potential weaknesses that are examined by test cases

b) An approach to testing whereby the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests

c) An approach to test design in which test activities are planned as uninterrupted sessions of test analysis and design, often used in conjunction with checklist-based testing

d) Testing based on the tester's experience, knowledge, and intuition

Select ONE option.

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