2018v3.1 – Exam 4 – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 25, 2024 By

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2018v3.1 - Exam 4

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1. Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PRODUCT risk?

a) The expected security features may not be supported by the system architecture

b) The developers may not have time to fix all the defects found by the test team

c) The test cases may not provide full coverage of the specified requirements

d) The performance test environment may not be ready before the system is due for delivery

Select ONE option.

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2. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and debugging?

a) Testing identifies the source of defects; debugging analyzes the defects and proposes prevention activities

b) Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects; debugging eliminates the defects, which are the source of failures

c) Testing removes faults; but debugging removes defects that cause the faults

d) Dynamic testing prevents the causes of failures; debugging removes the failures

Select ONE option.

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3. The project develops a "smart" heating thermostat. The control algorithms of the thermostat were modeled as Matlab/Simulink models and run on the internet connected server. The thermostat uses the specifications of the server to trigger the heating valves.

The test manager has defined the following test strategy/approach in the test plan:

1. The acceptance test for the whole system is executed as an experience-based test.
2. The control algorithms on the server are checked against standard of the energy saving regulation.
3. The functional test of the thermostat is performed as risk-based testing.
4. The security tests of data / communication via the internet are executed together with external security experts.

What four common types of test strategies/approaches did the test manager implement in the test plan?

a) Methodical, analytical, reactive, and regression-averse

b) Analytical, standard-compliant, consultative, and reactive

c) Model-based, methodical, analytical, and consultative

d) Regression-averse, consultative, reactive, and methodical

Select ONE option.

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4. Which of the following is a typical test objective?

a) Preventing defects

b) Repairing defects

c) Comparing actual results to expected results

d) Analyzing the cause of failure

Select ONE option.

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5. Which of the review types below is the BEST option to choose when the review must follow a formal process based on rules and checklists?

a) Informal Review

b) Technical Review

c) Inspection

d) Walkthrough

Select ONE option.

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6. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the unit’s field is 0.1 units.

Which of the following is a set of input values that cover the boundary values with two-point boundary values for this field?

a) 0.3, 10.0, 28.0

b) 0.4, 0.5, 0.6, 24, 9, 25, 0, 25.1

c) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0 25.1

d) 0.5, 0.6, 24.9, 25.0

Select ONE option.

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7. A mass market operating system software product is designed to run on any PC hardware with an x86-family processor. You are running a set of tests to look for defects related to support of the various PCs that use such a processor and to build confidence that important PC brands will work. What type of test are you performing?

a) Performance test

b) Processor test

c) Functional test

d) Portability test

Select ONE option.

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8. Which one of the following is the description of statement coverage?

a) It is a metric, which is the percentage of test cases that have been executed

b) It is a metric, which is the percentage of statements in the source code that have been executed

c) It is a metric, which is the number of statements in the source code that have been executed by test cases that are passed

d) It is a metric, that gives a true/false confirmation if all statements are covered or not

Select ONE option.

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9. Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing?

a) Error guessing requires you to imagine you are the user of the test object and guess mistakes the user could make interacting with it

b) Error guessing involves using your personal experience of development and the mistakes you made as a developer

c) Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past and typical mistakes made by developers

d) Error guessing requires you to rapidly duplicate the development task to identify the sort of mistakes a developer might make

Select ONE option.

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10. Which of the following statements comparing component testing and system testing is TRUE?

a) Component testing verifies the functionality of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system

b) Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications or use cases

c) Component testing only focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics

d) Component testing is the responsibility of the testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system

Select ONE option.

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11. Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the test manager?

a) Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing

b) Review tests developed by others

c) Prepare and acquire test data

d) Analyze, review, and assess requirements, specifications, and models for testability

Select ONE option.

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12. Which activities are carried out within the planning of a formal review?

a) Collection of metrics for the evaluation of the effectiveness of the review

b) Answer any questions the participants may have

c) Definition and Verification of fulfillment of entry criteria for the review

d) Evaluation of the review findings against the exit criteria

Select ONE option.

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13. What is checklist-based testing?

a) A test technique in which tests are derived based on the tester's knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures

b) A test technique based on an analysis of the specification of a component or system

c) An experience-based test technique whereby the experienced tester uses a list of items to be noted, checked, or remembered, or a set of rules or criteria against which a product must be verified

d) An approach to testing where the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests

Select ONE option.

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14. You are testing a mobile app that allows users to find a nearby restaurant, based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (smaller number is high priority), and dependencies, in the following format:

Which of the following is a possible test execution schedule that considers both priorities and dependencies?

a) 01.001, 01.002, 01.003, 01.005, 01.004

b) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.003, 01.005

c) 01.003, 01.004, 01.002, 01.001, 01.002

d) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.005, 01.003

Select ONE option.

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15. Which of the following metrics would be MOST useful to monitor during test execution?

a) Percentage of executed test cases

b) Average number of testers involved in the test execution

c) Coverage of requirements by source code

d) Percentage of test cases already created and reviewed

Select ONE option.

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16. You are engaged in planning a test effort for a new mobile banking application. As part of estimation, you first meet with the proposed testers and others on the project. The team is well-coordinated and has already worked on similar projects. To verify the resulting estimate, you then refer to some industry averages for testing effort and costs on similar projects, published by a reputable consultant.

Which statement accurately describes your estimation approach?

a) A simultaneous expert-based and metrics-based approach

b) Primarily an expert-based approach, augmented with a metrics-based approach

c) Primarily a metrics-based approach, augmented with an expert-based approach

d) Primarily planning poker, checked by velocity from burndown charts

Select ONE option.

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17. In a formal review, what is the role name for the participant who runs an inspection meeting?

a) Facilitator

b) Programmer

c) Author

d) Project manager

Select ONE option.

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18. Given the following statements about the relationships between software development activities and test activities in the software development lifecycle:

1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity
2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available
3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding development activity
4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development lifecycle

Which of the following CORRECTLY shows which are true and false?

a) True – 1, 2; False – 3, 4

b) True – 2, 3; False – 1, 4

c) True – 1, 2, 4; False – 3

d) True – 1, 4; False – 2, 3

Select ONE option.

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19. Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case?

a) Test cases are created to exercise defined basic, exceptional and error behaviors performed by the system under test in collaboration with actors

b) Test cases are derived by identifying the components included in the use case and creating integration tests that exercise the interactions of these components

c) Test cases are generated by analyzing the interactions of the actors with the system to ensure the user interfaces are easy to use

d) Test cases are derived to exercise each of the decision points in the business process flows of the use case, to achieve 100% decision coverage of these flows

Select ONE option.

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20. A product owner says that your role as a tester on an Agile team is to catch all the bugs before the end of each iteration. Which of the following is a testing principle that could be used to respond to this (false) statement?

a) Defect clustering

b) Testing shows the presence of defects

c) Absence of error fallacy

d) Root cause analysis

Select ONE option.

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21. Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review?

a) Manager – Decides on the execution of reviews

b) Review Leader - Ensures effective running of review meetings

c) Scribe – Fixes defects in the work product under review

d) Moderator – Monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness

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22. Consider the following types of defects that a test level might focus on:

a) Defects in separately testable modules or objects
b) Not focused on identifying defects
c) Defects in interfaces and interactions
d) Defects in the whole test object

Which of the following list correctly matches test levels from the Foundation syllabus with the defect focus options given above?

a) 1 = performance test; 2 = component test; 3 = system test; 4 = acceptance test

b) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = system test; 4 = integration test

c) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = integration test; 4 = system test

d) 1 = integration test; 2 = system test; 3 = component test; 4 = acceptance test

Select ONE option.

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23. Which statement about the relationship between statement coverage and decision coverage is true?

a) 100% decision coverage also guarantees 100% statement coverage

b) 100% statement coverage also guarantees 100% decision coverage

c) 50% decision coverage also guarantees 50% statement coverage

d) Decision coverage can never reach 100%

Select ONE option.

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24. You are working as a tester on an online banking system. Availability is considered one of the top products (quality) risks for the system. You find a reproducible failure that results in customers losing their connections to the bank Web site when transferring funds between common types of accounts and being unable to reconnect for between three and five minutes.

Which of the following would be a good summary for a defect report for this failure, one that captures both the essence of the failure and its impact on stakeholders?

a) Web server logs show error 0x44AB27 when running test 07.005, which is not an expected error message in /tmp filesystem

b) Developers have introduced major availability defect which will seriously upset our customers

c) Performance is slow and reliability flaky under load

d) Typical funds-transfer transaction results in termination of customer session, with a delay in availability when attempting to reconnect

Select ONE option.

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25. Which of the following options are roles in a formal review?

a) Developer, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Tester

b) Author, Moderator, Manager, Reviewer, Developer

c) Author, Manager, Review leader, Reviewer, Designer

d) Author, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Scribe

Select ONE option.

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26. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independent testing?

a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team, so ensuring everyone is aware that quality is the test team’s overall responsibility

b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines

c) An independent test team can work totally separately from the developers, need not be distracted with changing project requirements, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system

d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer

Select ONE option.

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27. Which of the following is a typical objective of testing?

a) To find defects and failures

b) To validate the project plan works as required

c) Ensuring of complete testing

d) Comparing actual results with expected results

Select ONE option.

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28. For which of the following situations is exploratory testing suitable?

a) When time pressure requires speeding up the execution of tests already specified

b) When the system is developed incrementally, and no test charter is available

c) When testers are available who have enough knowledge of similar applications and technologies

d) When an advanced knowledge of the system already exists, and evidence is to be if it should be tested intensively

Select ONE option.

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29. Which of the following descriptions of statement coverage is CORRECT?

a) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of lines of source code exercised by tests

b) Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests

c) Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of lines of source code (without comments) exercised by tests

d) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests

Select ONE option.

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30. A tester participated in a discussion about proposed database structure. The tester identified a potential performance problem related to certain common user searches. This possible problem was explained to the development team. Which of the following is a testing contribution to success that BEST matches this situation?

a) Enabling required tests to be identified at an early stage

b) Ensuring processes are carried out properly

c) Reducing the risk of fundamental design defects

d) Reducing the risk of untestable functionality

Select ONE option.

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31. Which one of the following is NOT included in a test summary report?

a) Defining pass/fail criteria and objectives of testing

b) Deviations from the test approach

c) Measurements of actual progress against exit criteria

d) Evaluation of the quality of the test object

Select ONE option.

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32. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the correction has been successfully implemented, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the correction has no side effects

b) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the system is still working in a new environment

c) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed

d) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the new functionality is working, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed

Select ONE option.

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33. Which of the following are two factors that can be used to determine the level of risk?

a) Testing and development

b) Dynamic and reactive

c) Statement and decision

d) Likelihood and impact

Select ONE option.

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34. You are testing an unattended gasoline pump that only accepts credit cards. Once the credit card is validated, the pump nozzle placed into the tank, and the desired grade selected, the customer enters the desired amount of fuel in gallons using the keypad. The keypad only allows the entry of digits. Fuel is sold in tenths (0.1) of a gallon, up to 50.0 gallons.

Which of the following is a minimum set of desired amounts that covers the equivalence partitions for this input?

a) 0.0, 20.0, 60.0

b) 0.0, 0.1, 50.0

c) 0.0, 0.1, 50.0, 70.0

d) -0.1, 0.0, 0.1, 49.9, 50.0, 50.1

Select ONE option.

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35. Given the following test activities and test tools:

1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis
2. Test execution and logging
3. Management of testing and testware
4. Test design
A. Code coverage tools

B. Dynamic analysis tools
C. Test data preparation tools
D. Defect management tools

Which of the following BEST matches the activities and tools?

a) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A

b) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D

c) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C

d) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – C

Select ONE option.

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36. Which of the following is an example of a failure in a car cruise control system?

a) The developer of the system forgot to rename variables after a cut-and-paste operation

b) Unnecessary code that sounds an alarm when reversing was included in the system

c) The system stops maintaining a set speed when the radio volume is increased or decreased

d) The design specification for the system wrongly states speeds

Select ONE option.

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37. A phone ringing momentarily distracts a programmer, causing the programmer to improperly program the logic that checks the upper boundary of an input variable. Later, during system testing, a tester notices that this input field accepts invalid input values. The improperly coded logic for the upper boundary check is:

a) The root-cause

b) The failure

c) The error

d) The defect

Select ONE option.

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38. Which of the following tools is most useful for reporting test metrics?

a) Test management tool

b) Static analysis tool

c) Coverage tool

d) Model-Based testing tools

Select ONE option.

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39. You are reading a user story in the product backlog to prepare for a meeting with the product owner and a developer, noting potential defects as you go. Which of the following statements is true about this activity?

a) It is not a static test, because static testing involves execution of the test object

b) It is not a static test, because static testing is always performed using a tool

c) It is a static test, because any defects you find could be found cheaper during dynamic testing

d) It is a static test because static testing does not involve execution of the test object

Select ONE option.

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40. During an Agile development effort, a product owner discovers a previously unknown regulatory requirement that applies to most of the user stories within a particular epic. The user stories are updated to provide for the necessary changes in software behavior. The programmers on the team are modifying the code appropriately. As a tester on the team, what types of tests will you run?

a) Confirmation tests

b) Regression tests

c) Functional tests

d) Change-related tests

Select ONE option.

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