2018v3.1 – Exam 4 – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 25, 2024 By

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2018v3.1 - Exam 4

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1. Which of the following is a common test metric often used to monitor BOTH test preparation and test execution?

a) Test case status

b) Defect find/fix rates

c) Test environment preparation

d) Estimated cost to find the next defect

Select ONE option.

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2. You are testing a mobile app that allows users to find a nearby restaurant, based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (smaller number is high priority), and dependencies, in the following format:

Which of the following is a possible test execution schedule that considers both priorities and dependencies?

a) 01.001, 01.002, 01.003, 01.005, 01.004

b) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.003, 01.005

c) 01.003, 01.004, 01.002, 01.001, 01.002

d) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.005, 01.003

Select ONE option.

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3. Which of the following are two factors that can be used to determine the level of risk?

a) Testing and development

b) Dynamic and reactive

c) Statement and decision

d) Likelihood and impact

Select ONE option.

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4. A fitness app measures the number of steps that are walked each day and provides feedback to encourage the user to keep fit.

The feedback for different numbers of steps should be:

Up to 1000 - Couch Potato!
Above 1000, up to 2000 - Lazy Bones!
Above 2000, up to 4000 - Getting There!
Above 4000, up to 6000 - Not Bad!
Above 6000 - Way to Go!

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the BEST equivalence partition coverage?

a) 0, 1000, 2000, 3000, 4000

b) 1000, 2001, 4000, 4001, 6000

c) 123, 2345, 3456, 4567, 5678

d) 666, 999, 2222, 5555, 6666

Select ONE option.

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5. Mr. Test has been testing software applications on mobile devices for a period of 5 years. He has a wealth of experience in testing mobile applications and achieves better results in a shorter time than others. Over several months, Mr. Test did not modify the existing automated test cases and did not create any new test cases. This leads to fewer and fewer defects being found by executing the tests. What principle of testing did Mr. Test not observe?

a) Testing depends on the environment

b) Exhaustive testing is not possible

c) Repeating of same tests will not find new defects

d) Defects cluster together

Select ONE option.

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6. Which of the following statements comparing component testing and system testing is TRUE?

a) Component testing verifies the functionality of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system

b) Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications or use cases

c) Component testing only focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics

d) Component testing is the responsibility of the testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system

Select ONE option.

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7. Consider the following state transition diagram for a credit-card only, unattended gasoline pump:

Assume that you want to develop the minimum number of tests to cover each transition in the state transition diagram. Assume further that each test must start at the beginning state, waiting for customer, and each test ends when a transition arrives at the beginning state. How many tests do you need?

a) 4

b) 7

c) 1

d) Infinite

Select ONE option.

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8. Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques?

1. Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test object
2. The processing within the test object is checked
3. Tests are based on defects’ likelihood and their distribution
4. Deviations from the requirements are checked
5. User stories are used as the test basis

Using notation for the following 4 options:

Black - Black-box test techniques
White - White-box test techniques
Experience - Experience-based test techniques

a) Black – 4, 5 White – 1, 2; Experience – 3

b) Black – 3 White – 1, 2; Experience – 4, 5

c) Black – 4 White – 1, 2; Experience – 3, 5

d) Black – 1, 3, 5 White – 2; Experience – 4

Select ONE option.

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9. How can white-box testing be applied during user acceptance testing?

a) To check if large volumes of data can be transferred between integrated systems

b) To check if all code statements and code decision paths have been executed

c) To check if all work process flows have been covered

d) To cover all web page navigations

Select ONE option.

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10. Given the following state model of a battery charger software:

Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level of transition coverage for the model?

a) OFF → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → LOW

b) WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE

c) HIGH → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE

d) WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT

Select ONE option.

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11. You are testing a mobile app that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. You are running a test suite that involves evaluating each screen and each field on each screen against a general list of user interface best practices, derived from a popular book on the topic, that maximize attractiveness, ease-of-use, and accessibility for such apps. Which of the following options BEST categorizes the test technique you are using?

a) Specification-based

b) Exploratory

c) Checklist-based

d) Error guessing

Select ONE option.

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12. The following statement refers to decision coverage:

“When the code contains only a single ‘if’ statement and no loops or CASE statements, and its execution is not nested within the test, any single test case we run will result in 50% decision coverage.”

Which of the following statement is correct?

a) The statement is true. Any single test case provides 100% statement coverage and therefore 50% decision coverage

b) The statement is true. Any single test case would cause the outcome of the “if” statement to be either true or false

c) The statement is false. A single test case can only guarantee 25% decision coverage in this case

d) The statement is false. The statement is too broad. It may be correct or not, depending on the tested software

Select ONE option.

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13. In what way can testing be part of Quality Assurance?

a) It ensures that requirements are detailed enough

b) Testing reduces the risk of poor software quality

c) It ensures that standards in the organization are followed

d) It measures the quality of software in terms of number of executed test cases

Select ONE option.

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14. Which of the following is a typical test objective?

a) Preventing defects

b) Repairing defects

c) Comparing actual results to expected results

d) Analyzing the cause of failure

Select ONE option.

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15. Which of the following BEST describes how value is added by maintaining traceability between the test basis and test artifacts?

a) Maintenance testing can be fully automated based on changes to the initial requirements

b) It is possible to determine if a new test case has increased coverage of the requirements

c) Test managers can identify which testers found the highest severity defects

d) Areas that may be impacted by side-effects of a change can be targeted by confirmation testing

Select ONE option.

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16. Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case?

a) Test cases are created to exercise defined basic, exceptional and error behaviors performed by the system under test in collaboration with actors

b) Test cases are derived by identifying the components included in the use case and creating integration tests that exercise the interactions of these components

c) Test cases are generated by analyzing the interactions of the actors with the system to ensure the user interfaces are easy to use

d) Test cases are derived to exercise each of the decision points in the business process flows of the use case, to achieve 100% decision coverage of these flows

Select ONE option.

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17. Which one of the following options is categorized as a black-box test technique?

a) A technique based on analysis of the architecture

b) A technique checking that the test object is working according to the detailed design

c) A technique based on the knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures

d) A technique based on formal requirements

Select ONE option

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18. Which activities are carried out within the planning of a formal review?

a) Collection of metrics for the evaluation of the effectiveness of the review

b) Answer any questions the participants may have

c) Definition and Verification of fulfillment of entry criteria for the review

d) Evaluation of the review findings against the exit criteria

Select ONE option.

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19. Which of the following qualities is MORE likely to be found in a tester’s mindset rather than in a developer’s?

a) A tester´s mindset tends to grow and mature as the tester gains experience

b) Ability to see what might go wrong

c) Good communication with team members

d) Focus on getting all things done

Select ONE option.

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20. Which of the following can affect and be part of the (initial) test planning?

a) Budget limitations

b) Test log

c) Failure rate

d) Use cases

Select ONE options.

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21. Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT?

a) With the metrics-based approach, the estimate is based on test measures from the project and so this estimate is only available after the testing starts

b) With the expert-based approach, a group of expert users identified by the client recommends the necessary testing budget

c) With the expert-based approach, the test managers responsible for the different testing activities predict the expected testing effort

d) With the metrics-based approach, an average of the testing costs recorded from several past projects is used as the testing budget

Select ONE option.

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22. A speed control and reporting system has the following characteristics:

• If you drive 50 km/h or less, nothing will happen.
• If you drive faster than 50 km/h, but no more than 55 km/h, you will be warned.
• If you drive faster than 55 km/h but not more than 60 km/h, you will be fined.
• If you drive faster than 60 km/h, your driving license will be suspended.
• The speed in km/h is available to the system as an integer value.

Which would be the most likely set of values (km/h) identified by applying the boundary value analysis, where only the values on the boundaries of the equivalence classes are selected?

a) 0, 49, 50, 54, 59, 60

b) 50, 55, 60

c) 49, 50, 54, 55, 60, 62

d) 50, 51, 55, 56, 60, 61

Select ONE option.

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23. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes:

• There is a role of a scribe
• The purpose is to detect potential defects
• The review meeting is led by the author
• Reviewers find potential defects by individual review
• A review report is produced

Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used?

a) Informal Review

b) Walkthrough

c) Technical Review

d) Inspection

Select ONE option.

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24. Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester?

a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and set the tools usage guidelines

b) The test manager plans, coordinates, and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests

c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides on the release of the test object

d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester executes the tests

Select ONE option.

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25. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and debugging?

a) Testing identifies the source of defects; debugging analyzes the defects and proposes prevention activities

b) Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects; debugging eliminates the defects, which are the source of failures

c) Testing removes faults; but debugging removes defects that cause the faults

d) Dynamic testing prevents the causes of failures; debugging removes the failures

Select ONE option.

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26. You are performing system testing of a train reservation system. Based on the test cases performed, you have noticed that the system occasionally reports that no trains are available, although this should be the case. You have provided the developers with a summary of the defect and the version of the tested system. They recognize the urgency of the defect and are now waiting for you to provide further details.

In addition to the information already provided, the following additional information is given:

1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect
2. Identification of the test object
3. Details of the test environment
4. Urgency/priority to fix
5. Actual results
6. Reference to test case specification

Which of this additional information is most useful to include in the defect report?

a) 1, 2, 6

b) 1, 4, 5, 6

c) 2, 3, 4, 5

d) 3, 5, 6

Select ONE option.

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27. Which of the following is an example of a task that can be carried out as part of the test process?

a) Analyzing a defect

b) Designing test data

c) Assigning a version to a test item

d) Writing a user story

Select ONE option.

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28. Which of the following is a true statement about exploratory testing?

a) More experienced testers who have tested similar applications and technologies are likely to do better than less experienced testers at exploratory testing

b) Exploratory testing does not identify any additional tests beyond those that would result from formal test techniques

c) The time required to complete an exploratory testing session cannot be predicted in advance

d) Exploratory testing can involve the use of black-box techniques but not white-box techniques

Select ONE option.

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29. Which of the following statements about test types and test levels is CORRECT?

a) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing

b) Functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component testing

c) It is possible to perform functional, non-functional and white-box testing at any test level

d) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing

Select ONE option.

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30. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of product risk analysis CORRECTLY influencing the testing?

a) The potential impact of security flaws has been identified as being particularly high, so security testing has been prioritized ahead of some other testing activities

b) Testing has found the quality of the network module to be higher than expected, so additional testing will be performed in that area

c) The users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, so additional usability testing is planned for the replacement system

d) The time needed to load web pages is crucial to the success of the new website, so an expert in performance testing has been employed for this project

Select ONE option.

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31. Consider the following types of defects that a test level might focus on:

a) Defects in separately testable modules or objects
b) Not focused on identifying defects
c) Defects in interfaces and interactions
d) Defects in the whole test object

Which of the following list correctly matches test levels from the Foundation syllabus with the defect focus options given above?

a) 1 = performance test; 2 = component test; 3 = system test; 4 = acceptance test

b) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = system test; 4 = integration test

c) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = integration test; 4 = system test

d) 1 = integration test; 2 = system test; 3 = component test; 4 = acceptance test

Select ONE option.

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32. Which of the following descriptions of decision coverage is CORRECT?

a) Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of possible paths through the source code exercised by tests

b) Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of business flows through the component exercised by tests

c) Decision coverage is a measure of the ‘if’ statements in the code that are exercised with both the true and false outcomes

d) Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes in the source code exercised by tests

Select ONE option.

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33. Which of the following statements BEST compares the purposes of confirmation testing and regression testing?

a) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that all previously run tests still work correctly, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to ensure that any fixes made to one part of the system have not adversely affected other parts

b) The purpose of confirmation testing is to check that a previously found defect has been fixed, while the purpose of regression testing is to ensure that no other parts of the system have been adversely affected by the fix

c) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that any changes to one part of the system have not caused another part to fail, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check that all previously run tests still provide the same results as before

d) The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that changes to the system were made successfully, while the purpose of regression testing is to run tests that previously failed to ensure that they now work correctly

Select ONE option.

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34. Which of the following descriptions of statement coverage is CORRECT?

a) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of lines of source code exercised by tests

b) Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests

c) Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of lines of source code (without comments) exercised by tests

d) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests

Select ONE option.

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35. Which of the following activities is part of the main activity "test analysis" in the test process?

a) Identifying any required infrastructure and tools

b) Creating test suites from test scripts

c) Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement

d) Evaluating the test basis for testability

Select ONE option.

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36. Which of the following tools is most useful for reporting test metrics?

a) Test management tool

b) Static analysis tool

c) Coverage tool

d) Model-Based testing tools

Select ONE option.

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37. Which of the following provides the BEST description of exploratory testing?

a) A testing practice in which an in-depth investigation of the background of the test object is used to identify potential weaknesses that are examined by test cases

b) An approach to testing whereby the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests

c) An approach to test design in which test activities are planned as uninterrupted sessions of test analysis and design, often used in conjunction with checklist-based testing

d) Testing based on the tester's experience, knowledge, and intuition

Select ONE option.

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38. Which of the following statements about static testing are MOST true?

a) Static testing is a cheap way to detect and remove defects

b) Static testing makes dynamic testing less challenging

c) Static testing makes it possible to find run-time problems early in the lifecycle

d) When testing safety-critical system, static testing has less value because dynamic testing finds the defects better

Select ONE options.

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39. Which of the following statements on the use of checklists in a formal review is CORRECT?

a) As part of the review planning, the reviewers create the checklists needed for the review

b) As part of the issue communication, the reviewers fill in the checklists provided for the review

c) As part of the review meeting, the reviewers create defect reports based on the checklists provided for the review

d) As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists needed for the review

Select ONE option.

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40. Given the following statements about the relationships between software development activities and test activities in the software development lifecycle:

1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity
2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available
3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding development activity
4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development lifecycle

Which of the following CORRECTLY shows which are true and false?

a) True – 1, 2; False – 3, 4

b) True – 2, 3; False – 1, 4

c) True – 1, 2, 4; False – 3

d) True – 1, 4; False – 2, 3

Select ONE option.

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