ISTQB Learning

Test your knowledge

0%
2
Created on By Admin

2018v3.1 - Exam 4

1 / 40

1. Which of the following is a typical test objective?

Select ONE option.

2 / 40

2. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units.

Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field?

Select ONE option.

3 / 40

3. Programmers often write and execute unit tests against code which they have written. During this self-testing activity, which of the following is a tester mindset that programmers should adopt to perform this unit testing effectively?

Select ONE option.

4 / 40

4. You are working on a video game development project, using Agile methods. It is based on Greek mythology and history, and players can play key roles in scenarios such as the battles between the Greeks and Trojans.

Consider the following user story and its associated acceptance criteria:

As a player,
I want to be able to acquire the Rod of Midas (a new magic object),
so that I can turn objects and other players into gold
AC1: The Rod must work on any object or player, no matter what size, which can be touched anywhere by the player holding the Rod
AC2: Holding the Rod does not change the player holding it into gold
AC3: Any object or player touched by the Rod transforms completely into gold within one millisecond
AC4: The Rod appears as shown in Prototype O.W.RoM
AC5: The transformation starts at the point of contact with the Rod and moves at a rate of one meter per millisecond

You are participating in a checklist-based review session of this user story.

This user story and its associated acceptance criteria contain which of the following typical defects identified by static testing in this type of work product?

Select ONE option.

5 / 40

5. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and debugging?

Select ONE option.

6 / 40

6. Which of the following is a true statement about exploratory testing?

Select ONE option.

7 / 40

7. You have just completed a pilot project for a regression testing tool. You understand the tool much better and have tailored your testing process to it. You have standardized an approach to using the tool and its associated work products. Which of the following is a typical test automation pilot project goal that remains to be carried out?

Select ONE option.

8 / 40

8. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes:

• There is a role of a scribe
• The purpose is to detect potential defects
• The review meeting is led by the author
• Reviewers find potential defects by individual review
• A review report is produced

Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used?

Select ONE option.

9 / 40

9. Prior to an iteration planning session, you are studying a user story and its acceptance criteria, deriving test conditions and associated test cases from the user story as a way of applying the principle of early QA and test. What test technique are you applying?

Select ONE option.

10 / 40

10. Which of the following statements about the given state transition diagram and table of test cases is TRUE?

Select ONE option.

11 / 40

11. Which one of the statements below describes the most common situation for a failure discovered during testing or in production?

Select ONE option.

12 / 40

12. Which of the following descriptions of statement coverage is CORRECT?

Select ONE option.

13 / 40

13. As a result of risk analysis, more testing is being directed to those areas of the system under test where initial testing found more defects than average.

Which of the following testing principles is being applied?

Select ONE option.

14 / 40

14. For which of the following situations is exploratory testing suitable?

Select ONE option.

15 / 40

15. During a project following Agile methods, you find a discrepancy between the developer’s interpretation of an acceptance criteria and the product owner’s interpretation, which you bring up during a user story refinement session. Which of the following is a benefit of test independence exemplified by this situation?

Select ONE option.

16 / 40

16. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of product risk analysis CORRECTLY influencing the testing?

Select ONE option.

17 / 40

17. Which of the following statements BEST compares the purposes of confirmation testing and regression testing?

Select ONE option.

18 / 40

18. An employee’s bonus is to be calculated. It cannot be negative, but it can be calculated down to zero. The bonus is based on the length of employment:

• Less than or equal to 2 years
• More than 2 years but less than 5 years
• 5 to 10 years inclusively
• Longer than 10 years

What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for calculating the bonus?

Select ONE option.

19 / 40

19. As a test manager you are responsible for testing the following parts of requirements:

• R1 - Process anomalies
• R2 - Synchronization
• R3 - Approval
• R4 - Problem solving
• R5 - Financial data
• R6 - Diagram data
• R7 - Changes to the user profile

Notation: Logical requirement dependencies (A -> B means, that B depends on A):

Which one of the following options structures the test execution schedule according to the requirement dependencies?

Select ONE option.

20 / 40

20. Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing?

Select ONE option.

21 / 40

21. Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the test manager?

Select ONE option.

22 / 40

22. In what way can testing be part of Quality Assurance?

Select ONE option.

23 / 40

23. You have been asked to take part in a checklist-based review of the following excerpt from the requirements specification for a library system:

Librarians can:

1. Register new borrowers
2. Return books from borrowers
3. Accept fines from borrowers
4. Add new books to the system with their ISBN, author and title
5. Remove books from the system
6. Get system responses within 5 seconds

Borrowers can:

7. Borrow a maximum of 3 books at one time
8. View the history of books they have borrowed/reserved
9. Be fined for failing to return a book within 3 weeks
10. Get system responses within 3 seconds
11. Borrow a book at no cost for a maximum of 4 weeks
12. Reserve books (if they are on-loan)

All users (librarians and borrowers):

13. Can search for books by ISBN, author, or title
14. Can browse the system catalogue
15. The system shall respond to user requests within 3 seconds
16. The user interface shall be easy-to-use

You have been assigned the checklist entry that requires you to review the specification for inconsistencies between individual requirements (i.e., conflicts between requirements).

Which of the following CORRECTLY identifies inconsistencies between pairs of requirements?

Select ONE option.

24 / 40

24. The following statement refers to decision coverage:

“When the code contains only a single ‘if’ statement and no loops or CASE statements, and its execution is not nested within the test, any single test case we run will result in 50% decision coverage.”

Which of the following statement is correct?

Select ONE option.

25 / 40

25. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes a role of impact analysis in Maintenance Testing?

Select ONE option.

26 / 40

26. Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review?

27 / 40

27. Which of the following can affect and be part of the (initial) test planning?

Select ONE options.

28 / 40

28. Which of the following statements is true?

Select ONE option.

29 / 40

29. Which of the following BEST describes how value is added by maintaining traceability between the test basis and test artifacts?

Select ONE option.

30 / 40

30. Which of the following is a defect rather than a root cause in a fitness tracker?

Select ONE option.

31 / 40

31. Which of the following is a typical objective of testing?

Select ONE option.

32 / 40

32. Which one of the following is the characteristic of a metrics-based approach for test estimation?

Select ONE option.

33 / 40

33. You are testing a mobile app that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. You are running a test suite that involves evaluating each screen and each field on each screen against a general list of user interface best practices, derived from a popular book on the topic, that maximize attractiveness, ease-of-use, and accessibility for such apps. Which of the following options BEST categorizes the test technique you are using?

Select ONE option.

34 / 40

34. Which one of the following is NOT included in a test summary report?

Select ONE option.

35 / 40

35. Which of the following statements about static testing are MOST true?

Select ONE options.

36 / 40

36. You are defining the process for carrying out product risk analysis as part of each iteration on an Agile project. Which of the following is the proper place to document this process in a test plan?

Select ONE option.

37 / 40

37. Which one of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test execution tools?

Select ONE option.

38 / 40

38. Consider the following testing activities:

1. Selecting regression tests
2. Evaluating completeness of test execution
3. Identifying which user stories have open defect reports
4. Evaluating whether the number of tests for each requirement is consistent with the level of product risk

Consider the following ways traceability can help testing:

A. Improve understandability of test status reports to include status of test basis items
B. Make testing auditable
C. Provide information to assess process quality
D. Analyze the impact of changes

Which of the following best matches the testing activity with how traceability can assist that activity?

Select ONE option.

39 / 40

39. Which of the following is a common test metric often used to monitor BOTH test preparation and test execution?

Select ONE option.

40 / 40

40. Consider the following types of defects that a test level might focus on:

a) Defects in separately testable modules or objects
b) Not focused on identifying defects
c) Defects in interfaces and interactions
d) Defects in the whole test object

Which of the following list correctly matches test levels from the Foundation syllabus with the defect focus options given above?

Select ONE option.

0%

Scroll to top