2018v3.1 – Exam 4 – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 25, 2024 By

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2018v3.1 - Exam 4

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1. Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester?

a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and set the tools usage guidelines

b) The test manager plans, coordinates, and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests

c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides on the release of the test object

d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester executes the tests

Select ONE option.

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2. Which of the following qualities is MORE likely to be found in a tester’s mindset rather than in a developer’s?

a) A tester´s mindset tends to grow and mature as the tester gains experience

b) Ability to see what might go wrong

c) Good communication with team members

d) Focus on getting all things done

Select ONE option.

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3. You are testing a mobile app that allows users to find a nearby restaurant, based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (smaller number is high priority), and dependencies, in the following format:

Which of the following is a possible test execution schedule that considers both priorities and dependencies?

a) 01.001, 01.002, 01.003, 01.005, 01.004

b) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.003, 01.005

c) 01.003, 01.004, 01.002, 01.001, 01.002

d) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.005, 01.003

Select ONE option.

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4. Which of the following should NOT be a trigger for maintenance testing?

a) Decision to test the maintainability of the software

b) Decision to test the system after migration to a new operating platform

c) Decision to test if archived data is possible to be retrieved

d) Decision to test after “hot fixes”

Select ONE option.

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5. Which of the following options are roles in a formal review?

a) Developer, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Tester

b) Author, Moderator, Manager, Reviewer, Developer

c) Author, Manager, Review leader, Reviewer, Designer

d) Author, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Scribe

Select ONE option.

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6. Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT?

a) With the metrics-based approach, the estimate is based on test measures from the project and so this estimate is only available after the testing starts

b) With the expert-based approach, a group of expert users identified by the client recommends the necessary testing budget

c) With the expert-based approach, the test managers responsible for the different testing activities predict the expected testing effort

d) With the metrics-based approach, an average of the testing costs recorded from several past projects is used as the testing budget

Select ONE option.

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7. Given the following state model of a battery charger software:

Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level of transition coverage for the model?

a) OFF → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → LOW

b) WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE

c) HIGH → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE

d) WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT

Select ONE option.

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8. Which of the following descriptions of statement coverage is CORRECT?

a) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of lines of source code exercised by tests

b) Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests

c) Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of lines of source code (without comments) exercised by tests

d) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests

Select ONE option.

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9. Consider a mobile app that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. A user story has just been added to the set of features that checks customers’ social media accounts and bank records to give personalized greetings on birthdays and other personal milestones. Which of the following test techniques could a PROGRAMMER use during a unit test of the code to ensure that coverage of situations when the greetings ARE supposed to occur and when the greetings ARE NOT supposed to occur?

a) Statement testing

b) Exploratory testing

c) State transition testing

d) Decision testing

Select ONE option.

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10. Which of the following are two factors that can be used to determine the level of risk?

a) Testing and development

b) Dynamic and reactive

c) Statement and decision

d) Likelihood and impact

Select ONE option.

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11. Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

a) Risk level is calculated by adding together the probabilities of all problem situations and the financial harm that results from them

b) Risk level is estimated by multiplying the likelihood of a threat to the system by the chance that the threat will occur and will result in financial damage

c) Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable event and the expected impact of that event

d) Risk level is the sum of all potential hazards to a system multiplied by the sum of all potential losses from that system

Select ONE option.

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12. Which one of the following is the characteristic of a metrics-based approach for test estimation?

a) Budget which was used by a previous similar test project

b) Overall experience collected in interviews with test managers

c) Estimation of effort for test automation agreed in the test team

d) Average of calculations collected from business experts

Select ONE option.

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13. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of product risk analysis CORRECTLY influencing the testing?

a) The potential impact of security flaws has been identified as being particularly high, so security testing has been prioritized ahead of some other testing activities

b) Testing has found the quality of the network module to be higher than expected, so additional testing will be performed in that area

c) The users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, so additional usability testing is planned for the replacement system

d) The time needed to load web pages is crucial to the success of the new website, so an expert in performance testing has been employed for this project

Select ONE option.

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14. A tester participated in a discussion about proposed database structure. The tester identified a potential performance problem related to certain common user searches. This possible problem was explained to the development team. Which of the following is a testing contribution to success that BEST matches this situation?

a) Enabling required tests to be identified at an early stage

b) Ensuring processes are carried out properly

c) Reducing the risk of fundamental design defects

d) Reducing the risk of untestable functionality

Select ONE option.

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15. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes a role of impact analysis in Maintenance Testing?

a) Impact analysis is used when deciding if a fix to a maintained system is worthwhile

b) Impact analysis is used to identify how data should be migrated into the maintained system

c) Impact analysis is used to decide which hot fixes are of most value to the user

d) Impact analysis is used to determine the effectiveness of new maintenance test cases

Select ONE option.

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16. Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PRODUCT risk?

a) The expected security features may not be supported by the system architecture

b) The developers may not have time to fix all the defects found by the test team

c) The test cases may not provide full coverage of the specified requirements

d) The performance test environment may not be ready before the system is due for delivery

Select ONE option.

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17. You are testing a mobile app that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. You are running a test suite that involves evaluating each screen and each field on each screen against a general list of user interface best practices, derived from a popular book on the topic, that maximize attractiveness, ease-of-use, and accessibility for such apps. Which of the following options BEST categorizes the test technique you are using?

a) Specification-based

b) Exploratory

c) Checklist-based

d) Error guessing

Select ONE option.

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18. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and debugging?

a) Testing identifies the source of defects; debugging analyzes the defects and proposes prevention activities

b) Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects; debugging eliminates the defects, which are the source of failures

c) Testing removes faults; but debugging removes defects that cause the faults

d) Dynamic testing prevents the causes of failures; debugging removes the failures

Select ONE option.

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19. You will be invited to a review. The work product to be reviewed is a description of the in-house document creation process. The aim of the description is to present the work distribution between the different roles involved in the process in a way that can be clearly understood by everyone.

You will be invited to a checklist-based review. The checklist will also be sent to you. It includes the following points:

i. Is the person who performs the activity clearly identified for each activity?
ii. Are the entry criteria clearly defined for each activity?
iii. Are the exit criteria clearly defined for each activity?
iv. Are the supporting roles and their scope of work clearly defined for each activity?

In the following we show an excerpt of the work result to be reviewed, for which you should use the checklist above:

"After checking the customer documentation for completeness and correctness, the software architect creates the system specification. Once the software architect has completed the system specification, he invites testers and verifiers to the review. A checklist describes the scope of the review. Each invited reviewer creates review comments - if necessary - and concludes the review with an official review done-comment."

Which of the following statements about your review is correct?

a) Point ii) of the checklist has been violated because it is not clear which condition must be fulfilled to invite to the review

b) You notice that in addition to the tester and the verifier, the validator must also be invited. Since this item is not part of your checklist, you do not create a corresponding comment

c) Point iii) of the checklist has been violated as it is not clear what marks the review as completed

d) Point i) of the checklist has been violated because it is not clear who is providing the checklist for the invitation to the review

Select ONE option.

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20. You have just completed a pilot project for a regression testing tool. You understand the tool much better and have tailored your testing process to it. You have standardized an approach to using the tool and its associated work products. Which of the following is a typical test automation pilot project goal that remains to be carried out?

a) Learn more details about the tool

b) See how the tool would fit with existing processes and practices

c) Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing, and maintaining the tool and the test assets

d) Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost

Select ONE option.

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21. You are running a performance test with the objective of finding possible network bottlenecks in interfaces between components of a system. Which of the following statements describes this test?

a) A functional test during the integration test level

b) A non-functional test during the integration test level

c) A functional test during the component test level

d) A non-functional test during the component test level

Select ONE option.

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22. A phone ringing momentarily distracts a programmer, causing the programmer to improperly program the logic that checks the upper boundary of an input variable. Later, during system testing, a tester notices that this input field accepts invalid input values. The improperly coded logic for the upper boundary check is:

a) The root-cause

b) The failure

c) The error

d) The defect

Select ONE option.

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23. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the correction has been successfully implemented, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the correction has no side effects

b) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the system is still working in a new environment

c) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed

d) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the new functionality is working, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed

Select ONE option.

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24. A smart home app measures the average temperature in the house over the previous week and provides feedback to the occupants on their environmental friendliness based on this temperature.

The feedback for different average temperature ranges (to the nearest °C) should be:

Up to 10°C - Icy Cool!
11°C to 15°C - Chilled Out!
16°C to 19°C - Cool Man!
20°C to 22°C - Too Warm!
Above 22°C - Hot & Sweaty!

Using BVA (only Min- and Max values), which of the following sets of test inputs provides the highest level of boundary coverage?

a) 0°C, 11°C, 20°C, 22°C, 23°C

b) 9°C, 15°C, 19°C, 23°C, 100°C

c) 10°C, 16°C, 19°C, 22°C, 23°C

d) 14°C, 15°C, 18°C, 19°C, 21°C, 22°C

Select ONE option.

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25. Which of the following statements on the use of checklists in a formal review is CORRECT?

a) As part of the review planning, the reviewers create the checklists needed for the review

b) As part of the issue communication, the reviewers fill in the checklists provided for the review

c) As part of the review meeting, the reviewers create defect reports based on the checklists provided for the review

d) As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists needed for the review

Select ONE option.

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26. Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria:

1. The original testing budget of $30,000 plus contingency of $7,000 has been spent
2. 96% of planned tests for the drawing package have been executed and the remaining tests are now out of scope
3. The trading performance test environment has been designed, set-up and verified
4. Current status is no outstanding critical defects and two high-priority ones
5. The autopilot design specifications have been reviewed and reworked
6. The tax rate calculation component has passed unit testing.

Which of the following BEST categorizes them as entry and exit criteria:

a) Entry criteria – 5, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 2, 3, 4

b) Entry criteria – 2, 3, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 4, 5

c) Entry criteria – 1, 3; Exit criteria – 2, 4, 5, 6

d) Entry criteria – 3, 5, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 2, 4

Select ONE option.

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27. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units.

Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field?

a) 10.0, 28.0

b) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1

c) 0.2, 0.9, 29.5

d) 12.3

Select ONE option.

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28. Consider the following state transition diagram for a credit-card only, unattended gasoline pump:

Assume that you want to develop the minimum number of tests to cover each transition in the state transition diagram. Assume further that each test must start at the beginning state, waiting for customer, and each test ends when a transition arrives at the beginning state. How many tests do you need?

a) 4

b) 7

c) 1

d) Infinite

Select ONE option.

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29. Which one of the following is the description of statement coverage?

a) It is a metric, which is the percentage of test cases that have been executed

b) It is a metric, which is the percentage of statements in the source code that have been executed

c) It is a metric, which is the number of statements in the source code that have been executed by test cases that are passed

d) It is a metric, that gives a true/false confirmation if all statements are covered or not

Select ONE option.

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30. You are working as a tester on an Agile team and have participated in over two dozen user story refinement sessions with the product owner and the developers on the team at the start of each iteration. As the reviews have gotten more effective at detecting defects in user stories and the product owner more proficient at correcting those defects, you and the team notice that the team’s velocity, as shown in your burndown charts, has started to increase. Which of the following is a benefit of static testing that is MOST DIRECTLY related to the team’s increased velocity?

a) Increasing total cost of quality

b) Reducing testing cost

c) Increasing development productivity

d) Reducing total cost of quality

Select ONE option.

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31. A mass market operating system software product is designed to run on any PC hardware with an x86-family processor. You are running a set of tests to look for defects related to support of the various PCs that use such a processor and to build confidence that important PC brands will work. What type of test are you performing?

a) Performance test

b) Processor test

c) Functional test

d) Portability test

Select ONE option.

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32. Which one of the following test tools is mostly suitable for developers rather than testers?

a) Requirement management tools

b) Configuration management tools

c) Static analysis tools

d) Performance testing tools

Select ONE option.

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33. The following statement refers to decision coverage:

“When the code contains only a single ‘if’ statement and no loops or CASE statements, and its execution is not nested within the test, any single test case we run will result in 50% decision coverage.”

Which of the following statement is correct?

a) The statement is true. Any single test case provides 100% statement coverage and therefore 50% decision coverage

b) The statement is true. Any single test case would cause the outcome of the “if” statement to be either true or false

c) The statement is false. A single test case can only guarantee 25% decision coverage in this case

d) The statement is false. The statement is too broad. It may be correct or not, depending on the tested software

Select ONE option.

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34. Which of the following statements is a valid objective for testing?

a) The test should start as late as possible so that development had enough time to create a good product

b) To validate whether the test object works as expected by the users and other stakeholders

c) To prove that all possible defects are identified

d) To prove that any remaining defects will not cause any failures

Select ONE option.

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35. Which of the following is a true statement about exploratory testing?

a) More experienced testers who have tested similar applications and technologies are likely to do better than less experienced testers at exploratory testing

b) Exploratory testing does not identify any additional tests beyond those that would result from formal test techniques

c) The time required to complete an exploratory testing session cannot be predicted in advance

d) Exploratory testing can involve the use of black-box techniques but not white-box techniques

Select ONE option.

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36. You are testing a new version of software for a coffee machine. The machine can prepare different types of coffee based on four categories. i.e., coffee size, sugar, milk, and syrup. The criteria are as follows:

• Coffee size (small, medium, large)
• Sugar (none, 1 unit, 2 units, 3 units, 4 units)
• Milk (yes or no)
• Coffee flavor syrup (no syrup, caramel, hazelnut, vanilla)

Now you are writing a defect report with the following information:

• Title: Low coffee temperature.
• Short summary: When you select coffee with milk, the time for preparing coffee is too long and the temperature of the beverage is too low (less than 40 °C).
• Expected result: The temperature of coffee should be standard (about 75 °C).
• Degree of risk: Medium
• Priority: Normal

What valuable information was omitted in the above defect report?

a) The actual test results

b) Identification of the tested software version

c) Status of the defect

d) Ideas for improving the test case

Select ONE option.

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37. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the unit’s field is 0.1 units.

Which of the following is a set of input values that cover the boundary values with two-point boundary values for this field?

a) 0.3, 10.0, 28.0

b) 0.4, 0.5, 0.6, 24, 9, 25, 0, 25.1

c) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0 25.1

d) 0.5, 0.6, 24.9, 25.0

Select ONE option.

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38. Which of the following metrics would be MOST useful to monitor during test execution?

a) Percentage of executed test cases

b) Average number of testers involved in the test execution

c) Coverage of requirements by source code

d) Percentage of test cases already created and reviewed

Select ONE option.

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39. Which one of the following is NOT included in a test summary report?

a) Defining pass/fail criteria and objectives of testing

b) Deviations from the test approach

c) Measurements of actual progress against exit criteria

d) Evaluation of the quality of the test object

Select ONE option.

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40. Which of the following is a defect rather than a root cause in a fitness tracker?

a) Because the author of the requirements was unfamiliar with the domain of fitness training, he therefore wrongly assumed that users wanted heartbeat in beats per hour

b) The tester of the smartphone interface had not been trained in state transition testing, so missed a major defect

c) An incorrect configuration variable implemented for the GPS function could cause location problems during daylight saving times

d) Because the designer had never worked on wearable devices before, she as designer of the user interface therefore misunderstood the effects of reflected sunlight

Select ONE option.

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