2018v3.1 – Exam 4 – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 25, 2024 By

Admin

2018v3.1 - Exam 4

Name

1 / 40

1. In a formal review, what is the role name for the participant who runs an inspection meeting?

a) Facilitator

b) Programmer

c) Author

d) Project manager

Select ONE option.

2 / 40

2. During a period of intensive project overtime, a system architecture document is sent to various project participants, announcing a previously unplanned technical review to occur in one week. No adjustments are made to the participants’ list of assigned tasks. Based on this information alone, which of the following is a factor for review success that is MISSING?

a) Appropriate review type

b) Adequate time to prepare

c) Sufficient metrics to evaluate the author

d) Well-managed review meeting

Select ONE option.

3 / 40

3. Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case?

a) Test cases are created to exercise defined basic, exceptional and error behaviors performed by the system under test in collaboration with actors

b) Test cases are derived by identifying the components included in the use case and creating integration tests that exercise the interactions of these components

c) Test cases are generated by analyzing the interactions of the actors with the system to ensure the user interfaces are easy to use

d) Test cases are derived to exercise each of the decision points in the business process flows of the use case, to achieve 100% decision coverage of these flows

Select ONE option.

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4. Which one of the following is the characteristic of a metrics-based approach for test estimation?

a) Budget which was used by a previous similar test project

b) Overall experience collected in interviews with test managers

c) Estimation of effort for test automation agreed in the test team

d) Average of calculations collected from business experts

Select ONE option.

5 / 40

5. A smart home app measures the average temperature in the house over the previous week and provides feedback to the occupants on their environmental friendliness based on this temperature.

The feedback for different average temperature ranges (to the nearest °C) should be:

Up to 10°C - Icy Cool!
11°C to 15°C - Chilled Out!
16°C to 19°C - Cool Man!
20°C to 22°C - Too Warm!
Above 22°C - Hot & Sweaty!

Using BVA (only Min- and Max values), which of the following sets of test inputs provides the highest level of boundary coverage?

a) 0°C, 11°C, 20°C, 22°C, 23°C

b) 9°C, 15°C, 19°C, 23°C, 100°C

c) 10°C, 16°C, 19°C, 22°C, 23°C

d) 14°C, 15°C, 18°C, 19°C, 21°C, 22°C

Select ONE option.

6 / 40

6. Which one of the following is NOT included in a test summary report?

a) Defining pass/fail criteria and objectives of testing

b) Deviations from the test approach

c) Measurements of actual progress against exit criteria

d) Evaluation of the quality of the test object

Select ONE option.

7 / 40

7. What is checklist-based testing?

a) A test technique in which tests are derived based on the tester's knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures

b) A test technique based on an analysis of the specification of a component or system

c) An experience-based test technique whereby the experienced tester uses a list of items to be noted, checked, or remembered, or a set of rules or criteria against which a product must be verified

d) An approach to testing where the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests

Select ONE option.

8 / 40

8. Which one of the following options is categorized as a black-box test technique?

a) A technique based on analysis of the architecture

b) A technique checking that the test object is working according to the detailed design

c) A technique based on the knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures

d) A technique based on formal requirements

Select ONE option

9 / 40

9. Which of the following provides the BEST description of exploratory testing?

a) A testing practice in which an in-depth investigation of the background of the test object is used to identify potential weaknesses that are examined by test cases

b) An approach to testing whereby the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests

c) An approach to test design in which test activities are planned as uninterrupted sessions of test analysis and design, often used in conjunction with checklist-based testing

d) Testing based on the tester's experience, knowledge, and intuition

Select ONE option.

10 / 40

10. Which one of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test execution tools?

a) It is easy to create regression tests

b) It is easy to maintain version control of test assets

c) It is easy to design tests for security testing

d) It is easy to run regression tests

Select ONE option.

11 / 40

11. Given the following statements about the relationships between software development activities and test activities in the software development lifecycle:

1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity
2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available
3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding development activity
4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development lifecycle

Which of the following CORRECTLY shows which are true and false?

a) True – 1, 2; False – 3, 4

b) True – 2, 3; False – 1, 4

c) True – 1, 2, 4; False – 3

d) True – 1, 4; False – 2, 3

Select ONE option.

12 / 40

12. The following statement refers to decision coverage:

“When the code contains only a single ‘if’ statement and no loops or CASE statements, and its execution is not nested within the test, any single test case we run will result in 50% decision coverage.”

Which of the following statement is correct?

a) The statement is true. Any single test case provides 100% statement coverage and therefore 50% decision coverage

b) The statement is true. Any single test case would cause the outcome of the “if” statement to be either true or false

c) The statement is false. A single test case can only guarantee 25% decision coverage in this case

d) The statement is false. The statement is too broad. It may be correct or not, depending on the tested software

Select ONE option.

13 / 40

13. Which of the following options are roles in a formal review?

a) Developer, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Tester

b) Author, Moderator, Manager, Reviewer, Developer

c) Author, Manager, Review leader, Reviewer, Designer

d) Author, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Scribe

Select ONE option.

14 / 40

14. Given the following priorities and dependencies for these test cases:

Which of the following test execution schedules BEST considers the priorities and technical and logical dependencies?

a) TC1 – TC3 – TC4 – TC6 – TC2 – TC5

b) TC4 – TC3 – TC1 – TC2 – TC5 – TC6

c) TC4 – TC1 – TC3 – TC5 – TC6 – TC2

d) TC4 – TC2 – TC5 – TC1 – TC3 – TC6

Select ONE option.

15 / 40

15. Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the test manager?

a) Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing

b) Review tests developed by others

c) Prepare and acquire test data

d) Analyze, review, and assess requirements, specifications, and models for testability

Select ONE option.

16 / 40

16. How can white-box testing be applied during user acceptance testing?

a) To check if large volumes of data can be transferred between integrated systems

b) To check if all code statements and code decision paths have been executed

c) To check if all work process flows have been covered

d) To cover all web page navigations

Select ONE option.

17 / 40

17. A fitness app measures the number of steps that are walked each day and provides feedback to encourage the user to keep fit.

The feedback for different numbers of steps should be:

Up to 1000 - Couch Potato!
Above 1000, up to 2000 - Lazy Bones!
Above 2000, up to 4000 - Getting There!
Above 4000, up to 6000 - Not Bad!
Above 6000 - Way to Go!

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the BEST equivalence partition coverage?

a) 0, 1000, 2000, 3000, 4000

b) 1000, 2001, 4000, 4001, 6000

c) 123, 2345, 3456, 4567, 5678

d) 666, 999, 2222, 5555, 6666

Select ONE option.

18 / 40

18. A tester participated in a discussion about proposed database structure. The tester identified a potential performance problem related to certain common user searches. This possible problem was explained to the development team. Which of the following is a testing contribution to success that BEST matches this situation?

a) Enabling required tests to be identified at an early stage

b) Ensuring processes are carried out properly

c) Reducing the risk of fundamental design defects

d) Reducing the risk of untestable functionality

Select ONE option.

19 / 40

19. Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester?

a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and set the tools usage guidelines

b) The test manager plans, coordinates, and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests

c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides on the release of the test object

d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester executes the tests

Select ONE option.

20 / 40

20. As a test manager you are responsible for testing the following parts of requirements:

• R1 - Process anomalies
• R2 - Synchronization
• R3 - Approval
• R4 - Problem solving
• R5 - Financial data
• R6 - Diagram data
• R7 - Changes to the user profile

Notation: Logical requirement dependencies (A -> B means, that B depends on A):

Which one of the following options structures the test execution schedule according to the requirement dependencies?

a) R1 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6

b) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R4 ; R7 ; R5 ; R6

c) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R4 ; R7

d) R1 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7

Select ONE option.

21 / 40

21. Which of the following activities is part of the main activity "test analysis" in the test process?

a) Identifying any required infrastructure and tools

b) Creating test suites from test scripts

c) Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement

d) Evaluating the test basis for testability

Select ONE option.

22 / 40

22. During a project following Agile methods, you find a discrepancy between the developer’s interpretation of an acceptance criteria and the product owner’s interpretation, which you bring up during a user story refinement session. Which of the following is a benefit of test independence exemplified by this situation?

a) Recognizing different kinds of failures

b) Taking primary responsibility for quality

c) Removing a defect early

d) Challenging stakeholder assumptions

Select ONE option.

23 / 40

23. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an incremental development model?

a) Defining requirements, designing software and testing are done in phases where in each phase a piece of the system is added

b) A phase in the development process should begin when the previous phase is complete

c) Testing is viewed as a separate phase which takes place after development has been completed

d) Testing is added to development as an increment

Select ONE option.

24 / 40

24. Which of the following is a true statement about exploratory testing?

a) More experienced testers who have tested similar applications and technologies are likely to do better than less experienced testers at exploratory testing

b) Exploratory testing does not identify any additional tests beyond those that would result from formal test techniques

c) The time required to complete an exploratory testing session cannot be predicted in advance

d) Exploratory testing can involve the use of black-box techniques but not white-box techniques

Select ONE option.

25 / 40

25. Which of the following statements about static testing are MOST true?

a) Static testing is a cheap way to detect and remove defects

b) Static testing makes dynamic testing less challenging

c) Static testing makes it possible to find run-time problems early in the lifecycle

d) When testing safety-critical system, static testing has less value because dynamic testing finds the defects better

Select ONE options.

26 / 40

26. Which of the review types below is the BEST option to choose when the review must follow a formal process based on rules and checklists?

a) Informal Review

b) Technical Review

c) Inspection

d) Walkthrough

Select ONE option.

27 / 40

27. Given the following state model of a battery charger software:

Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level of transition coverage for the model?

a) OFF → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → LOW

b) WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE

c) HIGH → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE

d) WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT

Select ONE option.

28 / 40

28. Which of the following is a defect rather than a root cause in a fitness tracker?

a) Because the author of the requirements was unfamiliar with the domain of fitness training, he therefore wrongly assumed that users wanted heartbeat in beats per hour

b) The tester of the smartphone interface had not been trained in state transition testing, so missed a major defect

c) An incorrect configuration variable implemented for the GPS function could cause location problems during daylight saving times

d) Because the designer had never worked on wearable devices before, she as designer of the user interface therefore misunderstood the effects of reflected sunlight

Select ONE option.

29 / 40

29. Consider a mobile app that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. A user story has just been added to the set of features that checks customers’ social media accounts and bank records to give personalized greetings on birthdays and other personal milestones. Which of the following test techniques could a PROGRAMMER use during a unit test of the code to ensure that coverage of situations when the greetings ARE supposed to occur and when the greetings ARE NOT supposed to occur?

a) Statement testing

b) Exploratory testing

c) State transition testing

d) Decision testing

Select ONE option.

30 / 40

30. Programmers often write and execute unit tests against code which they have written. During this self-testing activity, which of the following is a tester mindset that programmers should adopt to perform this unit testing effectively?

a) Good communication skills

b) Code coverage

c) Evaluating code defects

d) Attention to detail

Select ONE option.

31 / 40

31. Given that the testing being performed has the following attributes:

• Based on interface specifications
• Focused on finding failures in communication
• The test approach uses both functional and structural test types

Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed?

a) Integration testing

b) Acceptance testing

c) System testing

d) Component testing

Select ONE option.

32 / 40

32. Which of the following is MOST likely to be used as a reason for using a pilot project to introduce a tool into an organization?

a) The need to evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices and determining what would need to change

b) The need to evaluate the test automation skills and training, mentoring and coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool

c) The need to evaluate whether the tool provides the required functionality and does not duplicate existing test tools

d) The need to evaluate the tool vendor in terms of the training and other support they provide

Select ONE option.

33 / 40

33. You are working as a tester on an Agile team and have participated in over two dozen user story refinement sessions with the product owner and the developers on the team at the start of each iteration. As the reviews have gotten more effective at detecting defects in user stories and the product owner more proficient at correcting those defects, you and the team notice that the team’s velocity, as shown in your burndown charts, has started to increase. Which of the following is a benefit of static testing that is MOST DIRECTLY related to the team’s increased velocity?

a) Increasing total cost of quality

b) Reducing testing cost

c) Increasing development productivity

d) Reducing total cost of quality

Select ONE option.

34 / 40

34. Which of the following qualities is MORE likely to be found in a tester’s mindset rather than in a developer’s?

a) A tester´s mindset tends to grow and mature as the tester gains experience

b) Ability to see what might go wrong

c) Good communication with team members

d) Focus on getting all things done

Select ONE option.

35 / 40

35. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY reflects the value of static testing?

a) By introducing reviews, we have found that both the quality of specifications and the time required for development and testing have increased

b) Using static testing means we have better control and cheaper defect management due to the ease of detecting defects later in the lifecycle

c) Now that we require the use of static analysis, missed requirements have decreased and communication between testers and developers has improved

d) Since we started using static analysis, we find coding defects that might have not been found by performing only dynamic testing

Select ONE option.

36 / 40

36. You are testing a mobile app that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. You are running a test suite that involves evaluating each screen and each field on each screen against a general list of user interface best practices, derived from a popular book on the topic, that maximize attractiveness, ease-of-use, and accessibility for such apps. Which of the following options BEST categorizes the test technique you are using?

a) Specification-based

b) Exploratory

c) Checklist-based

d) Error guessing

Select ONE option.

37 / 40

37. Which of the following tools is most useful for reporting test metrics?

a) Test management tool

b) Static analysis tool

c) Coverage tool

d) Model-Based testing tools

Select ONE option.

38 / 40

38. Consider the following types of defects that a test level might focus on:

a) Defects in separately testable modules or objects
b) Not focused on identifying defects
c) Defects in interfaces and interactions
d) Defects in the whole test object

Which of the following list correctly matches test levels from the Foundation syllabus with the defect focus options given above?

a) 1 = performance test; 2 = component test; 3 = system test; 4 = acceptance test

b) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = system test; 4 = integration test

c) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = integration test; 4 = system test

d) 1 = integration test; 2 = system test; 3 = component test; 4 = acceptance test

Select ONE option.

39 / 40

39. Which statement about the relationship between statement coverage and decision coverage is true?

a) 100% decision coverage also guarantees 100% statement coverage

b) 100% statement coverage also guarantees 100% decision coverage

c) 50% decision coverage also guarantees 50% statement coverage

d) Decision coverage can never reach 100%

Select ONE option.

40 / 40

40. You are engaged in planning a test effort for a new mobile banking application. As part of estimation, you first meet with the proposed testers and others on the project. The team is well-coordinated and has already worked on similar projects. To verify the resulting estimate, you then refer to some industry averages for testing effort and costs on similar projects, published by a reputable consultant.

Which statement accurately describes your estimation approach?

a) A simultaneous expert-based and metrics-based approach

b) Primarily an expert-based approach, augmented with a metrics-based approach

c) Primarily a metrics-based approach, augmented with an expert-based approach

d) Primarily planning poker, checked by velocity from burndown charts

Select ONE option.

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