2018v3.1 – Exam 4 – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 25, 2024 By

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2018v3.1 - Exam 4

Name

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1. Given the following test activities and test tools:

1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis
2. Test execution and logging
3. Management of testing and testware
4. Test design
A. Code coverage tools

B. Dynamic analysis tools
C. Test data preparation tools
D. Defect management tools

Which of the following BEST matches the activities and tools?

a) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A

b) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D

c) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C

d) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – C

Select ONE option.

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2. Consider the following decision table for the portion of an online airline reservation system that allows frequent flyers to redeem points for reward travel:

Suppose that there are two equivalence partitions for the condition where “Account/password okay” is not true, one where the account is invalid and another where the account is valid, but the password is invalid. Suppose that there is only one equivalence partition corresponding to the condition where “Account/password okay” is true, where both the account and password are valid.

If you want to design tests to cover the equivalence partitions for “Account/password okay” and also for this portion of the decision table, what is the minimum number of tests required?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 9

Select ONE option.

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3. You are testing a mobile app that allows users to find a nearby restaurant, based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (smaller number is high priority), and dependencies, in the following format:

Which of the following is a possible test execution schedule that considers both priorities and dependencies?

a) 01.001, 01.002, 01.003, 01.005, 01.004

b) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.003, 01.005

c) 01.003, 01.004, 01.002, 01.001, 01.002

d) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.005, 01.003

Select ONE option.

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4. Which of the following tools is most useful for reporting test metrics?

a) Test management tool

b) Static analysis tool

c) Coverage tool

d) Model-Based testing tools

Select ONE option.

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5. A company's employees are paid bonuses if they work more than a year in the company and achieve a target which is individually agreed before.

These facts can be shown in a decision table:

Which of the following test cases represents a situation that can happen in real life, and is missing in the above decision table?

a) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO

b) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= YES

c) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO

d) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= NO

Select ONE option.

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6. You are engaged in planning a test effort for a new mobile banking application. As part of estimation, you first meet with the proposed testers and others on the project. The team is well-coordinated and has already worked on similar projects. To verify the resulting estimate, you then refer to some industry averages for testing effort and costs on similar projects, published by a reputable consultant.

Which statement accurately describes your estimation approach?

a) A simultaneous expert-based and metrics-based approach

b) Primarily an expert-based approach, augmented with a metrics-based approach

c) Primarily a metrics-based approach, augmented with an expert-based approach

d) Primarily planning poker, checked by velocity from burndown charts

Select ONE option.

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7. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes:

• There is a role of a scribe
• The purpose is to detect potential defects
• The review meeting is led by the author
• Reviewers find potential defects by individual review
• A review report is produced

Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used?

a) Informal Review

b) Walkthrough

c) Technical Review

d) Inspection

Select ONE option.

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8. A fitness app measures the number of steps that are walked each day and provides feedback to encourage the user to keep fit.

The feedback for different numbers of steps should be:

Up to 1000 - Couch Potato!
Above 1000, up to 2000 - Lazy Bones!
Above 2000, up to 4000 - Getting There!
Above 4000, up to 6000 - Not Bad!
Above 6000 - Way to Go!

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the BEST equivalence partition coverage?

a) 0, 1000, 2000, 3000, 4000

b) 1000, 2001, 4000, 4001, 6000

c) 123, 2345, 3456, 4567, 5678

d) 666, 999, 2222, 5555, 6666

Select ONE option.

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9. A tester participated in a discussion about proposed database structure. The tester identified a potential performance problem related to certain common user searches. This possible problem was explained to the development team. Which of the following is a testing contribution to success that BEST matches this situation?

a) Enabling required tests to be identified at an early stage

b) Ensuring processes are carried out properly

c) Reducing the risk of fundamental design defects

d) Reducing the risk of untestable functionality

Select ONE option.

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10. Which of the following qualities is MORE likely to be found in a tester’s mindset rather than in a developer’s?

a) A tester´s mindset tends to grow and mature as the tester gains experience

b) Ability to see what might go wrong

c) Good communication with team members

d) Focus on getting all things done

Select ONE option.

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11. You are testing a mobile app that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. You are running a test suite that involves evaluating each screen and each field on each screen against a general list of user interface best practices, derived from a popular book on the topic, that maximize attractiveness, ease-of-use, and accessibility for such apps. Which of the following options BEST categorizes the test technique you are using?

a) Specification-based

b) Exploratory

c) Checklist-based

d) Error guessing

Select ONE option.

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12. Which of the following BEST describes how value is added by maintaining traceability between the test basis and test artifacts?

a) Maintenance testing can be fully automated based on changes to the initial requirements

b) It is possible to determine if a new test case has increased coverage of the requirements

c) Test managers can identify which testers found the highest severity defects

d) Areas that may be impacted by side-effects of a change can be targeted by confirmation testing

Select ONE option.

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13. Which one of the following is the description of statement coverage?

a) It is a metric, which is the percentage of test cases that have been executed

b) It is a metric, which is the percentage of statements in the source code that have been executed

c) It is a metric, which is the number of statements in the source code that have been executed by test cases that are passed

d) It is a metric, that gives a true/false confirmation if all statements are covered or not

Select ONE option.

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14. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independent testing?

a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team, so ensuring everyone is aware that quality is the test team’s overall responsibility

b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines

c) An independent test team can work totally separately from the developers, need not be distracted with changing project requirements, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system

d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer

Select ONE option.

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15. Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester?

a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and set the tools usage guidelines

b) The test manager plans, coordinates, and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests

c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides on the release of the test object

d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester executes the tests

Select ONE option.

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16. During a period of intensive project overtime, a system architecture document is sent to various project participants, announcing a previously unplanned technical review to occur in one week. No adjustments are made to the participants’ list of assigned tasks. Based on this information alone, which of the following is a factor for review success that is MISSING?

a) Appropriate review type

b) Adequate time to prepare

c) Sufficient metrics to evaluate the author

d) Well-managed review meeting

Select ONE option.

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17. Consider the following types of defects that a test level might focus on:

a) Defects in separately testable modules or objects
b) Not focused on identifying defects
c) Defects in interfaces and interactions
d) Defects in the whole test object

Which of the following list correctly matches test levels from the Foundation syllabus with the defect focus options given above?

a) 1 = performance test; 2 = component test; 3 = system test; 4 = acceptance test

b) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = system test; 4 = integration test

c) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = integration test; 4 = system test

d) 1 = integration test; 2 = system test; 3 = component test; 4 = acceptance test

Select ONE option.

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18. A daily radiation recorder for plants produces a sunshine score based on a combination of the number of hours a plant is exposed to the sun (below 3 hours, 3 to 6 hours or above 6 hours) and the average intensity of the sunshine (very low, low, medium, high).

Given the following test cases:

What is the minimum number of additional test cases that are needed to ensure full coverage of ALL VALID INPUT equivalence partitions?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

Select ONE option.

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19. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and debugging?

a) Testing identifies the source of defects; debugging analyzes the defects and proposes prevention activities

b) Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects; debugging eliminates the defects, which are the source of failures

c) Testing removes faults; but debugging removes defects that cause the faults

d) Dynamic testing prevents the causes of failures; debugging removes the failures

Select ONE option.

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20. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units.

Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field?

a) 10.0, 28.0

b) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1

c) 0.2, 0.9, 29.5

d) 12.3

Select ONE option.

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21. Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT?

a) With the metrics-based approach, the estimate is based on test measures from the project and so this estimate is only available after the testing starts

b) With the expert-based approach, a group of expert users identified by the client recommends the necessary testing budget

c) With the expert-based approach, the test managers responsible for the different testing activities predict the expected testing effort

d) With the metrics-based approach, an average of the testing costs recorded from several past projects is used as the testing budget

Select ONE option.

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22. What is quality?

a) Activities focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled

b) The degree to which a component or system satisfies the stated and implied needs of its various stakeholders

c) The degree to which a component or system protects information and data so that persons or other components or systems have the degree of access appropriate to their types and levels of authorization

d) The total costs incurred on quality activities and issues and often split into prevention costs, appraisal costs, internal failure costs and external failure costs

Select ONE option.

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23. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of product risk analysis CORRECTLY influencing the testing?

a) The potential impact of security flaws has been identified as being particularly high, so security testing has been prioritized ahead of some other testing activities

b) Testing has found the quality of the network module to be higher than expected, so additional testing will be performed in that area

c) The users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, so additional usability testing is planned for the replacement system

d) The time needed to load web pages is crucial to the success of the new website, so an expert in performance testing has been employed for this project

Select ONE option.

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24. Which of the following can affect and be part of the (initial) test planning?

a) Budget limitations

b) Test log

c) Failure rate

d) Use cases

Select ONE options.

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25. Which of the following is an example of a task that can be carried out as part of the test process?

a) Analyzing a defect

b) Designing test data

c) Assigning a version to a test item

d) Writing a user story

Select ONE option.

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26. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY reflects the value of static testing?

a) By introducing reviews, we have found that both the quality of specifications and the time required for development and testing have increased

b) Using static testing means we have better control and cheaper defect management due to the ease of detecting defects later in the lifecycle

c) Now that we require the use of static analysis, missed requirements have decreased and communication between testers and developers has improved

d) Since we started using static analysis, we find coding defects that might have not been found by performing only dynamic testing

Select ONE option.

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27. For which of the following situations is exploratory testing suitable?

a) When time pressure requires speeding up the execution of tests already specified

b) When the system is developed incrementally, and no test charter is available

c) When testers are available who have enough knowledge of similar applications and technologies

d) When an advanced knowledge of the system already exists, and evidence is to be if it should be tested intensively

Select ONE option.

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28. In a formal review, what is the role name for the participant who runs an inspection meeting?

a) Facilitator

b) Programmer

c) Author

d) Project manager

Select ONE option.

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29. You have just completed a pilot project for a regression testing tool. You understand the tool much better and have tailored your testing process to it. You have standardized an approach to using the tool and its associated work products. Which of the following is a typical test automation pilot project goal that remains to be carried out?

a) Learn more details about the tool

b) See how the tool would fit with existing processes and practices

c) Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing, and maintaining the tool and the test assets

d) Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost

Select ONE option.

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30. Given that the testing being performed has the following attributes:

• Based on interface specifications
• Focused on finding failures in communication
• The test approach uses both functional and structural test types

Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed?

a) Integration testing

b) Acceptance testing

c) System testing

d) Component testing

Select ONE option.

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31. Which statement about the relationship between statement coverage and decision coverage is true?

a) 100% decision coverage also guarantees 100% statement coverage

b) 100% statement coverage also guarantees 100% decision coverage

c) 50% decision coverage also guarantees 50% statement coverage

d) Decision coverage can never reach 100%

Select ONE option.

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32. Given the following test activities and tasks:

A. Test design
B. Test implementation
C. Test execution
D. Test completion

1. Entering change requests for open defect reports
2. Identifying test data to support the test cases
3. Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data
4. Analyzing discrepancies to determine their cause

Which of the following BEST matches the activities with the tasks?

a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

Select ONE option.

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33. Given the following statements about the relationships between software development activities and test activities in the software development lifecycle:

1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity
2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available
3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding development activity
4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development lifecycle

Which of the following CORRECTLY shows which are true and false?

a) True – 1, 2; False – 3, 4

b) True – 2, 3; False – 1, 4

c) True – 1, 2, 4; False – 3

d) True – 1, 4; False – 2, 3

Select ONE option.

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34. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Impact analysis is useful for confirmation testing during maintenance testing

b) Confirmation testing is useful for regression testing during system design

c) Impact analysis is useful for regression testing during maintenance testing

d) Confirmation testing is useful for impact analysis during maintenance testing

Select ONE option.

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35. Which of the following is MOST likely to be used as a reason for using a pilot project to introduce a tool into an organization?

a) The need to evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices and determining what would need to change

b) The need to evaluate the test automation skills and training, mentoring and coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool

c) The need to evaluate whether the tool provides the required functionality and does not duplicate existing test tools

d) The need to evaluate the tool vendor in terms of the training and other support they provide

Select ONE option.

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36. Which of the following metrics would be MOST useful to monitor during test execution?

a) Percentage of executed test cases

b) Average number of testers involved in the test execution

c) Coverage of requirements by source code

d) Percentage of test cases already created and reviewed

Select ONE option.

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37. Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria:

1. The original testing budget of $30,000 plus contingency of $7,000 has been spent
2. 96% of planned tests for the drawing package have been executed and the remaining tests are now out of scope
3. The trading performance test environment has been designed, set-up and verified
4. Current status is no outstanding critical defects and two high-priority ones
5. The autopilot design specifications have been reviewed and reworked
6. The tax rate calculation component has passed unit testing.

Which of the following BEST categorizes them as entry and exit criteria:

a) Entry criteria – 5, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 2, 3, 4

b) Entry criteria – 2, 3, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 4, 5

c) Entry criteria – 1, 3; Exit criteria – 2, 4, 5, 6

d) Entry criteria – 3, 5, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 2, 4

Select ONE option.

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38. Which of the following is a true statement about exploratory testing?

a) More experienced testers who have tested similar applications and technologies are likely to do better than less experienced testers at exploratory testing

b) Exploratory testing does not identify any additional tests beyond those that would result from formal test techniques

c) The time required to complete an exploratory testing session cannot be predicted in advance

d) Exploratory testing can involve the use of black-box techniques but not white-box techniques

Select ONE option.

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39. Which one of the following is the characteristic of a metrics-based approach for test estimation?

a) Budget which was used by a previous similar test project

b) Overall experience collected in interviews with test managers

c) Estimation of effort for test automation agreed in the test team

d) Average of calculations collected from business experts

Select ONE option.

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40. An employee’s bonus is to be calculated. It cannot be negative, but it can be calculated down to zero. The bonus is based on the length of employment:

• Less than or equal to 2 years
• More than 2 years but less than 5 years
• 5 to 10 years inclusively
• Longer than 10 years

What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for calculating the bonus?

a) 3

b) 5

c) 2

d) 4

Select ONE option.

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