0% 2 12345678910111213141516171819202122232425262728293031323334353637383940 Created on June 25, 2024 By Admin 2018v3.1 - Exam 4 Name 1 / 40 1. Which one of the following is TRUE? a) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the correction has been successfully implemented, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the correction has no side effects b) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the system is still working in a new environment c) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed d) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the new functionality is working, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Regression testing does not check successful implementation of corrections and confirmation testing does not check for side effects b) Is not correct. The statement about confirmation testing should be about regression testing c) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers d) Is not correct. Testing new functionality is not regression testing 2 / 40 2. You are performing system testing of a train reservation system. Based on the test cases performed, you have noticed that the system occasionally reports that no trains are available, although this should be the case. You have provided the developers with a summary of the defect and the version of the tested system. They recognize the urgency of the defect and are now waiting for you to provide further details. In addition to the information already provided, the following additional information is given: 1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect 2. Identification of the test object 3. Details of the test environment 4. Urgency/priority to fix 5. Actual results 6. Reference to test case specification Which of this additional information is most useful to include in the defect report? a) 1, 2, 6 b) 1, 4, 5, 6 c) 2, 3, 4, 5 d) 3, 5, 6 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering each of the pieces of information: 1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect – the developers are already aware of the problem and are waiting to fix it, so this is a less important piece of information. 2. Identification of the test object – as the developers are already aware of the problem and you are performing system testing, and you have already provided the version of the system you are testing you can assume they know the object that was being tested, so this is a less important piece of information. 3. Details of the test environment – the set-up of the test environment may have a noticeable effect on the test results, and detailed information should be provided, so this is an important piece of information. 4. Urgency/priority to fix – the developers are already aware of the problem and are waiting to fix it, so this is a less important piece of information. 5. Actual results – the actual results may well help the developers to determine what is going wrong with the system, so this is an important piece of information. 6. Reference to test case specification – this will show the developers the tests you ran, including the test inputs that caused the system to fail (and expected results), so this is an important piece of information. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 3 / 40 3. Consider the following decision table for the portion of an online airline reservation system that allows frequent flyers to redeem points for reward travel: Suppose that there are two equivalence partitions for the condition where “Account/password okay” is not true, one where the account is invalid and another where the account is valid, but the password is invalid. Suppose that there is only one equivalence partition corresponding to the condition where “Account/password okay” is true, where both the account and password are valid. If you want to design tests to cover the equivalence partitions for “Account/password okay” and also for this portion of the decision table, what is the minimum number of tests required? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 9 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There is at least one test for each column in the decision table. However, column one requires two tests, one where the account is invalid and another where the account is valid, but the password is invalid, so the minimum number of tests is four. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is correct d) Is not correct 4 / 40 4. Which of the following is a defect rather than a root cause in a fitness tracker? a) Because the author of the requirements was unfamiliar with the domain of fitness training, he therefore wrongly assumed that users wanted heartbeat in beats per hour b) The tester of the smartphone interface had not been trained in state transition testing, so missed a major defect c) An incorrect configuration variable implemented for the GPS function could cause location problems during daylight saving times d) Because the designer had never worked on wearable devices before, she as designer of the user interface therefore misunderstood the effects of reflected sunlight Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The lack of familiarity of the requirements author with the fitness domain is a root cause b) Is not correct. The lack of training of the tester in state transition testing was one of the root causes of the defect (the developer presumably created the defect, as well) c) Is correct. The incorrect configuration data represents faulty software in the fitness tracker (a defect), that may cause failures d) Is not correct. The lack of experience in designing user interfaces for wearable devices is a typical example of a root cause of a defect 5 / 40 5. You are reading a user story in the product backlog to prepare for a meeting with the product owner and a developer, noting potential defects as you go. Which of the following statements is true about this activity? a) It is not a static test, because static testing involves execution of the test object b) It is not a static test, because static testing is always performed using a tool c) It is a static test, because any defects you find could be found cheaper during dynamic testing d) It is a static test because static testing does not involve execution of the test object Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Static testing does not involve execution of the test object b) Is not correct. Some static tests involve the use of a tool, especially static analysis, but reviews (such as the activity described here) do not necessarily involve the use of a tool c) Is not correct. The review activity described here is part of a static test, but defects found in static tests are usually cheaper than those found in dynamic testing d) Is correct. Static testing does not involve execution of the test object 6 / 40 6. During a project following Agile methods, you find a discrepancy between the developer’s interpretation of an acceptance criteria and the product owner’s interpretation, which you bring up during a user story refinement session. Which of the following is a benefit of test independence exemplified by this situation? a) Recognizing different kinds of failures b) Taking primary responsibility for quality c) Removing a defect early d) Challenging stakeholder assumptions Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While recognizing different kinds of failures is a benefit of tester independence, in the scenario here no code yet exists that can fail, and the problem is that the developer and product owner are both assuming different things about the acceptance criteria b) Is not correct. Developers losing a sense of responsibility for quality is a drawback, not a benefit c) Is not correct. While the effect of the discovery of this disagreement is the earlier removal of the defect, prior to coding, defects can be discovered early by various people, not just independent testers d) Is correct. Challenging stakeholder assumptions is a benefit of tester independence, and here the developer and product owner are both assuming different things about the acceptance criteria 7 / 40 7. A batch application has been in production unchanged for over two years. It runs overnight once a month to produce statements that will be e-mailed to customers. For each customer, the application goes through every account and lists every transaction on that account in the last month. It uses a nested-loop structure to process customers (outer loop), each customer’s accounts (middle loop), and each account’s transactions (inner loop). One night, the batch application terminates prematurely, failing to e-mail statements to some customers, when it encounters a customer with one account for which no transactions occurred in the last month. This is a very unusual situation and has not occurred in the years since this application was placed in production. While fixing the defect, a programmer asks you to recommend test techniques that are effective against this kind of defect. Which of the following test techniques would most likely have been able to detect the underlying defect? a) Decision testing b) Statement testing c) Checklist-based testing d) Error guessing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. For a loop construct, statement coverage only requires that all statements within the loop are executed, but decision coverage requires testing of both the conditions where the loop is executed and when it is bypassed b) Is not correct. For a loop construct, statement coverage only requires that all statements within the loop are executed, but decision coverage requires testing of both the conditions where the loop is executed and when it is bypassed c) Is not correct. Checklists are based on experience, defect and failure data, knowledge about what is important for the user, and an understanding of why and how software fails, none of which is likely to have led to the inclusion of such a test condition d) Is not correct. While it is possible that someone might anticipate a developer making the mistaken assumption that there would always be at least one transaction in a month for every account, only decision testing guarantees testing of that condition 8 / 40 8. Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester? a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and set the tools usage guidelines b) The test manager plans, coordinates, and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides on the release of the test object d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester executes the tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Selection of tools is a test manager task b) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers c) Is not correct. The tester does not decide on the release of the test object d) Is not correct. The tester specifies the test cases, the test manager does the prioritization 9 / 40 9. How can white-box testing be applied during user acceptance testing? a) To check if large volumes of data can be transferred between integrated systems b) To check if all code statements and code decision paths have been executed c) To check if all work process flows have been covered d) To cover all web page navigations Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Relevant for integration testing b) Is not correct. Relevant for component testing c) Is correct. For acceptance testing, tests are designed to cover all workflows defined in the functional requirements documents. d) Is not correct. Relevant for system testing 10 / 40 10. Given the following test activities and test tools: 1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis 2. Test execution and logging 3. Management of testing and testware 4. Test design A. Code coverage tools B. Dynamic analysis tools C. Test data preparation tools D. Defect management tools Which of the following BEST matches the activities and tools? a) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A b) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D c) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C d) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – C Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The correct pairings of test activities and test tools are: 1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis – (b) Dynamic analysis tools 2. Test execution and logging – (a) Code coverage tools 3. Management of testing and testware – (d) Defect management tools 4. Test design – (c) Test data preparation tools Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is correct d) Is not correct 11 / 40 11. Which of the following metrics would be MOST useful to monitor during test execution? a) Percentage of executed test cases b) Average number of testers involved in the test execution c) Coverage of requirements by source code d) Percentage of test cases already created and reviewed Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Test case execution (e.g., number of test cases run/not run, and test cases passed/failed) b) Is not correct. This metric can be measured, but its value is low. The number of testers does not give any information about the quality of the test object or test progress c) Is not correct. the coverage of requirements by source code is not measured during test execution. At most, the TEST(!) coverage of the code or requirements is measured d) Is not correct. This metric is part of test preparation and not test execution 12 / 40 12. Which of the following should NOT be a trigger for maintenance testing? a) Decision to test the maintainability of the software b) Decision to test the system after migration to a new operating platform c) Decision to test if archived data is possible to be retrieved d) Decision to test after “hot fixes” Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. This is maintainability testing, not maintenance testing b) Is not correct. This is a trigger for maintenance testing: Operational tests of the new environment as well as of the changed software c) Is not correct. This is the trigger for maintenance testing: testing restore/retrieve procedures after archiving for long retention periods d) Is not correct. This is the trigger for maintenance testing: Reactive modification of a delivered software product to correct emergency defects that have caused actual failures 13 / 40 13. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units. Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field? a) 10.0, 28.0 b) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1 c) 0.2, 0.9, 29.5 d) 12.3 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There are three equivalence partitions, with the boundaries as shown: • Invalid too low (0.4 and below) • Valid (0.5 to 25.0) • Invalid too high (25.1 and above) Thus: a) Is not correct. Only two of the equivalence partitions are covered in this set of tests b) Is not correct. Each of those four boundary values are included in this set of tests, but the question asked for equivalence partition coverage with minimal tests, so either 0.5 or 25.0 should be dropped c) Is correct. Each of these three equivalence partitions are covered in this set of tests d) Is not correct. Only one of those equivalence partitions is covered by this test 14 / 40 14. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes: • There is a role of a scribe • The purpose is to detect potential defects • The review meeting is led by the author • Reviewers find potential defects by individual review • A review report is produced Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used? a) Informal Review b) Walkthrough c) Technical Review d) Inspection Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering the attributes: • There is a role of a scribe – specified for walkthroughs, technical reviews, and inspections; thus, the reviews being performed cannot be informal reviews • The purpose is to detect potential defects – the purpose of detecting potential defects is specified for all types of review. • The review meeting is led by the author – this is not allowed for inspections and is typically not the author for technical reviews, but is part of walkthroughs, and allowed for informal reviews • Reviewers find potential issues by individual review - all types of reviews can include individual review (even informal reviews) • A review report is produced - all types of reviews can produce a review report, although it would be less likely for an informal review Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 15 / 40 15. Which of the following options are roles in a formal review? a) Developer, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Tester b) Author, Moderator, Manager, Reviewer, Developer c) Author, Manager, Review leader, Reviewer, Designer d) Author, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Scribe Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Tester and developer are NOT roles in a formal review b) Is not correct. Developer is NOT a role in a formal review c) Is not correct. Designer is NOT a role in a formal review d) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers 16 / 40 16. Which of the following is an example of a failure in a car cruise control system? a) The developer of the system forgot to rename variables after a cut-and-paste operation b) Unnecessary code that sounds an alarm when reversing was included in the system c) The system stops maintaining a set speed when the radio volume is increased or decreased d) The design specification for the system wrongly states speeds Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This is an example of a mistake made by the developer b) Is not correct. This is an example of a defect (something wrong in the code that may cause a failure) c) Is correct. This is a deviation from the expected functionality - a cruise control system should not be affected by the radio d) Is not correct. This is an example of a defect (something wrong in a specification that may cause a failure if subsequently implemented) 17 / 40 17. Which of the following statements on the use of checklists in a formal review is CORRECT? a) As part of the review planning, the reviewers create the checklists needed for the review b) As part of the issue communication, the reviewers fill in the checklists provided for the review c) As part of the review meeting, the reviewers create defect reports based on the checklists provided for the review d) As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists needed for the review Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. During planning it is decided whether checklists are used. The preparation of the checklists is not part of the planning. In addition, the reviewers are neither involved in the planning, nor responsible for the creation of the checklists b) Is not correct. During issue communication, any potential defects that have been identified in the individual review are communicated. The completion of checklists by the reviewers already takes place, if at all, during individual review c) Is not correct. During review session, the reviewers communicate any potential defects of the work product that they did identify during the individual review. Defect reports are only created during the fixing and reporting activity d) Is correct. Initiating the review (“Kick-off”) involves distributing the work product and other materials, like checklists 18 / 40 18. You are testing an unattended gasoline pump that only accepts credit cards. Once the credit card is validated, the pump nozzle placed into the tank, and the desired grade selected, the customer enters the desired amount of fuel in gallons using the keypad. The keypad only allows the entry of digits. Fuel is sold in tenths (0.1) of a gallon, up to 50.0 gallons. Which of the following is a minimum set of desired amounts that covers the equivalence partitions for this input? a) 0.0, 20.0, 60.0 b) 0.0, 0.1, 50.0 c) 0.0, 0.1, 50.0, 70.0 d) -0.1, 0.0, 0.1, 49.9, 50.0, 50.1 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There are three equivalence partitions: • No sale completed (0.0 gallons) • A valid sale occurs (0.1 to 50.0 gallons) • An invalid amount is selected (50.1 or more gallons) Thus: a) Is correct. This set of input values has exactly one test per equivalence partition b) Is not correct. This set of input values has does not cover the invalid amount partition c) Is not correct. This set of input values has two tests for the valid sale equivalence partition, which is not the minimum d) Is not correct. This set of input values covers the three-point boundary values for the two boundaries, not the minimum number required to cover the equivalence partitions 19 / 40 19. In a formal review, what is the role name for the participant who runs an inspection meeting? a) Facilitator b) Programmer c) Author d) Project manager Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. The facilitator or moderator runs the review meetings b) Is not correct. This is not a role name for a formal review participant c) Is not correct. The facilitator or moderator runs the review meetings d) Is not correct. The facilitator or moderator runs the review meetings 20 / 40 20. You are testing a mobile app that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. You are running a test suite that involves evaluating each screen and each field on each screen against a general list of user interface best practices, derived from a popular book on the topic, that maximize attractiveness, ease-of-use, and accessibility for such apps. Which of the following options BEST categorizes the test technique you are using? a) Specification-based b) Exploratory c) Checklist-based d) Error guessing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The book provides general guidance, and is not a formal requirements document, a specification, or a set of use cases, user stories, or business processes b) Is not correct. While you could consider the list as a set of test charters, it more closely resembles the list of test conditions c) Is correct. The list of user interface best practices is the list of test conditions d) Is not correct. The tests are not focused on failures that could occur, but rather on knowledge about what is important for the user, in terms of usability 21 / 40 21. Which of the following BEST defines risk level? a) Risk level is calculated by adding together the probabilities of all problem situations and the financial harm that results from them b) Risk level is estimated by multiplying the likelihood of a threat to the system by the chance that the threat will occur and will result in financial damage c) Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable event and the expected impact of that event d) Risk level is the sum of all potential hazards to a system multiplied by the sum of all potential losses from that system Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Risk is determined by considering a combination of the likelihood of problem situations and the harm that may result from them but cannot be calculated by adding these together (the probability would be in the range 0 to 1 and the harm could be in dollars) b) Is not correct. Risk is determined by considering a combination of a likelihood and an impact. This definition only considers likelihood and chance (both forms of probability) with no consideration of the impact (or harm) c) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers d) Is not correct. Risk is determined by considering a combination of a likelihood and an impact. This definition only considers hazards and losses (a hazard is a bad event, like a risk, while loss is a form of impact) with no consideration of the likelihood (or probability) 22 / 40 22. During an Agile development effort, a product owner discovers a previously unknown regulatory requirement that applies to most of the user stories within a particular epic. The user stories are updated to provide for the necessary changes in software behavior. The programmers on the team are modifying the code appropriately. As a tester on the team, what types of tests will you run? a) Confirmation tests b) Regression tests c) Functional tests d) Change-related tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The change in behavior may be either functional or non-functional you need to run change-related tests, some of which are confirmation tests and others are regression tests. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 23 / 40 23. Which of the following statements about static testing are MOST true? a) Static testing is a cheap way to detect and remove defects b) Static testing makes dynamic testing less challenging c) Static testing makes it possible to find run-time problems early in the lifecycle d) When testing safety-critical system, static testing has less value because dynamic testing finds the defects better Select ONE options. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Defects found early are often much cheaper to remove than defects detected later in the lifecycle b) Is not correct. Dynamic testing still has its challenging because they find other types of defects c) Is not correct. This is dynamic testing d) Is not correct. Static testing is important for safety-critical computer systems 24 / 40 24. Which one of the following is NOT included in a test summary report? a) Defining pass/fail criteria and objectives of testing b) Deviations from the test approach c) Measurements of actual progress against exit criteria d) Evaluation of the quality of the test object Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. This information has been defined earlier in the test project b) Is not correct. This information is included in a test report: information on what occurred during a test period c) Is not correct. This information is included in a test report: • Status of testing and product quality with respect to the exit criteria or definition of done • Metrics of defects, test cases, test coverage, activity progress, and resource consumption d) Is not correct. This information is included in a test report: Information and metrics to support recommendations and decisions about future actions, such as an assessment of defects remaining, the economic benefit of continued testing, outstanding risks, and the level of confidence in the tested software 25 / 40 25. Which of the following can affect and be part of the (initial) test planning? a) Budget limitations b) Test log c) Failure rate d) Use cases Select ONE options. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Making decisions about what to test are documented in the test plan. This means when you are planning the test and there are budget limitations, prioritizing is needed; what should be tested and what should be omitted b) Is not correct. Test monitoring and control c) Is not correct. Common test metrics d) Is not correct. It is a part of test analysis 26 / 40 26. You are testing a mobile app that allows users to find a nearby restaurant, based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (smaller number is high priority), and dependencies, in the following format: Which of the following is a possible test execution schedule that considers both priorities and dependencies? a) 01.001, 01.002, 01.003, 01.005, 01.004 b) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.003, 01.005 c) 01.003, 01.004, 01.002, 01.001, 01.002 d) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.005, 01.003 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Test 01.001 must come first, followed by 01.002, to satisfy dependencies. Afterwards, 01.004 and 01.003 should be run in either order, followed by 01.005, to satisfy priority. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 27 / 40 27. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes a role of impact analysis in Maintenance Testing? a) Impact analysis is used when deciding if a fix to a maintained system is worthwhile b) Impact analysis is used to identify how data should be migrated into the maintained system c) Impact analysis is used to decide which hot fixes are of most value to the user d) Impact analysis is used to determine the effectiveness of new maintenance test cases Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Impact analysis may be used to identify those areas of the system that will be affected by the fix, and so the extent of the impact (e.g., necessary regression testing) can be used when deciding if the change is worthwhile b) Is not correct. Although testing migrated data is part of maintenance testing (see conversion testing), impact analysis does not identify how this is done c) Is not correct. Impact analysis shows which parts of a system are affected by a change, so it can show the difference between different hot fixes in terms of the impact on the system, however it does not give any indication of the value of the changes to the user d) Is not correct. Impact analysis shows which parts of a system are affected by a change; it cannot provide an indication of the effectiveness of test cases 28 / 40 28. Which of the following statements comparing component testing and system testing is TRUE? a) Component testing verifies the functionality of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system b) Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications or use cases c) Component testing only focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics d) Component testing is the responsibility of the testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. System testing does not test interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system; this is a target of integration tests b) Is correct. Examples of work products that can be used as a test basis for component testing include detailed design, code, data model, component specifications. Examples of work products for system testing include system and software requirement specifications (functional and non-functional) use cases c) Is not correct. Component testing does not ONLY focus on functional characteristics d) Is not correct. Component tests are also executed by developers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of (independent) testers 29 / 40 29. Consider the following state transition diagram for a credit-card only, unattended gasoline pump: Assume that you want to develop the minimum number of tests to cover each transition in the state transition diagram. Assume further that each test must start at the beginning state, waiting for customer, and each test ends when a transition arrives at the beginning state. How many tests do you need? a) 4 b) 7 c) 1 d) Infinite Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Each transition must be traversed at least once. To do so, the first test can cover the happy path, a successful purchase, the next test cancels, or timeout from waiting for pumping, the next test cancels, or timeout from waiting for fuel type, and the last test the insertion of an invalid credit card. While the order is immaterial, fewer than four tests fail to cover one of the transitions inbound to waiting for customer or violates the rules about where a test starts or ends. More than four tests include tests that re-traverse already-covered transitions. Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 30 / 40 30. Which one of the following is the characteristic of a metrics-based approach for test estimation? a) Budget which was used by a previous similar test project b) Overall experience collected in interviews with test managers c) Estimation of effort for test automation agreed in the test team d) Average of calculations collected from business experts Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. The metrics-based approach: estimating the testing effort based on metrics of former similar projects or based on typical values b) Is not correct. This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the owners of the tasks or by experts c) Is not correct. This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the responsible team of the tasks or by experts d) Is not correct. This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the owners of the tasks or by experts 31 / 40 31. A video application has the following requirement: The application shall allow playing a video on the following display resolution: 1. 640x480 2. 1280x720 3. 1600x1200 4. 1920x1080 Which of the following list of test cases is a result of applying the equivalence partitioning test technique to test this requirement? a) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 1920x1080 (1 test case) b) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 640x480 and 1920x1080 (2 test cases) c) Verify that the application can play a video on each of the display sizes in the requirement (4 test cases) d) Verify that the application can play a video on any one of the display sizes in the requirement (1 test case) Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. See reason from correct answer b) Is not correct. See reason from correct answer c) Is correct. This is a case where the requirement gives an enumeration of discrete values. Each enumeration value is an equivalence class by itself; therefore, each will be tested when using equivalence partitioning test technique d) Is not correct. See reason from correct answer 32 / 40 32. Which of the following is a typical test objective? a) Preventing defects b) Repairing defects c) Comparing actual results to expected results d) Analyzing the cause of failure Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. This is an objective listed b) Is not correct. This is debugging c) Is not correct. This is an activity within the test execution group of activities within the test process d) Is not correct. This is part of debugging 33 / 40 33. Given the following priorities and dependencies for these test cases: Which of the following test execution schedules BEST considers the priorities and technical and logical dependencies? a) TC1 – TC3 – TC4 – TC6 – TC2 – TC5 b) TC4 – TC3 – TC1 – TC2 – TC5 – TC6 c) TC4 – TC1 – TC3 – TC5 – TC6 – TC2 d) TC4 – TC2 – TC5 – TC1 – TC3 – TC6 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The test cases should be scheduled in priority order, but the schedule must also take account of the dependencies. The two highest priority test cases (TC1 and TC3) are both dependent on TC4, so the first three test cases should be scheduled as either TC4 – TC1 – TC3 or TC4 – TC3 – TC1 (we have no way to discriminate between TC1 and TC3). Next, we need to consider the remaining medium priority test case, TC6. TC6 is dependent on TC5, but TC5 is dependent on TC2, so the next two three cases must be scheduled as TC2 – TC5 – TC6. This means there are two possible optimal schedules: • TC4 – TC1 – TC3 – TC2 – TC5 – TC6 or • TC4 – TC3 – TC1 – TC2 – TC5 – TC6 Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 34 / 40 34. You are working on a video game development project, using Agile methods. It is based on Greek mythology and history, and players can play key roles in scenarios such as the battles between the Greeks and Trojans. Consider the following user story and its associated acceptance criteria: As a player, I want to be able to acquire the Rod of Midas (a new magic object), so that I can turn objects and other players into gold AC1: The Rod must work on any object or player, no matter what size, which can be touched anywhere by the player holding the Rod AC2: Holding the Rod does not change the player holding it into gold AC3: Any object or player touched by the Rod transforms completely into gold within one millisecond AC4: The Rod appears as shown in Prototype O.W.RoM AC5: The transformation starts at the point of contact with the Rod and moves at a rate of one meter per millisecond You are participating in a checklist-based review session of this user story. This user story and its associated acceptance criteria contain which of the following typical defects identified by static testing in this type of work product? a) Deviation from standards b) Contradiction c) Security vulnerability d) Coverage gaps Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While deviation from standards is a typical, we are not given any standard with which the user stories should comply b) Is correct. Contradiction is a typical requirements defect. AC3 and AC5 conflict if the Rod is touched to an object that extends more than 1 meter in any direction from the point at which touched, since AC1 does not limit the size of the objects to be touched c) Is not correct. While security vulnerabilities are typical defects, there is nothing here related to security d) Is not correct. While test coverage gaps are typical defects, including missing tests for acceptance criteria, we are not provided with any information about which tests do and do not exist 35 / 40 35. Mr. Test has been testing software applications on mobile devices for a period of 5 years. He has a wealth of experience in testing mobile applications and achieves better results in a shorter time than others. Over several months, Mr. Test did not modify the existing automated test cases and did not create any new test cases. This leads to fewer and fewer defects being found by executing the tests. What principle of testing did Mr. Test not observe? a) Testing depends on the environment b) Exhaustive testing is not possible c) Repeating of same tests will not find new defects d) Defects cluster together Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Testing is context dependent, regardless of it being manual or automated (principle #6), but does not result in detecting a decreasing number of faults as described above b) Is not correct. Exhaustive testing is impossible, regardless of the amount of effort put into testing (principle #2) c) Is correct. Principle #5 says “If the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually these tests no longer find any new defects. To detect new defects, existing tests and test data may need changing, and new tests may need to be written.” Automated regression testing of the same test cases will not bring new findings d) Is not correct. ”Defect cluster together” (principle #4). A small number of modules usually contain most of the defects, but this does not mean that fewer and fewer defects will be found 36 / 40 36. Which one of the following options is categorized as a black-box test technique? a) A technique based on analysis of the architecture b) A technique checking that the test object is working according to the detailed design c) A technique based on the knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures d) A technique based on formal requirements Select ONE option Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This is a white-box test technique b) Is not correct. This is a white-box test technique c) Is not correct. This is an experience-based test technique d) Is correct. Black-box test techniques are based on an analysis of the appropriate test basis (e.g., formal requirements documents, specifications, use cases, user stories) 37 / 40 37. Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT? a) With the metrics-based approach, the estimate is based on test measures from the project and so this estimate is only available after the testing starts b) With the expert-based approach, a group of expert users identified by the client recommends the necessary testing budget c) With the expert-based approach, the test managers responsible for the different testing activities predict the expected testing effort d) With the metrics-based approach, an average of the testing costs recorded from several past projects is used as the testing budget Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Estimates may be updated as more information becomes available, but estimates are needed to assist with planning before the testing starts b) Is not correct. In the expert-based approach, the experts need to be experts in testing, not in using the test object c) Is correct. Test Managers, who will be leading testers doing the testing, are considered experts in their respective areas and suitable for estimating the necessary resources needed d) Is not correct. While it is useful to know the testing costs from previous projects, a more sophisticated approach is needed than simply taking an average of past projects (the new project may not be like the previous projects, e.g., it may be far larger or far smaller than previous projects) 38 / 40 38. Which activities are carried out within the planning of a formal review? a) Collection of metrics for the evaluation of the effectiveness of the review b) Answer any questions the participants may have c) Definition and Verification of fulfillment of entry criteria for the review d) Evaluation of the review findings against the exit criteria Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. ‘Collection of metrics’ belongs to the main activity “Fixing and Reporting” b) Is not correct. ‘Answer any question.’ belongs to the main activity “Initiate Review” c) Is correct. The checking of entry criteria takes place in the planning of a formal review d) Is not correct. The evaluation of the review findings against the exit criteria belongs to the main activity “Issue communication and analysis” 39 / 40 39. Which one of the statements below describes the most common situation for a failure discovered during testing or in production? a) The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box b) The wrong version of a compiled source code file was included in the build c) The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables d) The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. A crash is clearly noticeable by the user b) Is not correct. This is a defect, not a failure since there is something wrong in the code. It may not result in a visible or noticeable failure, for example if the changes in the source code file are only in comments c) Is not correct. The use of wrong input variables may not result in a visible or noticeable failure, for example if nobody uses this particular algorithm; or if the wrong input variable has a similar value to the correct input variable; or if the FALSE result of the algorithm is not used d) Is not correct. This type of fault will not necessarily lead to a failure; for example, if no one uses this special algorithm 40 / 40 40. The following statement refers to decision coverage: “When the code contains only a single ‘if’ statement and no loops or CASE statements, and its execution is not nested within the test, any single test case we run will result in 50% decision coverage.” Which of the following statement is correct? a) The statement is true. Any single test case provides 100% statement coverage and therefore 50% decision coverage b) The statement is true. Any single test case would cause the outcome of the “if” statement to be either true or false c) The statement is false. A single test case can only guarantee 25% decision coverage in this case d) The statement is false. The statement is too broad. It may be correct or not, depending on the tested software Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While the given statement is true, the explanation is not. The relationship between statement and decision coverage is misrepresented b) Is correct. Since any test case will cause the outcome of the “if” statement to be either TRUE or FALSE, by definition we achieved 50% decision coverage c) Is not correct. A single test case can give more than 25% decision coverage, this means according to the statement above always 50 % decision coverage d) Is not correct. The statement is specific and always true, because each test case achieves 50 % decision coverage 0% Restart quiz
