0% 2 12345678910111213141516171819202122232425262728293031323334353637383940 Created on June 25, 2024 By Admin 2018v3.1 - Exam 4 Name 1 / 40 1. During a project following Agile methods, you find a discrepancy between the developer’s interpretation of an acceptance criteria and the product owner’s interpretation, which you bring up during a user story refinement session. Which of the following is a benefit of test independence exemplified by this situation? a) Recognizing different kinds of failures b) Taking primary responsibility for quality c) Removing a defect early d) Challenging stakeholder assumptions Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While recognizing different kinds of failures is a benefit of tester independence, in the scenario here no code yet exists that can fail, and the problem is that the developer and product owner are both assuming different things about the acceptance criteria b) Is not correct. Developers losing a sense of responsibility for quality is a drawback, not a benefit c) Is not correct. While the effect of the discovery of this disagreement is the earlier removal of the defect, prior to coding, defects can be discovered early by various people, not just independent testers d) Is correct. Challenging stakeholder assumptions is a benefit of tester independence, and here the developer and product owner are both assuming different things about the acceptance criteria 2 / 40 2. Which of the following options are roles in a formal review? a) Developer, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Tester b) Author, Moderator, Manager, Reviewer, Developer c) Author, Manager, Review leader, Reviewer, Designer d) Author, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Scribe Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Tester and developer are NOT roles in a formal review b) Is not correct. Developer is NOT a role in a formal review c) Is not correct. Designer is NOT a role in a formal review d) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers 3 / 40 3. You are defining the process for carrying out product risk analysis as part of each iteration on an Agile project. Which of the following is the proper place to document this process in a test plan? a) Scope of testing b) Approach of testing c) Metrics of testing d) Configuration management of the test object Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While scope is a topic addressed in a test plan, the implementation of a risk-based testing strategy on this project is the approach, so this topic should be addressed in that section b) Is correct. Approach is a topic addressed in a test plan and the implementation of a risk-based testing strategy on this project is the approach c) Is not correct. While metrics for test monitoring and control is a topic addressed in a test plan, the implementation of a risk-based testing strategy on this project is the approach, so this topic should be addressed in that section d) Is not correct. Configuration management is not a topic addressed in a test plan 4 / 40 4. You are working as a tester on an Agile team and have participated in over two dozen user story refinement sessions with the product owner and the developers on the team at the start of each iteration. As the reviews have gotten more effective at detecting defects in user stories and the product owner more proficient at correcting those defects, you and the team notice that the team’s velocity, as shown in your burndown charts, has started to increase. Which of the following is a benefit of static testing that is MOST DIRECTLY related to the team’s increased velocity? a) Increasing total cost of quality b) Reducing testing cost c) Increasing development productivity d) Reducing total cost of quality Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Reviews reduce, not increase, the total cost of quality b) Is not correct. Increasing velocity is a sign of increasing development productivity overall, not just testing, so B only partially applies c) Is correct. Velocity is a way of measuring productivity in Agile development d) Is not correct. The benefit mentioned here has to do with increasing overall development team productivity 5 / 40 5. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the unit’s field is 0.1 units. Which of the following is a set of input values that cover the boundary values with two-point boundary values for this field? a) 0.3, 10.0, 28.0 b) 0.4, 0.5, 0.6, 24, 9, 25, 0, 25.1 c) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0 25.1 d) 0.5, 0.6, 24.9, 25.0 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There are three equivalence partitions, with the boundaries as shown: • Invalid too low (0.4 and below) • Valid (0.5 to 25.0) • Invalid too high (25.1 and above) Thus: a) Is not correct. None of those four boundary values are included in this set of tests. These tests do cover the equivalence partitions b) Is not correct. All these four boundary values are included in this set of tests, but two additional values are included, one for each boundary. These are the values associated with three-point boundary value analysis c) Is correct. Each of those four two-point boundary values are included in this set of tests d) Is not correct. These four values are all included in the valid partition 6 / 40 6. You are reading a user story in the product backlog to prepare for a meeting with the product owner and a developer, noting potential defects as you go. Which of the following statements is true about this activity? a) It is not a static test, because static testing involves execution of the test object b) It is not a static test, because static testing is always performed using a tool c) It is a static test, because any defects you find could be found cheaper during dynamic testing d) It is a static test because static testing does not involve execution of the test object Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Static testing does not involve execution of the test object b) Is not correct. Some static tests involve the use of a tool, especially static analysis, but reviews (such as the activity described here) do not necessarily involve the use of a tool c) Is not correct. The review activity described here is part of a static test, but defects found in static tests are usually cheaper than those found in dynamic testing d) Is correct. Static testing does not involve execution of the test object 7 / 40 7. You are running a performance test with the objective of finding possible network bottlenecks in interfaces between components of a system. Which of the following statements describes this test? a) A functional test during the integration test level b) A non-functional test during the integration test level c) A functional test during the component test level d) A non-functional test during the component test level Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While this test does match the description of an integration test, it is a non-functional test b) Is correct. This test matches the description of an integration test and it is a non-functional test c) Is not correct. This test does not match the description of a component test and it is not a functional test d) Is not correct. While this test is a non-functional test, it does not match the description of a component test 8 / 40 8. Which statement about the relationship between statement coverage and decision coverage is true? a) 100% decision coverage also guarantees 100% statement coverage b) 100% statement coverage also guarantees 100% decision coverage c) 50% decision coverage also guarantees 50% statement coverage d) Decision coverage can never reach 100% Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. The statement is true. Achieving 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage b) Is not correct. The statement is false because achieving 100 % statement coverage does not in any case mean that the decision coverage is 100% c) Is not correct. The statement is false because we can only do statements about 100% values d) Is not correct. The statement is false 9 / 40 9. Consider the following list of undesirable outcomes that could occur on a mobile app development effort: A. Incorrect totals on screens B. Change to acceptance criteria during acceptance testing C. Users find the soft keyboard too hard to use with your app D. System responds too slowly to user input during search string entry E. Testers not allowed to report test results in daily standup meetings Which of the following properly classifies these outcomes as project and product risks? a) Product risks: B, E; Project risks: A, C, D b) Product risks: A, C, D; Project risks: B, E c) Product risks: A, C, D, E Project risks: B d) Product risks: A, C Project risks: B, D, E Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Product risks exist when a work product may fail to satisfy legitimate needs, while project risks are situations that could have a negative impact on the project’s ability to achieve its objectives. So: A. Incorrect totals on screens = product risk B. Change to acceptance criteria during acceptance testing = project risk C. Users find the soft keyboard too hard to use with your app = product risk D. System responds too slowly to user input during search string entry = product risk E. Testers not allowed to report test results in daily standup meetings = project risk Thus: a) Is not correct. This list is entirely backwards b) Is correct c) Is not correct. While E is about product quality and product risks, the failure to communicate test results is a project risk per the syllabus d) Is not correct. Product risks can be functional and non-functional, so d is also a product risk 10 / 40 10. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes: • There is a role of a scribe • The purpose is to detect potential defects • The review meeting is led by the author • Reviewers find potential defects by individual review • A review report is produced Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used? a) Informal Review b) Walkthrough c) Technical Review d) Inspection Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering the attributes: • There is a role of a scribe – specified for walkthroughs, technical reviews, and inspections; thus, the reviews being performed cannot be informal reviews • The purpose is to detect potential defects – the purpose of detecting potential defects is specified for all types of review. • The review meeting is led by the author – this is not allowed for inspections and is typically not the author for technical reviews, but is part of walkthroughs, and allowed for informal reviews • Reviewers find potential issues by individual review - all types of reviews can include individual review (even informal reviews) • A review report is produced - all types of reviews can produce a review report, although it would be less likely for an informal review Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 11 / 40 11. Which one of the following is the characteristic of a metrics-based approach for test estimation? a) Budget which was used by a previous similar test project b) Overall experience collected in interviews with test managers c) Estimation of effort for test automation agreed in the test team d) Average of calculations collected from business experts Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. The metrics-based approach: estimating the testing effort based on metrics of former similar projects or based on typical values b) Is not correct. This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the owners of the tasks or by experts c) Is not correct. This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the responsible team of the tasks or by experts d) Is not correct. This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the owners of the tasks or by experts 12 / 40 12. During an Agile development effort, a product owner discovers a previously unknown regulatory requirement that applies to most of the user stories within a particular epic. The user stories are updated to provide for the necessary changes in software behavior. The programmers on the team are modifying the code appropriately. As a tester on the team, what types of tests will you run? a) Confirmation tests b) Regression tests c) Functional tests d) Change-related tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The change in behavior may be either functional or non-functional you need to run change-related tests, some of which are confirmation tests and others are regression tests. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 13 / 40 13. You are working as a tester on an online banking system. Availability is considered one of the top products (quality) risks for the system. You find a reproducible failure that results in customers losing their connections to the bank Web site when transferring funds between common types of accounts and being unable to reconnect for between three and five minutes. Which of the following would be a good summary for a defect report for this failure, one that captures both the essence of the failure and its impact on stakeholders? a) Web server logs show error 0x44AB27 when running test 07.005, which is not an expected error message in /tmp filesystem b) Developers have introduced major availability defect which will seriously upset our customers c) Performance is slow and reliability flaky under load d) Typical funds-transfer transaction results in termination of customer session, with a delay in availability when attempting to reconnect Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While this information is useful for developers, it does not provide managers with a sense of the impact on product quality b) Is not correct. This summary does not provide developers or managers with the necessary information and attacks the developers c) Is not correct. This summary does not provide developers or managers with the necessary information and attacks the developers d) Is correct. This summary gives a good sense of the failure and its impact 14 / 40 14. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an incremental development model? a) Defining requirements, designing software and testing are done in phases where in each phase a piece of the system is added b) A phase in the development process should begin when the previous phase is complete c) Testing is viewed as a separate phase which takes place after development has been completed d) Testing is added to development as an increment Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Incremental development involves establishing requirements, designing, building, and testing a system in pieces b) Is not correct. This is a sequential model c) Is not correct. This describes the waterfall model d) Is not correct. Testing alone is not an increment/additional step in the development 15 / 40 15. Which of the following lists contains only typical exit criteria from testing? a) Reliability measures, test coverage, schedule and status about fixing defect and remaining risks b) Reliability measures, test coverage, degree of tester’s independence and product completeness c) Reliability measures, test coverage, test cost, availability of test environment, time to market and product completeness d) Time to market, remaining defects, tester qualification, availability of testable use cases, test coverage and test cost Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers b) Is not correct. The “degree of tester’s independence” does not play a role in exit criteria c) Is not correct. “Availability of test environment” is an entry criterion d) Is not correct. “The Qualification of Tester” is not a typical exit criterion 16 / 40 16. Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester? a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and set the tools usage guidelines b) The test manager plans, coordinates, and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides on the release of the test object d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester executes the tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Selection of tools is a test manager task b) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers c) Is not correct. The tester does not decide on the release of the test object d) Is not correct. The tester specifies the test cases, the test manager does the prioritization 17 / 40 17. Given the following test activities and test tools: 1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis 2. Test execution and logging 3. Management of testing and testware 4. Test design A. Code coverage tools B. Dynamic analysis tools C. Test data preparation tools D. Defect management tools Which of the following BEST matches the activities and tools? a) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A b) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D c) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C d) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – C Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The correct pairings of test activities and test tools are: 1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis – (b) Dynamic analysis tools 2. Test execution and logging – (a) Code coverage tools 3. Management of testing and testware – (d) Defect management tools 4. Test design – (c) Test data preparation tools Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is correct d) Is not correct 18 / 40 18. You are working as a project manager on an in-house banking software project. To prevent rework and excessive find/fix/retest cycles, the following process has been put in place for resolving a defect once it is found in the test lab: 1. The assigned developer finds and fixes the defect, then creates an experimental build 2. A peer developer reviews, unit tests, and confirmation tests the defect fix on his/her desktop 3. A tester – usually the one who found the defect – confirmation tests the defect fix in the development environment 4. Once a day, a new release with all confirmed defect fixes included, is installed in the test environment 5. The same tester from step 3 confirmation tests the defect fix in the test environment Nevertheless, a large number of defects which the testers confirmed as fixed in the development environment (in step 3) are somehow failing confirmation testing in the test environment, with the resulting rework and cycle time outcomes. You have the highest confidence in your testers and have ruled out mistakes or omissions in step 3. Which of the following is the MOST likely part of the process to check next? a) The activity of developers, who may not be adequately testing in step 2 b) The activity of testers, who may be confused about what to test in step 5 c) Configuration management, which may not be maintaining the integrity of the product in step 4 d) The activity of developers, who may not be fixing defects properly in step 1 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. If inadequate developer testing were the problem, the confirmation test would not pass in step 3 b) Is not correct. The same tester who successfully performed the confirmation test in step 3 is repeating it in step 5 c) Is correct. Configuration management maintains the integrity of the software. If a test that passes in step 3 fails in step 5, then something is different between those two steps. One possible difference is the test object, the option listed here. Another possible difference is the between the development environment and the test environment, but that is not an option listed here d) Is not correct. If the developers were not fixing the defect, the confirmation test would not pass in step 3 19 / 40 19. Which of the following is a typical test objective? a) Preventing defects b) Repairing defects c) Comparing actual results to expected results d) Analyzing the cause of failure Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. This is an objective listed b) Is not correct. This is debugging c) Is not correct. This is an activity within the test execution group of activities within the test process d) Is not correct. This is part of debugging 20 / 40 20. Which of the following is MOST likely to be used as a reason for using a pilot project to introduce a tool into an organization? a) The need to evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices and determining what would need to change b) The need to evaluate the test automation skills and training, mentoring and coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool c) The need to evaluate whether the tool provides the required functionality and does not duplicate existing test tools d) The need to evaluate the tool vendor in terms of the training and other support they provide Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct b) Is not correct. The evaluation of the test automation skills and training, mentoring and coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool should have been performed as part of the tool selection activity c) Is not correct. The decision on whether the tool provides the required functionality and does not duplicate existing tools should have been performed as part of the tool selection activity d) Is not correct. The evaluation of the tool vendor in terms of the training and other support they provide should have been performed as part of the tool selection activity 21 / 40 21. Given the following test activities and tasks: A. Test design B. Test implementation C. Test execution D. Test completion 1. Entering change requests for open defect reports 2. Identifying test data to support the test cases 3. Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data 4. Analyzing discrepancies to determine their cause Which of the following BEST matches the activities with the tasks? a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The correct pairing of test activities and tasks is: A. Test design – (2) Identifying test data to support the test cases B. Test implementation – (3) Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data C. Test execution – (4) Analyzing discrepancies to determine their cause D. Test completion – (1) Entering change requests for open defect reports Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 22 / 40 22. Prior to an iteration planning session, you are studying a user story and its acceptance criteria, deriving test conditions and associated test cases from the user story as a way of applying the principle of early QA and test. What test technique are you applying? a) White-box b) Black-box c) Experience-based d) Error guessing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Structure-based, or white-box techniques are based on an analysis of the architecture, detailed design, internal structure, or the code of the test object b) Is correct. Behavior-based, or black-box techniques are based on an analysis of the appropriate test basis (e.g., formal requirements documents, specifications, use cases, user stories, or business processes), which describe functional and non-functional behavior c) Is not correct. Experience-based techniques leverage the experience of developers, testers, and users to determine what should be tested d) Is not correct. Error guessing is a type of experience-based testing, which is not black-box 23 / 40 23. Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PRODUCT risk? a) The expected security features may not be supported by the system architecture b) The developers may not have time to fix all the defects found by the test team c) The test cases may not provide full coverage of the specified requirements d) The performance test environment may not be ready before the system is due for delivery Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. If the expected security features are not supported by the system architecture, then the system could be seriously flawed. As the system being produced is the problem here, it is a product risk b) Is not correct. If the developers run over budget, or run out of time, that is a problem with the running of the project – it is a project risk c) Is not correct. If the test cases do not provide full coverage of the requirements, this means the testing may not fulfil the requirements of the test plan – it is a project risk d) Is not correct. If the test environment is not ready, this means the testing may not be done, or it may have to be done on a different environment and it is impacting how the project is run – it is a project risk 24 / 40 24. Which of the following is an example of a task that can be carried out as part of the test process? a) Analyzing a defect b) Designing test data c) Assigning a version to a test item d) Writing a user story Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Analyzing a defect is part of debugging, not testing b) Is correct. Creating test data is a test implementation task c) Is not correct. While a tester may need to identify a test item’s version for results reporting purposes, assigning a test item’s version is part of configuration management d) Is not correct. Writing a user story is not a testing activity and should be done by the product owner 25 / 40 25. In what way can testing be part of Quality Assurance? a) It ensures that requirements are detailed enough b) Testing reduces the risk of poor software quality c) It ensures that standards in the organization are followed d) It measures the quality of software in terms of number of executed test cases Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Static testing (reviews) contributes, but could not ensure, that requirements are detailed enough b) Is correct. Testing contributes to the achievement of quality in a variety of ways, e.g., such as reducing the risk of inadequate software quality c) Is not correct. This is quality assurance but not testing d) Is not correct. The quality cannot be measured by counting the number of executed test cases without knowing the outcome 26 / 40 26. Mr. Test has been testing software applications on mobile devices for a period of 5 years. He has a wealth of experience in testing mobile applications and achieves better results in a shorter time than others. Over several months, Mr. Test did not modify the existing automated test cases and did not create any new test cases. This leads to fewer and fewer defects being found by executing the tests. What principle of testing did Mr. Test not observe? a) Testing depends on the environment b) Exhaustive testing is not possible c) Repeating of same tests will not find new defects d) Defects cluster together Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Testing is context dependent, regardless of it being manual or automated (principle #6), but does not result in detecting a decreasing number of faults as described above b) Is not correct. Exhaustive testing is impossible, regardless of the amount of effort put into testing (principle #2) c) Is correct. Principle #5 says “If the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually these tests no longer find any new defects. To detect new defects, existing tests and test data may need changing, and new tests may need to be written.” Automated regression testing of the same test cases will not bring new findings d) Is not correct. ”Defect cluster together” (principle #4). A small number of modules usually contain most of the defects, but this does not mean that fewer and fewer defects will be found 27 / 40 27. Which of the following tools is most useful for reporting test metrics? a) Test management tool b) Static analysis tool c) Coverage tool d) Model-Based testing tools Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Test management tools support the activities associated with test manager including metrics b) Is not correct. Static code analysis metrics would have to do with the code only, not testing as a whole c) Is not correct. These tools report on test basis coverage and code coverage only, not testing as a whole d) Is not correct. Model-Based testing tools focus on one specific area, not testing as a whole 28 / 40 28. Match the following test work products (1-4) with the right description (A-D). 1. Test suite 2. Test case 3. Test script 4. Test charter A. A set of test scripts to be executed in a specific test run B. A set of instructions for the execution of a test C. Contains expected results D. Documentation of test activities in session-based exploratory testing a) 1A, 2C, 3B, 4D b) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C c) 1A, 2C, 3D, 4B d) 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Glossary defines the following tests as: • Test suite: “A set of test scripts or test procedures to be executed in a specific test run.” (1A) • Test case: “A set of preconditions, inputs, actions (where applicable), expected results and post conditions, developed based on test conditions” (2C) • Test script: “A sequence of instructions for the execution of a test” (3B) • Test charter: “Documentation of test activities in session-based exploratory testing” (4D) Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 29 / 40 29. Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing? a) Error guessing requires you to imagine you are the user of the test object and guess mistakes the user could make interacting with it b) Error guessing involves using your personal experience of development and the mistakes you made as a developer c) Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past and typical mistakes made by developers d) Error guessing requires you to rapidly duplicate the development task to identify the sort of mistakes a developer might make Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. error guessing is not a usability technique for guessing how users may fail to interact with the test object b) Is not correct. Although a tester who used to be a developer may use their personal experience to help them when performing error guessing, the technique is not based on prior knowledge of development c) Is correct. The basic concept behind error guessing is that the tester tries to guess what mistakes may have been made by the developer and what defects may be in the test object based on past-experience (and sometimes checklists) d) Is not correct. Duplicating the development task has several flaws that make it impractical, such as the requirement for the tester to have equivalent skills to the developer and the time involved in performing the development. It is not error guessing 30 / 40 30. Which of the following should NOT be a trigger for maintenance testing? a) Decision to test the maintainability of the software b) Decision to test the system after migration to a new operating platform c) Decision to test if archived data is possible to be retrieved d) Decision to test after “hot fixes” Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. This is maintainability testing, not maintenance testing b) Is not correct. This is a trigger for maintenance testing: Operational tests of the new environment as well as of the changed software c) Is not correct. This is the trigger for maintenance testing: testing restore/retrieve procedures after archiving for long retention periods d) Is not correct. This is the trigger for maintenance testing: Reactive modification of a delivered software product to correct emergency defects that have caused actual failures 31 / 40 31. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY reflects the value of static testing? a) By introducing reviews, we have found that both the quality of specifications and the time required for development and testing have increased b) Using static testing means we have better control and cheaper defect management due to the ease of detecting defects later in the lifecycle c) Now that we require the use of static analysis, missed requirements have decreased and communication between testers and developers has improved d) Since we started using static analysis, we find coding defects that might have not been found by performing only dynamic testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Reviews should increase the quality of specifications, however the time required for development and testing should decrease b) Is not correct. Detecting defects is generally easier earlier in the lifecycle c) Is not correct. Reviews will result in fewer missed requirements and better communication between testers and developers, however this is not true for static analysis d) Is correct. This is a benefit of static analysis 32 / 40 32. Which of the following statements is true? a) Impact analysis is useful for confirmation testing during maintenance testing b) Confirmation testing is useful for regression testing during system design c) Impact analysis is useful for regression testing during maintenance testing d) Confirmation testing is useful for impact analysis during maintenance testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While impact analysis is useful during maintenance testing it is not necessary for confirmation testing since confirmation testing is on the intended effects of a bug fix or other change b) Is not correct. Confirmation and regression testing are two separate activities, and confirmation testing is not part of system design c) Is correct. Impact analysis can be used to select regression tests for maintenance testing d) Is not correct. Confirmation testing is not part of impact analysis, though confirmation testing will typically happen during maintenance testing 33 / 40 33. Which of the following metrics would be MOST useful to monitor during test execution? a) Percentage of executed test cases b) Average number of testers involved in the test execution c) Coverage of requirements by source code d) Percentage of test cases already created and reviewed Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Test case execution (e.g., number of test cases run/not run, and test cases passed/failed) b) Is not correct. This metric can be measured, but its value is low. The number of testers does not give any information about the quality of the test object or test progress c) Is not correct. the coverage of requirements by source code is not measured during test execution. At most, the TEST(!) coverage of the code or requirements is measured d) Is not correct. This metric is part of test preparation and not test execution 34 / 40 34. You are testing an unattended gasoline pump that only accepts credit cards. Once the credit card is validated, the pump nozzle placed into the tank, and the desired grade selected, the customer enters the desired amount of fuel in gallons using the keypad. The keypad only allows the entry of digits. Fuel is sold in tenths (0.1) of a gallon, up to 50.0 gallons. Which of the following is a minimum set of desired amounts that covers the equivalence partitions for this input? a) 0.0, 20.0, 60.0 b) 0.0, 0.1, 50.0 c) 0.0, 0.1, 50.0, 70.0 d) -0.1, 0.0, 0.1, 49.9, 50.0, 50.1 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There are three equivalence partitions: • No sale completed (0.0 gallons) • A valid sale occurs (0.1 to 50.0 gallons) • An invalid amount is selected (50.1 or more gallons) Thus: a) Is correct. This set of input values has exactly one test per equivalence partition b) Is not correct. This set of input values has does not cover the invalid amount partition c) Is not correct. This set of input values has two tests for the valid sale equivalence partition, which is not the minimum d) Is not correct. This set of input values covers the three-point boundary values for the two boundaries, not the minimum number required to cover the equivalence partitions 35 / 40 35. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and debugging? a) Testing identifies the source of defects; debugging analyzes the defects and proposes prevention activities b) Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects; debugging eliminates the defects, which are the source of failures c) Testing removes faults; but debugging removes defects that cause the faults d) Dynamic testing prevents the causes of failures; debugging removes the failures Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Testing does not identify the source of defects, debugging identifies the source of defects b) Is correct. Dynamic testing can show failures that are caused by defects in the software. Debugging eliminates the defects, which are the source of failures c) Is not correct. Testing does not remove faults, but debugging removes faults, which is synonyms for defects, that may cause the failures d) Is not correct. Dynamic testing does not directly prevent the causes of failures (defects) but detects the presence of defects 36 / 40 36. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of product risk analysis CORRECTLY influencing the testing? a) The potential impact of security flaws has been identified as being particularly high, so security testing has been prioritized ahead of some other testing activities b) Testing has found the quality of the network module to be higher than expected, so additional testing will be performed in that area c) The users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, so additional usability testing is planned for the replacement system d) The time needed to load web pages is crucial to the success of the new website, so an expert in performance testing has been employed for this project Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale This question is looking for bad application of product risk analysis. a) Is not correct. As we are told security flaws have a particularly high impact, their risk level will be higher, and thus we have prioritized the security testing ahead of some other testing. Thus, product risk analysis has influenced the testing properly. b) Is correct. As less defects than expected have been found in the network module, the perceived risk in this area should be lower, and so less testing should be focused on this area, NOT additional testing. Thus, product risk analysis has NOT CORRECTLY influenced the testing in this situation c) Is not correct. Because the users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, there is now high awareness of the risk associated with the user interface, which has resulted in additional usability testing being planned. Thus, product risk analysis has properly influenced the thoroughness and scope of testing d) Is not correct. As the time needed to load web pages has been identified as crucial to the success of the new website, the performance of the website should be considered a risk, and the employment of an expert in performance testing helps to mitigate this risk. Thus, product risk analysis has properly influenced the testing 37 / 40 37. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units. Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field? a) 10.0, 28.0 b) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1 c) 0.2, 0.9, 29.5 d) 12.3 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There are three equivalence partitions, with the boundaries as shown: • Invalid too low (0.4 and below) • Valid (0.5 to 25.0) • Invalid too high (25.1 and above) Thus: a) Is not correct. Only two of the equivalence partitions are covered in this set of tests b) Is not correct. Each of those four boundary values are included in this set of tests, but the question asked for equivalence partition coverage with minimal tests, so either 0.5 or 25.0 should be dropped c) Is correct. Each of these three equivalence partitions are covered in this set of tests d) Is not correct. Only one of those equivalence partitions is covered by this test 38 / 40 38. Given the following statements about the relationships between software development activities and test activities in the software development lifecycle: 1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity 2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available 3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding development activity 4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development lifecycle Which of the following CORRECTLY shows which are true and false? a) True – 1, 2; False – 3, 4 b) True – 2, 3; False – 1, 4 c) True – 1, 2, 4; False – 3 d) True – 1, 4; False – 2, 3 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering each statement: 1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity. TRUE 2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available. FALSE – it should start as soon as drafts are available 3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding development activity. FALSE – the analysis and design of tests should start during the corresponding development activity, not the implementation 4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development lifecycle. TRUE Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 39 / 40 39. What is checklist-based testing? a) A test technique in which tests are derived based on the tester's knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures b) A test technique based on an analysis of the specification of a component or system c) An experience-based test technique whereby the experienced tester uses a list of items to be noted, checked, or remembered, or a set of rules or criteria against which a product must be verified d) An approach to testing where the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This is error guessing b) Is not correct. This is black-box test technique c) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers d) Is not correct. This is exploratory testing 40 / 40 40. Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review? a) Manager – Decides on the execution of reviews b) Review Leader - Ensures effective running of review meetings c) Scribe – Fixes defects in the work product under review d) Moderator – Monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. The management decides about performing the review b) Is not correct. The moderator, not the review leader should ensure the effective running of review meetings c) Is not correct. The author fixes the work product under review d) Is not correct. The manager monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness 0% Restart quiz
