2018v3.1 – Exam 4 – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 25, 2024 By

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2018v3.1 - Exam 4

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1. Which of the following provides the definition of the term test case?

a) Subset of the value domain of a variable within a component or system in which all values are expected to be treated the same based on the specification

b) A set of preconditions, inputs, actions, expected results and post conditions, developed based on test conditions

c) Work products produced during the test process for use in planning, designing, executing, evaluating, and reporting on testing

d) A source to determine an expected result to compare with the actual result of the system under test

Select ONE option.

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2. Which one of the following is the description of statement coverage?

a) It is a metric, which is the percentage of test cases that have been executed

b) It is a metric, which is the percentage of statements in the source code that have been executed

c) It is a metric, which is the number of statements in the source code that have been executed by test cases that are passed

d) It is a metric, that gives a true/false confirmation if all statements are covered or not

Select ONE option.

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3. In what way can testing be part of Quality Assurance?

a) It ensures that requirements are detailed enough

b) Testing reduces the risk of poor software quality

c) It ensures that standards in the organization are followed

d) It measures the quality of software in terms of number of executed test cases

Select ONE option.

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4. Which of the following statements about test types and test levels is CORRECT?

a) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing

b) Functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component testing

c) It is possible to perform functional, non-functional and white-box testing at any test level

d) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing

Select ONE option.

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5. Which of the following descriptions of statement coverage is CORRECT?

a) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of lines of source code exercised by tests

b) Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests

c) Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of lines of source code (without comments) exercised by tests

d) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests

Select ONE option.

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6. You are working as a tester on an online banking system. Availability is considered one of the top products (quality) risks for the system. You find a reproducible failure that results in customers losing their connections to the bank Web site when transferring funds between common types of accounts and being unable to reconnect for between three and five minutes.

Which of the following would be a good summary for a defect report for this failure, one that captures both the essence of the failure and its impact on stakeholders?

a) Web server logs show error 0x44AB27 when running test 07.005, which is not an expected error message in /tmp filesystem

b) Developers have introduced major availability defect which will seriously upset our customers

c) Performance is slow and reliability flaky under load

d) Typical funds-transfer transaction results in termination of customer session, with a delay in availability when attempting to reconnect

Select ONE option.

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7. You are testing a new version of software for a coffee machine. The machine can prepare different types of coffee based on four categories. i.e., coffee size, sugar, milk, and syrup. The criteria are as follows:

• Coffee size (small, medium, large)
• Sugar (none, 1 unit, 2 units, 3 units, 4 units)
• Milk (yes or no)
• Coffee flavor syrup (no syrup, caramel, hazelnut, vanilla)

Now you are writing a defect report with the following information:

• Title: Low coffee temperature.
• Short summary: When you select coffee with milk, the time for preparing coffee is too long and the temperature of the beverage is too low (less than 40 °C).
• Expected result: The temperature of coffee should be standard (about 75 °C).
• Degree of risk: Medium
• Priority: Normal

What valuable information was omitted in the above defect report?

a) The actual test results

b) Identification of the tested software version

c) Status of the defect

d) Ideas for improving the test case

Select ONE option.

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8. During a project following Agile methods, you find a discrepancy between the developer’s interpretation of an acceptance criteria and the product owner’s interpretation, which you bring up during a user story refinement session. Which of the following is a benefit of test independence exemplified by this situation?

a) Recognizing different kinds of failures

b) Taking primary responsibility for quality

c) Removing a defect early

d) Challenging stakeholder assumptions

Select ONE option.

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9. Consider the following list of undesirable outcomes that could occur on a mobile app development effort:

A. Incorrect totals on screens
B. Change to acceptance criteria during acceptance testing
C. Users find the soft keyboard too hard to use with your app
D. System responds too slowly to user input during search string entry
E. Testers not allowed to report test results in daily standup meetings

Which of the following properly classifies these outcomes as project and product risks?

a) Product risks: B, E; Project risks: A, C, D

b) Product risks: A, C, D; Project risks: B, E

c) Product risks: A, C, D, E Project risks: B

d) Product risks: A, C Project risks: B, D, E

Select ONE option.

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10. You are working as a tester on an Agile team and have participated in over two dozen user story refinement sessions with the product owner and the developers on the team at the start of each iteration. As the reviews have gotten more effective at detecting defects in user stories and the product owner more proficient at correcting those defects, you and the team notice that the team’s velocity, as shown in your burndown charts, has started to increase. Which of the following is a benefit of static testing that is MOST DIRECTLY related to the team’s increased velocity?

a) Increasing total cost of quality

b) Reducing testing cost

c) Increasing development productivity

d) Reducing total cost of quality

Select ONE option.

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11. Which of the following statements on the use of checklists in a formal review is CORRECT?

a) As part of the review planning, the reviewers create the checklists needed for the review

b) As part of the issue communication, the reviewers fill in the checklists provided for the review

c) As part of the review meeting, the reviewers create defect reports based on the checklists provided for the review

d) As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists needed for the review

Select ONE option.

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12. Which one of the following test tools is mostly suitable for developers rather than testers?

a) Requirement management tools

b) Configuration management tools

c) Static analysis tools

d) Performance testing tools

Select ONE option.

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13. During an Agile development effort, a product owner discovers a previously unknown regulatory requirement that applies to most of the user stories within a particular epic. The user stories are updated to provide for the necessary changes in software behavior. The programmers on the team are modifying the code appropriately. As a tester on the team, what types of tests will you run?

a) Confirmation tests

b) Regression tests

c) Functional tests

d) Change-related tests

Select ONE option.

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14. You are testing an unattended gasoline pump that only accepts credit cards. Once the credit card is validated, the pump nozzle placed into the tank, and the desired grade selected, the customer enters the desired amount of fuel in gallons using the keypad. The keypad only allows the entry of digits. Fuel is sold in tenths (0.1) of a gallon, up to 50.0 gallons.

Which of the following is a minimum set of desired amounts that covers the equivalence partitions for this input?

a) 0.0, 20.0, 60.0

b) 0.0, 0.1, 50.0

c) 0.0, 0.1, 50.0, 70.0

d) -0.1, 0.0, 0.1, 49.9, 50.0, 50.1

Select ONE option.

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15. Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT?

a) With the metrics-based approach, the estimate is based on test measures from the project and so this estimate is only available after the testing starts

b) With the expert-based approach, a group of expert users identified by the client recommends the necessary testing budget

c) With the expert-based approach, the test managers responsible for the different testing activities predict the expected testing effort

d) With the metrics-based approach, an average of the testing costs recorded from several past projects is used as the testing budget

Select ONE option.

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16. Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case?

a) Test cases are created to exercise defined basic, exceptional and error behaviors performed by the system under test in collaboration with actors

b) Test cases are derived by identifying the components included in the use case and creating integration tests that exercise the interactions of these components

c) Test cases are generated by analyzing the interactions of the actors with the system to ensure the user interfaces are easy to use

d) Test cases are derived to exercise each of the decision points in the business process flows of the use case, to achieve 100% decision coverage of these flows

Select ONE option.

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17. Which of the following is a typical test objective?

a) Preventing defects

b) Repairing defects

c) Comparing actual results to expected results

d) Analyzing the cause of failure

Select ONE option.

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18. Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester?

a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and set the tools usage guidelines

b) The test manager plans, coordinates, and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests

c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides on the release of the test object

d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester executes the tests

Select ONE option.

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19. Which of the following is an example of a failure in a car cruise control system?

a) The developer of the system forgot to rename variables after a cut-and-paste operation

b) Unnecessary code that sounds an alarm when reversing was included in the system

c) The system stops maintaining a set speed when the radio volume is increased or decreased

d) The design specification for the system wrongly states speeds

Select ONE option.

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20. What is decision coverage?

a) The coverage of condition outcomes

b) Decision coverage is a synonym for statement coverage

c) The coverage of executable statements

d) The coverage of decision outcomes

Select ONE option.

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21. Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review?

a) Manager – Decides on the execution of reviews

b) Review Leader - Ensures effective running of review meetings

c) Scribe – Fixes defects in the work product under review

d) Moderator – Monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness

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22. A speed control and reporting system has the following characteristics:

• If you drive 50 km/h or less, nothing will happen.
• If you drive faster than 50 km/h, but no more than 55 km/h, you will be warned.
• If you drive faster than 55 km/h but not more than 60 km/h, you will be fined.
• If you drive faster than 60 km/h, your driving license will be suspended.
• The speed in km/h is available to the system as an integer value.

Which would be the most likely set of values (km/h) identified by applying the boundary value analysis, where only the values on the boundaries of the equivalence classes are selected?

a) 0, 49, 50, 54, 59, 60

b) 50, 55, 60

c) 49, 50, 54, 55, 60, 62

d) 50, 51, 55, 56, 60, 61

Select ONE option.

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23. You are working on a video game development project, using Agile methods. It is based on Greek mythology and history, and players can play key roles in scenarios such as the battles between the Greeks and Trojans.

Consider the following user story and its associated acceptance criteria:

As a player,
I want to be able to acquire the Rod of Midas (a new magic object),
so that I can turn objects and other players into gold
AC1: The Rod must work on any object or player, no matter what size, which can be touched anywhere by the player holding the Rod
AC2: Holding the Rod does not change the player holding it into gold
AC3: Any object or player touched by the Rod transforms completely into gold within one millisecond
AC4: The Rod appears as shown in Prototype O.W.RoM
AC5: The transformation starts at the point of contact with the Rod and moves at a rate of one meter per millisecond

You are participating in a checklist-based review session of this user story.

This user story and its associated acceptance criteria contain which of the following typical defects identified by static testing in this type of work product?

a) Deviation from standards

b) Contradiction

c) Security vulnerability

d) Coverage gaps

Select ONE option.

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24. Programmers often write and execute unit tests against code which they have written. During this self-testing activity, which of the following is a tester mindset that programmers should adopt to perform this unit testing effectively?

a) Good communication skills

b) Code coverage

c) Evaluating code defects

d) Attention to detail

Select ONE option.

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25. Which of the following is a true statement about exploratory testing?

a) More experienced testers who have tested similar applications and technologies are likely to do better than less experienced testers at exploratory testing

b) Exploratory testing does not identify any additional tests beyond those that would result from formal test techniques

c) The time required to complete an exploratory testing session cannot be predicted in advance

d) Exploratory testing can involve the use of black-box techniques but not white-box techniques

Select ONE option.

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26. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of product risk analysis CORRECTLY influencing the testing?

a) The potential impact of security flaws has been identified as being particularly high, so security testing has been prioritized ahead of some other testing activities

b) Testing has found the quality of the network module to be higher than expected, so additional testing will be performed in that area

c) The users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, so additional usability testing is planned for the replacement system

d) The time needed to load web pages is crucial to the success of the new website, so an expert in performance testing has been employed for this project

Select ONE option.

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27. Which activities are carried out within the planning of a formal review?

a) Collection of metrics for the evaluation of the effectiveness of the review

b) Answer any questions the participants may have

c) Definition and Verification of fulfillment of entry criteria for the review

d) Evaluation of the review findings against the exit criteria

Select ONE option.

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28. Which of the following is a typical objective of testing?

a) To find defects and failures

b) To validate the project plan works as required

c) Ensuring of complete testing

d) Comparing actual results with expected results

Select ONE option.

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29. Consider the following types of defects that a test level might focus on:

a) Defects in separately testable modules or objects
b) Not focused on identifying defects
c) Defects in interfaces and interactions
d) Defects in the whole test object

Which of the following list correctly matches test levels from the Foundation syllabus with the defect focus options given above?

a) 1 = performance test; 2 = component test; 3 = system test; 4 = acceptance test

b) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = system test; 4 = integration test

c) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = integration test; 4 = system test

d) 1 = integration test; 2 = system test; 3 = component test; 4 = acceptance test

Select ONE option.

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30. Which of the following is a defect rather than a root cause in a fitness tracker?

a) Because the author of the requirements was unfamiliar with the domain of fitness training, he therefore wrongly assumed that users wanted heartbeat in beats per hour

b) The tester of the smartphone interface had not been trained in state transition testing, so missed a major defect

c) An incorrect configuration variable implemented for the GPS function could cause location problems during daylight saving times

d) Because the designer had never worked on wearable devices before, she as designer of the user interface therefore misunderstood the effects of reflected sunlight

Select ONE option.

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31. The project develops a "smart" heating thermostat. The control algorithms of the thermostat were modeled as Matlab/Simulink models and run on the internet connected server. The thermostat uses the specifications of the server to trigger the heating valves.

The test manager has defined the following test strategy/approach in the test plan:

1. The acceptance test for the whole system is executed as an experience-based test.
2. The control algorithms on the server are checked against standard of the energy saving regulation.
3. The functional test of the thermostat is performed as risk-based testing.
4. The security tests of data / communication via the internet are executed together with external security experts.

What four common types of test strategies/approaches did the test manager implement in the test plan?

a) Methodical, analytical, reactive, and regression-averse

b) Analytical, standard-compliant, consultative, and reactive

c) Model-based, methodical, analytical, and consultative

d) Regression-averse, consultative, reactive, and methodical

Select ONE option.

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32. Which of the following BEST describes how value is added by maintaining traceability between the test basis and test artifacts?

a) Maintenance testing can be fully automated based on changes to the initial requirements

b) It is possible to determine if a new test case has increased coverage of the requirements

c) Test managers can identify which testers found the highest severity defects

d) Areas that may be impacted by side-effects of a change can be targeted by confirmation testing

Select ONE option.

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33. A tester participated in a discussion about proposed database structure. The tester identified a potential performance problem related to certain common user searches. This possible problem was explained to the development team. Which of the following is a testing contribution to success that BEST matches this situation?

a) Enabling required tests to be identified at an early stage

b) Ensuring processes are carried out properly

c) Reducing the risk of fundamental design defects

d) Reducing the risk of untestable functionality

Select ONE option.

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34. Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

a) Risk level is calculated by adding together the probabilities of all problem situations and the financial harm that results from them

b) Risk level is estimated by multiplying the likelihood of a threat to the system by the chance that the threat will occur and will result in financial damage

c) Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable event and the expected impact of that event

d) Risk level is the sum of all potential hazards to a system multiplied by the sum of all potential losses from that system

Select ONE option.

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35. A company's employees are paid bonuses if they work more than a year in the company and achieve a target which is individually agreed before.

These facts can be shown in a decision table:

Which of the following test cases represents a situation that can happen in real life, and is missing in the above decision table?

a) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO

b) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= YES

c) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO

d) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= NO

Select ONE option.

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36. What is checklist-based testing?

a) A test technique in which tests are derived based on the tester's knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures

b) A test technique based on an analysis of the specification of a component or system

c) An experience-based test technique whereby the experienced tester uses a list of items to be noted, checked, or remembered, or a set of rules or criteria against which a product must be verified

d) An approach to testing where the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests

Select ONE option.

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37. How can white-box testing be applied during user acceptance testing?

a) To check if large volumes of data can be transferred between integrated systems

b) To check if all code statements and code decision paths have been executed

c) To check if all work process flows have been covered

d) To cover all web page navigations

Select ONE option.

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38. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes a role of impact analysis in Maintenance Testing?

a) Impact analysis is used when deciding if a fix to a maintained system is worthwhile

b) Impact analysis is used to identify how data should be migrated into the maintained system

c) Impact analysis is used to decide which hot fixes are of most value to the user

d) Impact analysis is used to determine the effectiveness of new maintenance test cases

Select ONE option.

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39. Which of the following is a common test metric often used to monitor BOTH test preparation and test execution?

a) Test case status

b) Defect find/fix rates

c) Test environment preparation

d) Estimated cost to find the next defect

Select ONE option.

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40. A smart home app measures the average temperature in the house over the previous week and provides feedback to the occupants on their environmental friendliness based on this temperature.

The feedback for different average temperature ranges (to the nearest °C) should be:

Up to 10°C - Icy Cool!
11°C to 15°C - Chilled Out!
16°C to 19°C - Cool Man!
20°C to 22°C - Too Warm!
Above 22°C - Hot & Sweaty!

Using BVA (only Min- and Max values), which of the following sets of test inputs provides the highest level of boundary coverage?

a) 0°C, 11°C, 20°C, 22°C, 23°C

b) 9°C, 15°C, 19°C, 23°C, 100°C

c) 10°C, 16°C, 19°C, 22°C, 23°C

d) 14°C, 15°C, 18°C, 19°C, 21°C, 22°C

Select ONE option.

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