0% 2 12345678910111213141516171819202122232425262728293031323334353637383940 Created on June 25, 2024 By Admin 2018v3.1 - Exam 4 Name 1 / 40 1. Which of the following is MOST likely to be used as a reason for using a pilot project to introduce a tool into an organization? a) The need to evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices and determining what would need to change b) The need to evaluate the test automation skills and training, mentoring and coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool c) The need to evaluate whether the tool provides the required functionality and does not duplicate existing test tools d) The need to evaluate the tool vendor in terms of the training and other support they provide Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct b) Is not correct. The evaluation of the test automation skills and training, mentoring and coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool should have been performed as part of the tool selection activity c) Is not correct. The decision on whether the tool provides the required functionality and does not duplicate existing tools should have been performed as part of the tool selection activity d) Is not correct. The evaluation of the tool vendor in terms of the training and other support they provide should have been performed as part of the tool selection activity 2 / 40 2. During a project following Agile methods, you find a discrepancy between the developer’s interpretation of an acceptance criteria and the product owner’s interpretation, which you bring up during a user story refinement session. Which of the following is a benefit of test independence exemplified by this situation? a) Recognizing different kinds of failures b) Taking primary responsibility for quality c) Removing a defect early d) Challenging stakeholder assumptions Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While recognizing different kinds of failures is a benefit of tester independence, in the scenario here no code yet exists that can fail, and the problem is that the developer and product owner are both assuming different things about the acceptance criteria b) Is not correct. Developers losing a sense of responsibility for quality is a drawback, not a benefit c) Is not correct. While the effect of the discovery of this disagreement is the earlier removal of the defect, prior to coding, defects can be discovered early by various people, not just independent testers d) Is correct. Challenging stakeholder assumptions is a benefit of tester independence, and here the developer and product owner are both assuming different things about the acceptance criteria 3 / 40 3. A daily radiation recorder for plants produces a sunshine score based on a combination of the number of hours a plant is exposed to the sun (below 3 hours, 3 to 6 hours or above 6 hours) and the average intensity of the sunshine (very low, low, medium, high). Given the following test cases: What is the minimum number of additional test cases that are needed to ensure full coverage of ALL VALID INPUT equivalence partitions? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The following valid input equivalence partitions can be identified: • Hours 1. Below 3 hours 2. 3 to 6 hours 3. Above 6 hours • Intensity 4. Very low 5. Low 6. Medium 7. High The given test cases cover the following valid input equivalence partitions: Thus, the missing valid input equivalence partitions are: (2), (5) and (7). These can be covered by two test cases, as (2) can be combined with either (5) or (7). Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 4 / 40 4. Which one of the statements below describes the most common situation for a failure discovered during testing or in production? a) The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box b) The wrong version of a compiled source code file was included in the build c) The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables d) The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. A crash is clearly noticeable by the user b) Is not correct. This is a defect, not a failure since there is something wrong in the code. It may not result in a visible or noticeable failure, for example if the changes in the source code file are only in comments c) Is not correct. The use of wrong input variables may not result in a visible or noticeable failure, for example if nobody uses this particular algorithm; or if the wrong input variable has a similar value to the correct input variable; or if the FALSE result of the algorithm is not used d) Is not correct. This type of fault will not necessarily lead to a failure; for example, if no one uses this special algorithm 5 / 40 5. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units. Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field? a) 10.0, 28.0 b) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1 c) 0.2, 0.9, 29.5 d) 12.3 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There are three equivalence partitions, with the boundaries as shown: • Invalid too low (0.4 and below) • Valid (0.5 to 25.0) • Invalid too high (25.1 and above) Thus: a) Is not correct. Only two of the equivalence partitions are covered in this set of tests b) Is not correct. Each of those four boundary values are included in this set of tests, but the question asked for equivalence partition coverage with minimal tests, so either 0.5 or 25.0 should be dropped c) Is correct. Each of these three equivalence partitions are covered in this set of tests d) Is not correct. Only one of those equivalence partitions is covered by this test 6 / 40 6. A product owner says that your role as a tester on an Agile team is to catch all the bugs before the end of each iteration. Which of the following is a testing principle that could be used to respond to this (false) statement? a) Defect clustering b) Testing shows the presence of defects c) Absence of error fallacy d) Root cause analysis Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Defect clustering has to do with where defects are most likely to be found, not whether all of them can be found b) Is correct. Testing can show the presence of defects but cannot prove their absence, which makes it impossible to know if you have caught all the bugs. Further, the impossibility of exhaustive testing makes it impossible for you to catch all the bugs c) Is not correct. This principle says that you can find and remove many bugs but still release an unsuccessful software product, which is not what the product owner is asking you to ensure d) Is not correct. Root cause analysis is not a testing principle 7 / 40 7. Which one of the following options is categorized as a black-box test technique? a) A technique based on analysis of the architecture b) A technique checking that the test object is working according to the detailed design c) A technique based on the knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures d) A technique based on formal requirements Select ONE option Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This is a white-box test technique b) Is not correct. This is a white-box test technique c) Is not correct. This is an experience-based test technique d) Is correct. Black-box test techniques are based on an analysis of the appropriate test basis (e.g., formal requirements documents, specifications, use cases, user stories) 8 / 40 8. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes a role of impact analysis in Maintenance Testing? a) Impact analysis is used when deciding if a fix to a maintained system is worthwhile b) Impact analysis is used to identify how data should be migrated into the maintained system c) Impact analysis is used to decide which hot fixes are of most value to the user d) Impact analysis is used to determine the effectiveness of new maintenance test cases Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Impact analysis may be used to identify those areas of the system that will be affected by the fix, and so the extent of the impact (e.g., necessary regression testing) can be used when deciding if the change is worthwhile b) Is not correct. Although testing migrated data is part of maintenance testing (see conversion testing), impact analysis does not identify how this is done c) Is not correct. Impact analysis shows which parts of a system are affected by a change, so it can show the difference between different hot fixes in terms of the impact on the system, however it does not give any indication of the value of the changes to the user d) Is not correct. Impact analysis shows which parts of a system are affected by a change; it cannot provide an indication of the effectiveness of test cases 9 / 40 9. Which of the following options are roles in a formal review? a) Developer, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Tester b) Author, Moderator, Manager, Reviewer, Developer c) Author, Manager, Review leader, Reviewer, Designer d) Author, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Scribe Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Tester and developer are NOT roles in a formal review b) Is not correct. Developer is NOT a role in a formal review c) Is not correct. Designer is NOT a role in a formal review d) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers 10 / 40 10. Programmers often write and execute unit tests against code which they have written. During this self-testing activity, which of the following is a tester mindset that programmers should adopt to perform this unit testing effectively? a) Good communication skills b) Code coverage c) Evaluating code defects d) Attention to detail Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The programmer appears to be performing unit testing on their own code b) Is not correct. Code coverage is useful for unit testing, but it is not a tester mindset c) Is not correct. The programmer’s mindset included contemplating what might be wrong with the code, but that is not a tester’s mindset d) Is correct. This tester mindset, attention to detail, will help programmers find defects during unit testing 11 / 40 11. You are working as a project manager on an in-house banking software project. To prevent rework and excessive find/fix/retest cycles, the following process has been put in place for resolving a defect once it is found in the test lab: 1. The assigned developer finds and fixes the defect, then creates an experimental build 2. A peer developer reviews, unit tests, and confirmation tests the defect fix on his/her desktop 3. A tester – usually the one who found the defect – confirmation tests the defect fix in the development environment 4. Once a day, a new release with all confirmed defect fixes included, is installed in the test environment 5. The same tester from step 3 confirmation tests the defect fix in the test environment Nevertheless, a large number of defects which the testers confirmed as fixed in the development environment (in step 3) are somehow failing confirmation testing in the test environment, with the resulting rework and cycle time outcomes. You have the highest confidence in your testers and have ruled out mistakes or omissions in step 3. Which of the following is the MOST likely part of the process to check next? a) The activity of developers, who may not be adequately testing in step 2 b) The activity of testers, who may be confused about what to test in step 5 c) Configuration management, which may not be maintaining the integrity of the product in step 4 d) The activity of developers, who may not be fixing defects properly in step 1 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. If inadequate developer testing were the problem, the confirmation test would not pass in step 3 b) Is not correct. The same tester who successfully performed the confirmation test in step 3 is repeating it in step 5 c) Is correct. Configuration management maintains the integrity of the software. If a test that passes in step 3 fails in step 5, then something is different between those two steps. One possible difference is the test object, the option listed here. Another possible difference is the between the development environment and the test environment, but that is not an option listed here d) Is not correct. If the developers were not fixing the defect, the confirmation test would not pass in step 3 12 / 40 12. Given that the testing being performed has the following attributes: • Based on interface specifications • Focused on finding failures in communication • The test approach uses both functional and structural test types Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed? a) Integration testing b) Acceptance testing c) System testing d) Component testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering the scenario: 1. ‘testing is based on interface specifications’ – the test basis for integration testing includes interface specifications (along with communication protocol specification), while these are not included for any of the other test levels 2. ‘testing is focused on finding failures in communication’ - failures in the communication between tested components is included as a typical failure for integration testing, but failures in communication is not included for any of the other test levels 3. ‘the test approach uses both functional and structural test types’ - functional and structural test types are both included as possible approaches for integration testing, and would also be appropriate for any of the other test levels, although they are only otherwise explicitly mentioned in the syllabus for system testing Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 13 / 40 13. Which of the following qualities is MORE likely to be found in a tester’s mindset rather than in a developer’s? a) A tester´s mindset tends to grow and mature as the tester gains experience b) Ability to see what might go wrong c) Good communication with team members d) Focus on getting all things done Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Both developers and testers gain from experience b) Is correct. Developers are often more interested in designing and building solutions than in contemplating what might be wrong with those solutions c) Is not correct. Both developers and testers should be able to communicate well d) Is not correct. Testers shall focus on the quality, not on the quantity 14 / 40 14. A company's employees are paid bonuses if they work more than a year in the company and achieve a target which is individually agreed before. These facts can be shown in a decision table: Which of the following test cases represents a situation that can happen in real life, and is missing in the above decision table? a) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO b) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= YES c) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO d) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= NO Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. If there was no agreement on targets, it is impossible to reach the targets. Since this situation can´t occur, this is not a scenario happening in reality b) Is not correct. The test case is objectively wrong, since under these conditions no bonus is paid because the agreed target was not reached c) Is not correct. There was no agreement on targets, it is impossible to reach the targets. Since this situation can´t occur, this is not a scenario happening in reality d) Is correct. The test case describes the situation that the too short period of employment and the non-fulfilment of the agreed target leads to non-payment of the bonus. This situation can occur in practice but is missing in the decision table 15 / 40 15. You are engaged in planning a test effort for a new mobile banking application. As part of estimation, you first meet with the proposed testers and others on the project. The team is well-coordinated and has already worked on similar projects. To verify the resulting estimate, you then refer to some industry averages for testing effort and costs on similar projects, published by a reputable consultant. Which statement accurately describes your estimation approach? a) A simultaneous expert-based and metrics-based approach b) Primarily an expert-based approach, augmented with a metrics-based approach c) Primarily a metrics-based approach, augmented with an expert-based approach d) Primarily planning poker, checked by velocity from burndown charts Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The two methods are used sequentially, not simultaneously b) Is correct. The primary sources of information come from the experienced testers, who are the experts. The consultant’s industry averages augment the original estimate from published metrics c) Is not correct. The expert-based approach is the primary approach, augmented by a metrics-based approach d) Is not correct. We do not know if this project is following Agile methods, and burndown charts do not come from external consultants 16 / 40 16. Which of the following is a defect rather than a root cause in a fitness tracker? a) Because the author of the requirements was unfamiliar with the domain of fitness training, he therefore wrongly assumed that users wanted heartbeat in beats per hour b) The tester of the smartphone interface had not been trained in state transition testing, so missed a major defect c) An incorrect configuration variable implemented for the GPS function could cause location problems during daylight saving times d) Because the designer had never worked on wearable devices before, she as designer of the user interface therefore misunderstood the effects of reflected sunlight Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The lack of familiarity of the requirements author with the fitness domain is a root cause b) Is not correct. The lack of training of the tester in state transition testing was one of the root causes of the defect (the developer presumably created the defect, as well) c) Is correct. The incorrect configuration data represents faulty software in the fitness tracker (a defect), that may cause failures d) Is not correct. The lack of experience in designing user interfaces for wearable devices is a typical example of a root cause of a defect 17 / 40 17. Which of the following tools is most useful for reporting test metrics? a) Test management tool b) Static analysis tool c) Coverage tool d) Model-Based testing tools Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Test management tools support the activities associated with test manager including metrics b) Is not correct. Static code analysis metrics would have to do with the code only, not testing as a whole c) Is not correct. These tools report on test basis coverage and code coverage only, not testing as a whole d) Is not correct. Model-Based testing tools focus on one specific area, not testing as a whole 18 / 40 18. Consider the following testing activities: 1. Selecting regression tests 2. Evaluating completeness of test execution 3. Identifying which user stories have open defect reports 4. Evaluating whether the number of tests for each requirement is consistent with the level of product risk Consider the following ways traceability can help testing: A. Improve understandability of test status reports to include status of test basis items B. Make testing auditable C. Provide information to assess process quality D. Analyze the impact of changes Which of the following best matches the testing activity with how traceability can assist that activity? a) 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A b) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C c) 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B d) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Traceability assists with: • Selecting regression tests in terms of analyzing the impact of changes (1D) • Evaluating completeness of test execution which makes testing auditable (2B) • Identifying which user stories have open defect reports which improves understandability of test status reports to include status of test basis items (3A) • Evaluating whether the number of tests for each requirement is consistent with the level of product risk which provides information to assess test process quality (i.e., alignment of test effort with risk) (4C) Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 19 / 40 19. Which of the following are two factors that can be used to determine the level of risk? a) Testing and development b) Dynamic and reactive c) Statement and decision d) Likelihood and impact Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The level of risk will be determined by the likelihood of an adverse event happening and the impact (the harm) from that event. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 20 / 40 20. Which of the following is a common test metric often used to monitor BOTH test preparation and test execution? a) Test case status b) Defect find/fix rates c) Test environment preparation d) Estimated cost to find the next defect Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Percentage of test cases prepared is a common metric during test preparation while percentage of test cases passed, failed, not run, etc., are common during test execution b) Is not correct. Defect reports are typically filed during test execution, based on failures found c) Is not correct. Test environment preparation is part implementation and would generally be complete before test execution d) Is not correct. Defects are typically reported during test execution, based on failures found, so the cost to find the next defect is available during test execution only 21 / 40 21. Which of the following statements on the use of checklists in a formal review is CORRECT? a) As part of the review planning, the reviewers create the checklists needed for the review b) As part of the issue communication, the reviewers fill in the checklists provided for the review c) As part of the review meeting, the reviewers create defect reports based on the checklists provided for the review d) As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists needed for the review Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. During planning it is decided whether checklists are used. The preparation of the checklists is not part of the planning. In addition, the reviewers are neither involved in the planning, nor responsible for the creation of the checklists b) Is not correct. During issue communication, any potential defects that have been identified in the individual review are communicated. The completion of checklists by the reviewers already takes place, if at all, during individual review c) Is not correct. During review session, the reviewers communicate any potential defects of the work product that they did identify during the individual review. Defect reports are only created during the fixing and reporting activity d) Is correct. Initiating the review (“Kick-off”) involves distributing the work product and other materials, like checklists 22 / 40 22. What is quality? a) Activities focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled b) The degree to which a component or system satisfies the stated and implied needs of its various stakeholders c) The degree to which a component or system protects information and data so that persons or other components or systems have the degree of access appropriate to their types and levels of authorization d) The total costs incurred on quality activities and issues and often split into prevention costs, appraisal costs, internal failure costs and external failure costs Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This is the Glossary definition of quality assurance b) Is correct. This is the Glossary definition of quality c) Is not correct. This is the Glossary definition of security d) Is not correct. This is the Glossary definition of cost of quality 23 / 40 23. Which one of the following is TRUE? a) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the correction has been successfully implemented, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the correction has no side effects b) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the system is still working in a new environment c) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed d) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the new functionality is working, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Regression testing does not check successful implementation of corrections and confirmation testing does not check for side effects b) Is not correct. The statement about confirmation testing should be about regression testing c) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers d) Is not correct. Testing new functionality is not regression testing 24 / 40 24. Which of the following BEST defines risk level? a) Risk level is calculated by adding together the probabilities of all problem situations and the financial harm that results from them b) Risk level is estimated by multiplying the likelihood of a threat to the system by the chance that the threat will occur and will result in financial damage c) Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable event and the expected impact of that event d) Risk level is the sum of all potential hazards to a system multiplied by the sum of all potential losses from that system Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Risk is determined by considering a combination of the likelihood of problem situations and the harm that may result from them but cannot be calculated by adding these together (the probability would be in the range 0 to 1 and the harm could be in dollars) b) Is not correct. Risk is determined by considering a combination of a likelihood and an impact. This definition only considers likelihood and chance (both forms of probability) with no consideration of the impact (or harm) c) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers d) Is not correct. Risk is determined by considering a combination of a likelihood and an impact. This definition only considers hazards and losses (a hazard is a bad event, like a risk, while loss is a form of impact) with no consideration of the likelihood (or probability) 25 / 40 25. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and debugging? a) Testing identifies the source of defects; debugging analyzes the defects and proposes prevention activities b) Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects; debugging eliminates the defects, which are the source of failures c) Testing removes faults; but debugging removes defects that cause the faults d) Dynamic testing prevents the causes of failures; debugging removes the failures Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Testing does not identify the source of defects, debugging identifies the source of defects b) Is correct. Dynamic testing can show failures that are caused by defects in the software. Debugging eliminates the defects, which are the source of failures c) Is not correct. Testing does not remove faults, but debugging removes faults, which is synonyms for defects, that may cause the failures d) Is not correct. Dynamic testing does not directly prevent the causes of failures (defects) but detects the presence of defects 26 / 40 26. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY reflects the value of static testing? a) By introducing reviews, we have found that both the quality of specifications and the time required for development and testing have increased b) Using static testing means we have better control and cheaper defect management due to the ease of detecting defects later in the lifecycle c) Now that we require the use of static analysis, missed requirements have decreased and communication between testers and developers has improved d) Since we started using static analysis, we find coding defects that might have not been found by performing only dynamic testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Reviews should increase the quality of specifications, however the time required for development and testing should decrease b) Is not correct. Detecting defects is generally easier earlier in the lifecycle c) Is not correct. Reviews will result in fewer missed requirements and better communication between testers and developers, however this is not true for static analysis d) Is correct. This is a benefit of static analysis 27 / 40 27. Given the following state model of a battery charger software: Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level of transition coverage for the model? a) OFF → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → LOW b) WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE c) HIGH → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE d) WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Given the annotated state model below: The options achieve the following transition coverage: a) Is not correct: OFF (2) WAIT (1) OFF (2) WAIT (3) TRICKLE (5) CHARGE (9) HIGH (10) CHARGE (7) LOW = 7 transitions (out of 10) b) Is not correct: WAIT (3) TRICKLE (4) WAIT (1) OFF (2) WAIT (3) TRICKLE (5) CHARGE (7) LOW (8) CHARGE = 7 transitions (out of 10) c) Is not correct: HIGH (10) CHARGE (7) LOW (8) CHARGE (6) TRICKLE (4) WAIT (3) TRICKLE (4) WAIT (3) TRICKLE = 6 transitions (out of 10) d) Is correct: WAIT (3) TRICKLE (5) CHARGE (9) HIGH (10) CHARGE (6) TRICKLE (4) WAIT (1) OFF (2) WAIT = 8 transitions (out of 10) 28 / 40 28. Which of the following statements comparing component testing and system testing is TRUE? a) Component testing verifies the functionality of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system b) Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications or use cases c) Component testing only focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics d) Component testing is the responsibility of the testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. System testing does not test interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system; this is a target of integration tests b) Is correct. Examples of work products that can be used as a test basis for component testing include detailed design, code, data model, component specifications. Examples of work products for system testing include system and software requirement specifications (functional and non-functional) use cases c) Is not correct. Component testing does not ONLY focus on functional characteristics d) Is not correct. Component tests are also executed by developers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of (independent) testers 29 / 40 29. As a result of risk analysis, more testing is being directed to those areas of the system under test where initial testing found more defects than average. Which of the following testing principles is being applied? a) Beware of the pesticide paradox b) Testing is context dependent c) Absence-of-errors is a fallacy d) Defects cluster together Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. ‘Beware of the pesticide paradox’ is concerned with re-running the same tests and their fault-finding effectiveness decreasing b) Is not correct. This testing principle is concerned with performing testing differently based on the context (e.g., games vs safety-critical) c) Is not correct. This testing principle is concerned with the difference between a tested and fixed system and a validated system. No ‘errors’ does not mean the system is fit for use d) Is correct. If clusters of defects are identified (areas of the system containing more defects than average), then testing effort should be focused on these areas 30 / 40 30. Consider a mobile app that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. A user story has just been added to the set of features that checks customers’ social media accounts and bank records to give personalized greetings on birthdays and other personal milestones. Which of the following test techniques could a PROGRAMMER use during a unit test of the code to ensure that coverage of situations when the greetings ARE supposed to occur and when the greetings ARE NOT supposed to occur? a) Statement testing b) Exploratory testing c) State transition testing d) Decision testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Statement testing exercises the executable statements in the code, which might result in the absence of certain greetings not being tested b) Is not correct. Unless the test charter specifically mentioned testing both the presence and the absence of each type of greeting, coverage can be difficult to assess for an exploratory test c) Is not correct. State transition testing is useful for situations where the test object responds differently to an input depending on current conditions or previous history, but in this case the test object must decide whether the current date matches a particular milestone and thus whether to display the relevant greeting d) Is correct. Decision testing involves test cases that follow the control flows that occur from a decision point, which in this case would be deciding whether a greeting should or should not be given 31 / 40 31. Mr. Test has been testing software applications on mobile devices for a period of 5 years. He has a wealth of experience in testing mobile applications and achieves better results in a shorter time than others. Over several months, Mr. Test did not modify the existing automated test cases and did not create any new test cases. This leads to fewer and fewer defects being found by executing the tests. What principle of testing did Mr. Test not observe? a) Testing depends on the environment b) Exhaustive testing is not possible c) Repeating of same tests will not find new defects d) Defects cluster together Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Testing is context dependent, regardless of it being manual or automated (principle #6), but does not result in detecting a decreasing number of faults as described above b) Is not correct. Exhaustive testing is impossible, regardless of the amount of effort put into testing (principle #2) c) Is correct. Principle #5 says “If the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually these tests no longer find any new defects. To detect new defects, existing tests and test data may need changing, and new tests may need to be written.” Automated regression testing of the same test cases will not bring new findings d) Is not correct. ”Defect cluster together” (principle #4). A small number of modules usually contain most of the defects, but this does not mean that fewer and fewer defects will be found 32 / 40 32. Given the following priorities and dependencies for these test cases: Which of the following test execution schedules BEST considers the priorities and technical and logical dependencies? a) TC1 – TC3 – TC4 – TC6 – TC2 – TC5 b) TC4 – TC3 – TC1 – TC2 – TC5 – TC6 c) TC4 – TC1 – TC3 – TC5 – TC6 – TC2 d) TC4 – TC2 – TC5 – TC1 – TC3 – TC6 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The test cases should be scheduled in priority order, but the schedule must also take account of the dependencies. The two highest priority test cases (TC1 and TC3) are both dependent on TC4, so the first three test cases should be scheduled as either TC4 – TC1 – TC3 or TC4 – TC3 – TC1 (we have no way to discriminate between TC1 and TC3). Next, we need to consider the remaining medium priority test case, TC6. TC6 is dependent on TC5, but TC5 is dependent on TC2, so the next two three cases must be scheduled as TC2 – TC5 – TC6. This means there are two possible optimal schedules: • TC4 – TC1 – TC3 – TC2 – TC5 – TC6 or • TC4 – TC3 – TC1 – TC2 – TC5 – TC6 Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 33 / 40 33. Which of the following descriptions of statement coverage is CORRECT? a) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of lines of source code exercised by tests b) Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests c) Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of lines of source code (without comments) exercised by tests d) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements exercised by tests. The number of executable statements is often close to the number of lines of code minus the comments, but this option only talks about the number of lines of code exercised and not the proportion exercised b) Is correct. Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements exercised by tests (normally presented as a percentage) c) Is not correct. Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of executable statements exercised by tests, however many of the lines of source code are not executable (e.g., comments) d) Is not correct. Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements exercised by tests. This option only talks about the number of executable statements exercised and not the proportion (or percentage) exercised 34 / 40 34. Which of the following should NOT be a trigger for maintenance testing? a) Decision to test the maintainability of the software b) Decision to test the system after migration to a new operating platform c) Decision to test if archived data is possible to be retrieved d) Decision to test after “hot fixes” Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. This is maintainability testing, not maintenance testing b) Is not correct. This is a trigger for maintenance testing: Operational tests of the new environment as well as of the changed software c) Is not correct. This is the trigger for maintenance testing: testing restore/retrieve procedures after archiving for long retention periods d) Is not correct. This is the trigger for maintenance testing: Reactive modification of a delivered software product to correct emergency defects that have caused actual failures 35 / 40 35. A video application has the following requirement: The application shall allow playing a video on the following display resolution: 1. 640x480 2. 1280x720 3. 1600x1200 4. 1920x1080 Which of the following list of test cases is a result of applying the equivalence partitioning test technique to test this requirement? a) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 1920x1080 (1 test case) b) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 640x480 and 1920x1080 (2 test cases) c) Verify that the application can play a video on each of the display sizes in the requirement (4 test cases) d) Verify that the application can play a video on any one of the display sizes in the requirement (1 test case) Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. See reason from correct answer b) Is not correct. See reason from correct answer c) Is correct. This is a case where the requirement gives an enumeration of discrete values. Each enumeration value is an equivalence class by itself; therefore, each will be tested when using equivalence partitioning test technique d) Is not correct. See reason from correct answer 36 / 40 36. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an incremental development model? a) Defining requirements, designing software and testing are done in phases where in each phase a piece of the system is added b) A phase in the development process should begin when the previous phase is complete c) Testing is viewed as a separate phase which takes place after development has been completed d) Testing is added to development as an increment Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Incremental development involves establishing requirements, designing, building, and testing a system in pieces b) Is not correct. This is a sequential model c) Is not correct. This describes the waterfall model d) Is not correct. Testing alone is not an increment/additional step in the development 37 / 40 37. Which of the following lists contains only typical exit criteria from testing? a) Reliability measures, test coverage, schedule and status about fixing defect and remaining risks b) Reliability measures, test coverage, degree of tester’s independence and product completeness c) Reliability measures, test coverage, test cost, availability of test environment, time to market and product completeness d) Time to market, remaining defects, tester qualification, availability of testable use cases, test coverage and test cost Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers b) Is not correct. The “degree of tester’s independence” does not play a role in exit criteria c) Is not correct. “Availability of test environment” is an entry criterion d) Is not correct. “The Qualification of Tester” is not a typical exit criterion 38 / 40 38. Which of the following descriptions of decision coverage is CORRECT? a) Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of possible paths through the source code exercised by tests b) Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of business flows through the component exercised by tests c) Decision coverage is a measure of the ‘if’ statements in the code that are exercised with both the true and false outcomes d) Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes in the source code exercised by tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. A path through source code is one potential route through the code from the entry point to the exit point that could exercise a range of decision outcomes. Two different paths may exercise all but one of the same decision outcomes, and by just changing a single decision outcome a new path is followed. Test cases that would achieve decision coverage are typically a tiny subset of the test cases that would achieve path coverage. In practice, most non-trivial programs (and all programs with unconstrained loops, such as ‘while’ loops) have a potentially infinite number of possible paths through them and so measuring the percentage covered is practically infeasible b) Is not correct. Coverage of business flows can be a focus of use case testing, but use cases rarely cover a single component. It may be possible to cover the decisions within business flows, but only if they were specified in enough detail, however this option only suggests coverage of “business flows” as a whole. Even if business flows would cover some decisions, the measure “Decision Coverage” don’t measure the percentage of business flows, but the percentage of decision outcomes exercised by the business flows c) Is not correct. Achieving full decision coverage does require all ‘if’ statements to be exercised with both true and false outcomes, however, there are typically several other decision points in the code (e.g., ‘case’ statements and the code controlling loops) that also need to be taken into consideration when measuring decision coverage d) Is correct. Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes exercised (normally presented as a percentage) 39 / 40 39. Which of the following activities is part of the main activity "test analysis" in the test process? a) Identifying any required infrastructure and tools b) Creating test suites from test scripts c) Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement d) Evaluating the test basis for testability Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This activity is performed during the test design activity (test design) b) Is not correct. This activity is performed during the test implementation activity (test implementation) c) Is not correct. This activity is performed during the test completion activity (test completion) d) Is correct. This activity is performed during the test analysis activity (test analysis) 40 / 40 40. You are testing an unattended gasoline pump that only accepts credit cards. Once the credit card is validated, the pump nozzle placed into the tank, and the desired grade selected, the customer enters the desired amount of fuel in gallons using the keypad. The keypad only allows the entry of digits. Fuel is sold in tenths (0.1) of a gallon, up to 50.0 gallons. Which of the following is a minimum set of desired amounts that covers the equivalence partitions for this input? a) 0.0, 20.0, 60.0 b) 0.0, 0.1, 50.0 c) 0.0, 0.1, 50.0, 70.0 d) -0.1, 0.0, 0.1, 49.9, 50.0, 50.1 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There are three equivalence partitions: • No sale completed (0.0 gallons) • A valid sale occurs (0.1 to 50.0 gallons) • An invalid amount is selected (50.1 or more gallons) Thus: a) Is correct. This set of input values has exactly one test per equivalence partition b) Is not correct. This set of input values has does not cover the invalid amount partition c) Is not correct. This set of input values has two tests for the valid sale equivalence partition, which is not the minimum d) Is not correct. This set of input values covers the three-point boundary values for the two boundaries, not the minimum number required to cover the equivalence partitions 0% Restart quiz
