2018v3.1 – Exam 4 – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 25, 2024 By

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2018v3.1 - Exam 4

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1. You have been asked to take part in a checklist-based review of the following excerpt from the requirements specification for a library system:

Librarians can:

1. Register new borrowers
2. Return books from borrowers
3. Accept fines from borrowers
4. Add new books to the system with their ISBN, author and title
5. Remove books from the system
6. Get system responses within 5 seconds

Borrowers can:

7. Borrow a maximum of 3 books at one time
8. View the history of books they have borrowed/reserved
9. Be fined for failing to return a book within 3 weeks
10. Get system responses within 3 seconds
11. Borrow a book at no cost for a maximum of 4 weeks
12. Reserve books (if they are on-loan)

All users (librarians and borrowers):

13. Can search for books by ISBN, author, or title
14. Can browse the system catalogue
15. The system shall respond to user requests within 3 seconds
16. The user interface shall be easy-to-use

You have been assigned the checklist entry that requires you to review the specification for inconsistencies between individual requirements (i.e., conflicts between requirements).

Which of the following CORRECTLY identifies inconsistencies between pairs of requirements?

a) 6-10, 6-15, 7-12

b) 6-15, 9-11

c) 6-10, 6-15, 9-11

d) 6-15, 7-12

Select ONE option.

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2. Which of the following is a common test metric often used to monitor BOTH test preparation and test execution?

a) Test case status

b) Defect find/fix rates

c) Test environment preparation

d) Estimated cost to find the next defect

Select ONE option.

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3. Which of the following options are roles in a formal review?

a) Developer, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Tester

b) Author, Moderator, Manager, Reviewer, Developer

c) Author, Manager, Review leader, Reviewer, Designer

d) Author, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Scribe

Select ONE option.

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4. You will be invited to a review. The work product to be reviewed is a description of the in-house document creation process. The aim of the description is to present the work distribution between the different roles involved in the process in a way that can be clearly understood by everyone.

You will be invited to a checklist-based review. The checklist will also be sent to you. It includes the following points:

i. Is the person who performs the activity clearly identified for each activity?
ii. Are the entry criteria clearly defined for each activity?
iii. Are the exit criteria clearly defined for each activity?
iv. Are the supporting roles and their scope of work clearly defined for each activity?

In the following we show an excerpt of the work result to be reviewed, for which you should use the checklist above:

"After checking the customer documentation for completeness and correctness, the software architect creates the system specification. Once the software architect has completed the system specification, he invites testers and verifiers to the review. A checklist describes the scope of the review. Each invited reviewer creates review comments - if necessary - and concludes the review with an official review done-comment."

Which of the following statements about your review is correct?

a) Point ii) of the checklist has been violated because it is not clear which condition must be fulfilled to invite to the review

b) You notice that in addition to the tester and the verifier, the validator must also be invited. Since this item is not part of your checklist, you do not create a corresponding comment

c) Point iii) of the checklist has been violated as it is not clear what marks the review as completed

d) Point i) of the checklist has been violated because it is not clear who is providing the checklist for the invitation to the review

Select ONE option.

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5. A speed control and reporting system has the following characteristics:

• If you drive 50 km/h or less, nothing will happen.
• If you drive faster than 50 km/h, but no more than 55 km/h, you will be warned.
• If you drive faster than 55 km/h but not more than 60 km/h, you will be fined.
• If you drive faster than 60 km/h, your driving license will be suspended.
• The speed in km/h is available to the system as an integer value.

Which would be the most likely set of values (km/h) identified by applying the boundary value analysis, where only the values on the boundaries of the equivalence classes are selected?

a) 0, 49, 50, 54, 59, 60

b) 50, 55, 60

c) 49, 50, 54, 55, 60, 62

d) 50, 51, 55, 56, 60, 61

Select ONE option.

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6. Given the following test activities and tasks:

A. Test design
B. Test implementation
C. Test execution
D. Test completion

1. Entering change requests for open defect reports
2. Identifying test data to support the test cases
3. Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data
4. Analyzing discrepancies to determine their cause

Which of the following BEST matches the activities with the tasks?

a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

Select ONE option.

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7. Which of the following qualities is MORE likely to be found in a tester’s mindset rather than in a developer’s?

a) A tester´s mindset tends to grow and mature as the tester gains experience

b) Ability to see what might go wrong

c) Good communication with team members

d) Focus on getting all things done

Select ONE option.

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8. Which of the following provides the definition of the term test case?

a) Subset of the value domain of a variable within a component or system in which all values are expected to be treated the same based on the specification

b) A set of preconditions, inputs, actions, expected results and post conditions, developed based on test conditions

c) Work products produced during the test process for use in planning, designing, executing, evaluating, and reporting on testing

d) A source to determine an expected result to compare with the actual result of the system under test

Select ONE option.

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9. Which one of the following test tools is mostly suitable for developers rather than testers?

a) Requirement management tools

b) Configuration management tools

c) Static analysis tools

d) Performance testing tools

Select ONE option.

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10. Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

a) Risk level is calculated by adding together the probabilities of all problem situations and the financial harm that results from them

b) Risk level is estimated by multiplying the likelihood of a threat to the system by the chance that the threat will occur and will result in financial damage

c) Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable event and the expected impact of that event

d) Risk level is the sum of all potential hazards to a system multiplied by the sum of all potential losses from that system

Select ONE option.

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11. You are engaged in planning a test effort for a new mobile banking application. As part of estimation, you first meet with the proposed testers and others on the project. The team is well-coordinated and has already worked on similar projects. To verify the resulting estimate, you then refer to some industry averages for testing effort and costs on similar projects, published by a reputable consultant.

Which statement accurately describes your estimation approach?

a) A simultaneous expert-based and metrics-based approach

b) Primarily an expert-based approach, augmented with a metrics-based approach

c) Primarily a metrics-based approach, augmented with an expert-based approach

d) Primarily planning poker, checked by velocity from burndown charts

Select ONE option.

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12. Which of the following metrics would be MOST useful to monitor during test execution?

a) Percentage of executed test cases

b) Average number of testers involved in the test execution

c) Coverage of requirements by source code

d) Percentage of test cases already created and reviewed

Select ONE option.

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13. Which of the following descriptions of statement coverage is CORRECT?

a) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of lines of source code exercised by tests

b) Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests

c) Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of lines of source code (without comments) exercised by tests

d) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests

Select ONE option.

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14. How can white-box testing be applied during user acceptance testing?

a) To check if large volumes of data can be transferred between integrated systems

b) To check if all code statements and code decision paths have been executed

c) To check if all work process flows have been covered

d) To cover all web page navigations

Select ONE option.

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15. A fitness app measures the number of steps that are walked each day and provides feedback to encourage the user to keep fit.

The feedback for different numbers of steps should be:

Up to 1000 - Couch Potato!
Above 1000, up to 2000 - Lazy Bones!
Above 2000, up to 4000 - Getting There!
Above 4000, up to 6000 - Not Bad!
Above 6000 - Way to Go!

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the BEST equivalence partition coverage?

a) 0, 1000, 2000, 3000, 4000

b) 1000, 2001, 4000, 4001, 6000

c) 123, 2345, 3456, 4567, 5678

d) 666, 999, 2222, 5555, 6666

Select ONE option.

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16. A product owner says that your role as a tester on an Agile team is to catch all the bugs before the end of each iteration. Which of the following is a testing principle that could be used to respond to this (false) statement?

a) Defect clustering

b) Testing shows the presence of defects

c) Absence of error fallacy

d) Root cause analysis

Select ONE option.

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17. Which of the following is a true statement about exploratory testing?

a) More experienced testers who have tested similar applications and technologies are likely to do better than less experienced testers at exploratory testing

b) Exploratory testing does not identify any additional tests beyond those that would result from formal test techniques

c) The time required to complete an exploratory testing session cannot be predicted in advance

d) Exploratory testing can involve the use of black-box techniques but not white-box techniques

Select ONE option.

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18. Consider the following decision table for the portion of an online airline reservation system that allows frequent flyers to redeem points for reward travel:

Suppose that there are two equivalence partitions for the condition where “Account/password okay” is not true, one where the account is invalid and another where the account is valid, but the password is invalid. Suppose that there is only one equivalence partition corresponding to the condition where “Account/password okay” is true, where both the account and password are valid.

If you want to design tests to cover the equivalence partitions for “Account/password okay” and also for this portion of the decision table, what is the minimum number of tests required?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 9

Select ONE option.

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19. Which of the following statements about test types and test levels is CORRECT?

a) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing

b) Functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component testing

c) It is possible to perform functional, non-functional and white-box testing at any test level

d) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing

Select ONE option.

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20. During an Agile development effort, a product owner discovers a previously unknown regulatory requirement that applies to most of the user stories within a particular epic. The user stories are updated to provide for the necessary changes in software behavior. The programmers on the team are modifying the code appropriately. As a tester on the team, what types of tests will you run?

a) Confirmation tests

b) Regression tests

c) Functional tests

d) Change-related tests

Select ONE option.

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21. Match the following test work products (1-4) with the right description (A-D).

1. Test suite
2. Test case
3. Test script
4. Test charter

A. A set of test scripts to be executed in a specific test run
B. A set of instructions for the execution of a test
C. Contains expected results
D. Documentation of test activities in session-based exploratory testing

a) 1A, 2C, 3B, 4D

b) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C

c) 1A, 2C, 3D, 4B

d) 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A

Select ONE option.

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22. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Impact analysis is useful for confirmation testing during maintenance testing

b) Confirmation testing is useful for regression testing during system design

c) Impact analysis is useful for regression testing during maintenance testing

d) Confirmation testing is useful for impact analysis during maintenance testing

Select ONE option.

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23. You are working as a project manager on an in-house banking software project. To prevent rework and excessive find/fix/retest cycles, the following process has been put in place for resolving a defect once it is found in the test lab:

1. The assigned developer finds and fixes the defect, then creates an experimental build
2. A peer developer reviews, unit tests, and confirmation tests the defect fix on his/her desktop
3. A tester – usually the one who found the defect – confirmation tests the defect fix in the development environment
4. Once a day, a new release with all confirmed defect fixes included, is installed in the test environment
5. The same tester from step 3 confirmation tests the defect fix in the test environment

Nevertheless, a large number of defects which the testers confirmed as fixed in the development environment (in step 3) are somehow failing confirmation testing in the test environment, with the resulting rework and cycle time outcomes. You have the highest confidence in your testers and have ruled out mistakes or omissions in step 3.

Which of the following is the MOST likely part of the process to check next?

a) The activity of developers, who may not be adequately testing in step 2

b) The activity of testers, who may be confused about what to test in step 5

c) Configuration management, which may not be maintaining the integrity of the product in step 4

d) The activity of developers, who may not be fixing defects properly in step 1

Select ONE option.

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24. Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT?

a) With the metrics-based approach, the estimate is based on test measures from the project and so this estimate is only available after the testing starts

b) With the expert-based approach, a group of expert users identified by the client recommends the necessary testing budget

c) With the expert-based approach, the test managers responsible for the different testing activities predict the expected testing effort

d) With the metrics-based approach, an average of the testing costs recorded from several past projects is used as the testing budget

Select ONE option.

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25. What is checklist-based testing?

a) A test technique in which tests are derived based on the tester's knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures

b) A test technique based on an analysis of the specification of a component or system

c) An experience-based test technique whereby the experienced tester uses a list of items to be noted, checked, or remembered, or a set of rules or criteria against which a product must be verified

d) An approach to testing where the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests

Select ONE option.

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26. As a result of risk analysis, more testing is being directed to those areas of the system under test where initial testing found more defects than average.

Which of the following testing principles is being applied?

a) Beware of the pesticide paradox

b) Testing is context dependent

c) Absence-of-errors is a fallacy

d) Defects cluster together

Select ONE option.

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27. Which of the following BEST describes how value is added by maintaining traceability between the test basis and test artifacts?

a) Maintenance testing can be fully automated based on changes to the initial requirements

b) It is possible to determine if a new test case has increased coverage of the requirements

c) Test managers can identify which testers found the highest severity defects

d) Areas that may be impacted by side-effects of a change can be targeted by confirmation testing

Select ONE option.

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28. The project develops a "smart" heating thermostat. The control algorithms of the thermostat were modeled as Matlab/Simulink models and run on the internet connected server. The thermostat uses the specifications of the server to trigger the heating valves.

The test manager has defined the following test strategy/approach in the test plan:

1. The acceptance test for the whole system is executed as an experience-based test.
2. The control algorithms on the server are checked against standard of the energy saving regulation.
3. The functional test of the thermostat is performed as risk-based testing.
4. The security tests of data / communication via the internet are executed together with external security experts.

What four common types of test strategies/approaches did the test manager implement in the test plan?

a) Methodical, analytical, reactive, and regression-averse

b) Analytical, standard-compliant, consultative, and reactive

c) Model-based, methodical, analytical, and consultative

d) Regression-averse, consultative, reactive, and methodical

Select ONE option.

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29. What is decision coverage?

a) The coverage of condition outcomes

b) Decision coverage is a synonym for statement coverage

c) The coverage of executable statements

d) The coverage of decision outcomes

Select ONE option.

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30. Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PRODUCT risk?

a) The expected security features may not be supported by the system architecture

b) The developers may not have time to fix all the defects found by the test team

c) The test cases may not provide full coverage of the specified requirements

d) The performance test environment may not be ready before the system is due for delivery

Select ONE option.

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31. Consider the following testing activities:

1. Selecting regression tests
2. Evaluating completeness of test execution
3. Identifying which user stories have open defect reports
4. Evaluating whether the number of tests for each requirement is consistent with the level of product risk

Consider the following ways traceability can help testing:

A. Improve understandability of test status reports to include status of test basis items
B. Make testing auditable
C. Provide information to assess process quality
D. Analyze the impact of changes

Which of the following best matches the testing activity with how traceability can assist that activity?

a) 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A

b) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C

c) 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B

d) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C

Select ONE option.

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32. Given the following state model of a battery charger software:

Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level of transition coverage for the model?

a) OFF → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → LOW

b) WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE

c) HIGH → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE

d) WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT

Select ONE option.

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33. Which one of the statements below describes the most common situation for a failure discovered during testing or in production?

a) The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box

b) The wrong version of a compiled source code file was included in the build

c) The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables

d) The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm

Select ONE option.

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34. Which of the following should NOT be a trigger for maintenance testing?

a) Decision to test the maintainability of the software

b) Decision to test the system after migration to a new operating platform

c) Decision to test if archived data is possible to be retrieved

d) Decision to test after “hot fixes”

Select ONE option.

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35. Which of the following statements comparing component testing and system testing is TRUE?

a) Component testing verifies the functionality of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system

b) Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications or use cases

c) Component testing only focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics

d) Component testing is the responsibility of the testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system

Select ONE option.

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36. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an incremental development model?

a) Defining requirements, designing software and testing are done in phases where in each phase a piece of the system is added

b) A phase in the development process should begin when the previous phase is complete

c) Testing is viewed as a separate phase which takes place after development has been completed

d) Testing is added to development as an increment

Select ONE option.

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37. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units.

Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field?

a) 10.0, 28.0

b) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1

c) 0.2, 0.9, 29.5

d) 12.3

Select ONE option.

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38. Which of the following is an example of a failure in a car cruise control system?

a) The developer of the system forgot to rename variables after a cut-and-paste operation

b) Unnecessary code that sounds an alarm when reversing was included in the system

c) The system stops maintaining a set speed when the radio volume is increased or decreased

d) The design specification for the system wrongly states speeds

Select ONE option.

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39. A batch application has been in production unchanged for over two years. It runs overnight once a month to produce statements that will be e-mailed to customers. For each customer, the application goes through every account and lists every transaction on that account in the last month. It uses a nested-loop structure to process customers (outer loop), each customer’s accounts (middle loop), and each account’s transactions (inner loop).

One night, the batch application terminates prematurely, failing to e-mail statements to some customers, when it encounters a customer with one account for which no transactions occurred in the last month. This is a very unusual situation and has not occurred in the years since this application was placed in production.

While fixing the defect, a programmer asks you to recommend test techniques that are effective against this kind of defect. Which of the following test techniques would most likely have been able to detect the underlying defect?

a) Decision testing

b) Statement testing

c) Checklist-based testing

d) Error guessing

Select ONE option.

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40. Which of the following statements is a valid objective for testing?

a) The test should start as late as possible so that development had enough time to create a good product

b) To validate whether the test object works as expected by the users and other stakeholders

c) To prove that all possible defects are identified

d) To prove that any remaining defects will not cause any failures

Select ONE option.

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