0% 3 12345678910111213141516171819202122232425262728293031323334353637383940 Created on June 25, 2024 By Admin 2018v3.1 - Exam 4 - 75 minutes Name 1 / 40 1. You are testing a mobile app that allows users to find a nearby restaurant, based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (smaller number is high priority), and dependencies, in the following format: Which of the following is a possible test execution schedule that considers both priorities and dependencies? a) 01.001, 01.002, 01.003, 01.005, 01.004 b) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.003, 01.005 c) 01.003, 01.004, 01.002, 01.001, 01.002 d) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.005, 01.003 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Test 01.001 must come first, followed by 01.002, to satisfy dependencies. Afterwards, 01.004 and 01.003 should be run in either order, followed by 01.005, to satisfy priority. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 2 / 40 2. Which of the following statements on the use of checklists in a formal review is CORRECT? a) As part of the review planning, the reviewers create the checklists needed for the review b) As part of the issue communication, the reviewers fill in the checklists provided for the review c) As part of the review meeting, the reviewers create defect reports based on the checklists provided for the review d) As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists needed for the review Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. During planning it is decided whether checklists are used. The preparation of the checklists is not part of the planning. In addition, the reviewers are neither involved in the planning, nor responsible for the creation of the checklists b) Is not correct. During issue communication, any potential defects that have been identified in the individual review are communicated. The completion of checklists by the reviewers already takes place, if at all, during individual review c) Is not correct. During review session, the reviewers communicate any potential defects of the work product that they did identify during the individual review. Defect reports are only created during the fixing and reporting activity d) Is correct. Initiating the review (“Kick-off”) involves distributing the work product and other materials, like checklists 3 / 40 3. Which of the following is a typical objective of testing? a) To find defects and failures b) To validate the project plan works as required c) Ensuring of complete testing d) Comparing actual results with expected results Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. One of the major objectives of testing b) Is not correct. Validation of the project plan would be a project management activity c) Is not correct. Contradiction to principle #2; complete/exhaustive testing is not possible d) Is not correct. “Comparing actual results with expected results” is a test performing activity, but not a test objective 4 / 40 4. Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques? 1. Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test object 2. The processing within the test object is checked 3. Tests are based on defects’ likelihood and their distribution 4. Deviations from the requirements are checked 5. User stories are used as the test basis Using notation for the following 4 options: Black - Black-box test techniques White - White-box test techniques Experience - Experience-based test techniques a) Black – 4, 5 White – 1, 2; Experience – 3 b) Black – 3 White – 1, 2; Experience – 4, 5 c) Black – 4 White – 1, 2; Experience – 3, 5 d) Black – 1, 3, 5 White – 2; Experience – 4 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The correct pairing of descriptions with the different categories of test techniques is: • Black-box test techniques Deviations from the requirements are checked (4) User stories are used as the test basis (5) • White-box test techniques Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test object (1) The processing within the test object is checked (2) • Experience-based test techniques Tests are based on defects’ likelihood and their distribution (3) Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 5 / 40 5. What is decision coverage? a) The coverage of condition outcomes b) Decision coverage is a synonym for statement coverage c) The coverage of executable statements d) The coverage of decision outcomes Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This is the Glossary definition of condition coverage b) Is not correct. Decision coverage is a higher level of coverage and the two terms are not defined as synonyms in the Glossary c) Is not correct. This is the Glossary definition of statement coverage d) Is correct. This is the Glossary definition of coverage as applied to decisions 6 / 40 6. How can white-box testing be applied during user acceptance testing? a) To check if large volumes of data can be transferred between integrated systems b) To check if all code statements and code decision paths have been executed c) To check if all work process flows have been covered d) To cover all web page navigations Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Relevant for integration testing b) Is not correct. Relevant for component testing c) Is correct. For acceptance testing, tests are designed to cover all workflows defined in the functional requirements documents. d) Is not correct. Relevant for system testing 7 / 40 7. Which of the following qualities is MORE likely to be found in a tester’s mindset rather than in a developer’s? a) A tester´s mindset tends to grow and mature as the tester gains experience b) Ability to see what might go wrong c) Good communication with team members d) Focus on getting all things done Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Both developers and testers gain from experience b) Is correct. Developers are often more interested in designing and building solutions than in contemplating what might be wrong with those solutions c) Is not correct. Both developers and testers should be able to communicate well d) Is not correct. Testers shall focus on the quality, not on the quantity 8 / 40 8. During a period of intensive project overtime, a system architecture document is sent to various project participants, announcing a previously unplanned technical review to occur in one week. No adjustments are made to the participants’ list of assigned tasks. Based on this information alone, which of the following is a factor for review success that is MISSING? a) Appropriate review type b) Adequate time to prepare c) Sufficient metrics to evaluate the author d) Well-managed review meeting Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Technical reviews are appropriate for technical documents such as a system architecture b) Is correct. Adequate time for preparation is important, but people are working overtime and no adjustments are made for this new set of tasks c) Is not correct. Gathering metrics from a review to evaluate participants is a factor that leads to failure, not success, because it destroys trust d) Is not correct. A well-managed review meeting is important, but there is no reason to think the review meeting will not be well managed based on the information provided 9 / 40 9. As a result of risk analysis, more testing is being directed to those areas of the system under test where initial testing found more defects than average. Which of the following testing principles is being applied? a) Beware of the pesticide paradox b) Testing is context dependent c) Absence-of-errors is a fallacy d) Defects cluster together Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. ‘Beware of the pesticide paradox’ is concerned with re-running the same tests and their fault-finding effectiveness decreasing b) Is not correct. This testing principle is concerned with performing testing differently based on the context (e.g., games vs safety-critical) c) Is not correct. This testing principle is concerned with the difference between a tested and fixed system and a validated system. No ‘errors’ does not mean the system is fit for use d) Is correct. If clusters of defects are identified (areas of the system containing more defects than average), then testing effort should be focused on these areas 10 / 40 10. Which of the following statements about test types and test levels is CORRECT? a) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing b) Functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component testing c) It is possible to perform functional, non-functional and white-box testing at any test level d) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level - so, although it is correct that functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels, it is incorrect to state that white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing b) Is not correct. It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level - so, it is incorrect to state that white-box testing is restricted to component testing c) Is correct. It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level d) Is not correct. It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level - so, it is incorrect to state that white-box testing is restricted to component testing and integration testing 11 / 40 11. Which of the following descriptions of decision coverage is CORRECT? a) Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of possible paths through the source code exercised by tests b) Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of business flows through the component exercised by tests c) Decision coverage is a measure of the ‘if’ statements in the code that are exercised with both the true and false outcomes d) Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes in the source code exercised by tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. A path through source code is one potential route through the code from the entry point to the exit point that could exercise a range of decision outcomes. Two different paths may exercise all but one of the same decision outcomes, and by just changing a single decision outcome a new path is followed. Test cases that would achieve decision coverage are typically a tiny subset of the test cases that would achieve path coverage. In practice, most non-trivial programs (and all programs with unconstrained loops, such as ‘while’ loops) have a potentially infinite number of possible paths through them and so measuring the percentage covered is practically infeasible b) Is not correct. Coverage of business flows can be a focus of use case testing, but use cases rarely cover a single component. It may be possible to cover the decisions within business flows, but only if they were specified in enough detail, however this option only suggests coverage of “business flows” as a whole. Even if business flows would cover some decisions, the measure “Decision Coverage” don’t measure the percentage of business flows, but the percentage of decision outcomes exercised by the business flows c) Is not correct. Achieving full decision coverage does require all ‘if’ statements to be exercised with both true and false outcomes, however, there are typically several other decision points in the code (e.g., ‘case’ statements and the code controlling loops) that also need to be taken into consideration when measuring decision coverage d) Is correct. Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes exercised (normally presented as a percentage) 12 / 40 12. Which of the following metrics would be MOST useful to monitor during test execution? a) Percentage of executed test cases b) Average number of testers involved in the test execution c) Coverage of requirements by source code d) Percentage of test cases already created and reviewed Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Test case execution (e.g., number of test cases run/not run, and test cases passed/failed) b) Is not correct. This metric can be measured, but its value is low. The number of testers does not give any information about the quality of the test object or test progress c) Is not correct. the coverage of requirements by source code is not measured during test execution. At most, the TEST(!) coverage of the code or requirements is measured d) Is not correct. This metric is part of test preparation and not test execution 13 / 40 13. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independent testing? a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team, so ensuring everyone is aware that quality is the test team’s overall responsibility b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines c) An independent test team can work totally separately from the developers, need not be distracted with changing project requirements, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Quality should be the responsibility of everyone working on the project and not the sole responsibility of the test team b) Is not correct. First, it is not a benefit if an external test team does not meet delivery deadlines, and second, there is no reason to believe that external test teams will feel they do not have to meet strict delivery deadlines c) Is not correct. It is bad practice for the test team to work in complete isolation, and we would expect an external test team to be concerned with changing project requirements and communicate well with developers d) Is correct. Specifications are never perfect, meaning that assumptions will have to be made by the developer. An independent tester is useful in that they can challenge and verify the assumptions and subsequent interpretation made by the developer 14 / 40 14. You are testing an unattended gasoline pump that only accepts credit cards. Once the credit card is validated, the pump nozzle placed into the tank, and the desired grade selected, the customer enters the desired amount of fuel in gallons using the keypad. The keypad only allows the entry of digits. Fuel is sold in tenths (0.1) of a gallon, up to 50.0 gallons. Which of the following is a minimum set of desired amounts that covers the equivalence partitions for this input? a) 0.0, 20.0, 60.0 b) 0.0, 0.1, 50.0 c) 0.0, 0.1, 50.0, 70.0 d) -0.1, 0.0, 0.1, 49.9, 50.0, 50.1 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There are three equivalence partitions: • No sale completed (0.0 gallons) • A valid sale occurs (0.1 to 50.0 gallons) • An invalid amount is selected (50.1 or more gallons) Thus: a) Is correct. This set of input values has exactly one test per equivalence partition b) Is not correct. This set of input values has does not cover the invalid amount partition c) Is not correct. This set of input values has two tests for the valid sale equivalence partition, which is not the minimum d) Is not correct. This set of input values covers the three-point boundary values for the two boundaries, not the minimum number required to cover the equivalence partitions 15 / 40 15. You are performing system testing of a train reservation system. Based on the test cases performed, you have noticed that the system occasionally reports that no trains are available, although this should be the case. You have provided the developers with a summary of the defect and the version of the tested system. They recognize the urgency of the defect and are now waiting for you to provide further details. In addition to the information already provided, the following additional information is given: 1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect 2. Identification of the test object 3. Details of the test environment 4. Urgency/priority to fix 5. Actual results 6. Reference to test case specification Which of this additional information is most useful to include in the defect report? a) 1, 2, 6 b) 1, 4, 5, 6 c) 2, 3, 4, 5 d) 3, 5, 6 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering each of the pieces of information: 1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect – the developers are already aware of the problem and are waiting to fix it, so this is a less important piece of information. 2. Identification of the test object – as the developers are already aware of the problem and you are performing system testing, and you have already provided the version of the system you are testing you can assume they know the object that was being tested, so this is a less important piece of information. 3. Details of the test environment – the set-up of the test environment may have a noticeable effect on the test results, and detailed information should be provided, so this is an important piece of information. 4. Urgency/priority to fix – the developers are already aware of the problem and are waiting to fix it, so this is a less important piece of information. 5. Actual results – the actual results may well help the developers to determine what is going wrong with the system, so this is an important piece of information. 6. Reference to test case specification – this will show the developers the tests you ran, including the test inputs that caused the system to fail (and expected results), so this is an important piece of information. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 16 / 40 16. As a test manager you are responsible for testing the following parts of requirements: • R1 - Process anomalies • R2 - Synchronization • R3 - Approval • R4 - Problem solving • R5 - Financial data • R6 - Diagram data • R7 - Changes to the user profile Notation: Logical requirement dependencies (A -> B means, that B depends on A): Which one of the following options structures the test execution schedule according to the requirement dependencies? a) R1 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 b) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R4 ; R7 ; R5 ; R6 c) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R4 ; R7 d) R1 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. R4 is dependent on R2, so R2 should be tested before R4 b) Is not correct. R4 is dependent on R2, R5 and R6, so R5 and R6 should be tested before R4 c) Is correct. The tests are specified in a sequence that takes the dependencies into account d) Is not correct. R2 is dependent on R3, so R3 should be tested before R2 17 / 40 17. You are working as a tester on an Agile team and have participated in over two dozen user story refinement sessions with the product owner and the developers on the team at the start of each iteration. As the reviews have gotten more effective at detecting defects in user stories and the product owner more proficient at correcting those defects, you and the team notice that the team’s velocity, as shown in your burndown charts, has started to increase. Which of the following is a benefit of static testing that is MOST DIRECTLY related to the team’s increased velocity? a) Increasing total cost of quality b) Reducing testing cost c) Increasing development productivity d) Reducing total cost of quality Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Reviews reduce, not increase, the total cost of quality b) Is not correct. Increasing velocity is a sign of increasing development productivity overall, not just testing, so B only partially applies c) Is correct. Velocity is a way of measuring productivity in Agile development d) Is not correct. The benefit mentioned here has to do with increasing overall development team productivity 18 / 40 18. Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester? a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and set the tools usage guidelines b) The test manager plans, coordinates, and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides on the release of the test object d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester executes the tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Selection of tools is a test manager task b) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers c) Is not correct. The tester does not decide on the release of the test object d) Is not correct. The tester specifies the test cases, the test manager does the prioritization 19 / 40 19. You will be invited to a review. The work product to be reviewed is a description of the in-house document creation process. The aim of the description is to present the work distribution between the different roles involved in the process in a way that can be clearly understood by everyone. You will be invited to a checklist-based review. The checklist will also be sent to you. It includes the following points: i. Is the person who performs the activity clearly identified for each activity? ii. Are the entry criteria clearly defined for each activity? iii. Are the exit criteria clearly defined for each activity? iv. Are the supporting roles and their scope of work clearly defined for each activity? In the following we show an excerpt of the work result to be reviewed, for which you should use the checklist above: "After checking the customer documentation for completeness and correctness, the software architect creates the system specification. Once the software architect has completed the system specification, he invites testers and verifiers to the review. A checklist describes the scope of the review. Each invited reviewer creates review comments - if necessary - and concludes the review with an official review done-comment." Which of the following statements about your review is correct? a) Point ii) of the checklist has been violated because it is not clear which condition must be fulfilled to invite to the review b) You notice that in addition to the tester and the verifier, the validator must also be invited. Since this item is not part of your checklist, you do not create a corresponding comment c) Point iii) of the checklist has been violated as it is not clear what marks the review as completed d) Point i) of the checklist has been violated because it is not clear who is providing the checklist for the invitation to the review Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. It is described that the software architect must have completed the system specification b) Is not correct. ‘Checklist-based’, last sentence it is documented that you should also look for defects outside the checklist c) Is not correct. It is described: every reviewer did his review done comment d) Is correct. It is described that a checklist is available, but who provides the checklist? 20 / 40 20. A daily radiation recorder for plants produces a sunshine score based on a combination of the number of hours a plant is exposed to the sun (below 3 hours, 3 to 6 hours or above 6 hours) and the average intensity of the sunshine (very low, low, medium, high). Given the following test cases: What is the minimum number of additional test cases that are needed to ensure full coverage of ALL VALID INPUT equivalence partitions? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The following valid input equivalence partitions can be identified: • Hours 1. Below 3 hours 2. 3 to 6 hours 3. Above 6 hours • Intensity 4. Very low 5. Low 6. Medium 7. High The given test cases cover the following valid input equivalence partitions: Thus, the missing valid input equivalence partitions are: (2), (5) and (7). These can be covered by two test cases, as (2) can be combined with either (5) or (7). Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 21 / 40 21. Prior to an iteration planning session, you are studying a user story and its acceptance criteria, deriving test conditions and associated test cases from the user story as a way of applying the principle of early QA and test. What test technique are you applying? a) White-box b) Black-box c) Experience-based d) Error guessing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Structure-based, or white-box techniques are based on an analysis of the architecture, detailed design, internal structure, or the code of the test object b) Is correct. Behavior-based, or black-box techniques are based on an analysis of the appropriate test basis (e.g., formal requirements documents, specifications, use cases, user stories, or business processes), which describe functional and non-functional behavior c) Is not correct. Experience-based techniques leverage the experience of developers, testers, and users to determine what should be tested d) Is not correct. Error guessing is a type of experience-based testing, which is not black-box 22 / 40 22. Which of the following statements is a valid objective for testing? a) The test should start as late as possible so that development had enough time to create a good product b) To validate whether the test object works as expected by the users and other stakeholders c) To prove that all possible defects are identified d) To prove that any remaining defects will not cause any failures Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Contradiction to principle 3: “Early testing saves time and money” b) Is correct. This is one objective of testing c) Is not correct. Principle #2 states that exhaustive testing is impossible, so one can never prove that all defects were identified d) Is not correct. To make an assessment whether a defect will cause a failure or not, one must detect the defect first. Saying that no remaining defect will cause a failure implicitly means that all defects were found. This again contradicts principle #2 23 / 40 23. Programmers often write and execute unit tests against code which they have written. During this self-testing activity, which of the following is a tester mindset that programmers should adopt to perform this unit testing effectively? a) Good communication skills b) Code coverage c) Evaluating code defects d) Attention to detail Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The programmer appears to be performing unit testing on their own code b) Is not correct. Code coverage is useful for unit testing, but it is not a tester mindset c) Is not correct. The programmer’s mindset included contemplating what might be wrong with the code, but that is not a tester’s mindset d) Is correct. This tester mindset, attention to detail, will help programmers find defects during unit testing 24 / 40 24. Which of the following is an example of a failure in a car cruise control system? a) The developer of the system forgot to rename variables after a cut-and-paste operation b) Unnecessary code that sounds an alarm when reversing was included in the system c) The system stops maintaining a set speed when the radio volume is increased or decreased d) The design specification for the system wrongly states speeds Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This is an example of a mistake made by the developer b) Is not correct. This is an example of a defect (something wrong in the code that may cause a failure) c) Is correct. This is a deviation from the expected functionality - a cruise control system should not be affected by the radio d) Is not correct. This is an example of a defect (something wrong in a specification that may cause a failure if subsequently implemented) 25 / 40 25. Which of the following statements is true? a) Impact analysis is useful for confirmation testing during maintenance testing b) Confirmation testing is useful for regression testing during system design c) Impact analysis is useful for regression testing during maintenance testing d) Confirmation testing is useful for impact analysis during maintenance testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While impact analysis is useful during maintenance testing it is not necessary for confirmation testing since confirmation testing is on the intended effects of a bug fix or other change b) Is not correct. Confirmation and regression testing are two separate activities, and confirmation testing is not part of system design c) Is correct. Impact analysis can be used to select regression tests for maintenance testing d) Is not correct. Confirmation testing is not part of impact analysis, though confirmation testing will typically happen during maintenance testing 26 / 40 26. Given the following test activities and tasks: A. Test design B. Test implementation C. Test execution D. Test completion 1. Entering change requests for open defect reports 2. Identifying test data to support the test cases 3. Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data 4. Analyzing discrepancies to determine their cause Which of the following BEST matches the activities with the tasks? a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The correct pairing of test activities and tasks is: A. Test design – (2) Identifying test data to support the test cases B. Test implementation – (3) Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data C. Test execution – (4) Analyzing discrepancies to determine their cause D. Test completion – (1) Entering change requests for open defect reports Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 27 / 40 27. Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT? a) With the metrics-based approach, the estimate is based on test measures from the project and so this estimate is only available after the testing starts b) With the expert-based approach, a group of expert users identified by the client recommends the necessary testing budget c) With the expert-based approach, the test managers responsible for the different testing activities predict the expected testing effort d) With the metrics-based approach, an average of the testing costs recorded from several past projects is used as the testing budget Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Estimates may be updated as more information becomes available, but estimates are needed to assist with planning before the testing starts b) Is not correct. In the expert-based approach, the experts need to be experts in testing, not in using the test object c) Is correct. Test Managers, who will be leading testers doing the testing, are considered experts in their respective areas and suitable for estimating the necessary resources needed d) Is not correct. While it is useful to know the testing costs from previous projects, a more sophisticated approach is needed than simply taking an average of past projects (the new project may not be like the previous projects, e.g., it may be far larger or far smaller than previous projects) 28 / 40 28. Which of the following statements comparing component testing and system testing is TRUE? a) Component testing verifies the functionality of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system b) Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications or use cases c) Component testing only focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics d) Component testing is the responsibility of the testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. System testing does not test interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system; this is a target of integration tests b) Is correct. Examples of work products that can be used as a test basis for component testing include detailed design, code, data model, component specifications. Examples of work products for system testing include system and software requirement specifications (functional and non-functional) use cases c) Is not correct. Component testing does not ONLY focus on functional characteristics d) Is not correct. Component tests are also executed by developers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of (independent) testers 29 / 40 29. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the unit’s field is 0.1 units. Which of the following is a set of input values that cover the boundary values with two-point boundary values for this field? a) 0.3, 10.0, 28.0 b) 0.4, 0.5, 0.6, 24, 9, 25, 0, 25.1 c) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0 25.1 d) 0.5, 0.6, 24.9, 25.0 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There are three equivalence partitions, with the boundaries as shown: • Invalid too low (0.4 and below) • Valid (0.5 to 25.0) • Invalid too high (25.1 and above) Thus: a) Is not correct. None of those four boundary values are included in this set of tests. These tests do cover the equivalence partitions b) Is not correct. All these four boundary values are included in this set of tests, but two additional values are included, one for each boundary. These are the values associated with three-point boundary value analysis c) Is correct. Each of those four two-point boundary values are included in this set of tests d) Is not correct. These four values are all included in the valid partition 30 / 40 30. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an incremental development model? a) Defining requirements, designing software and testing are done in phases where in each phase a piece of the system is added b) A phase in the development process should begin when the previous phase is complete c) Testing is viewed as a separate phase which takes place after development has been completed d) Testing is added to development as an increment Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Incremental development involves establishing requirements, designing, building, and testing a system in pieces b) Is not correct. This is a sequential model c) Is not correct. This describes the waterfall model d) Is not correct. Testing alone is not an increment/additional step in the development 31 / 40 31. A batch application has been in production unchanged for over two years. It runs overnight once a month to produce statements that will be e-mailed to customers. For each customer, the application goes through every account and lists every transaction on that account in the last month. It uses a nested-loop structure to process customers (outer loop), each customer’s accounts (middle loop), and each account’s transactions (inner loop). One night, the batch application terminates prematurely, failing to e-mail statements to some customers, when it encounters a customer with one account for which no transactions occurred in the last month. This is a very unusual situation and has not occurred in the years since this application was placed in production. While fixing the defect, a programmer asks you to recommend test techniques that are effective against this kind of defect. Which of the following test techniques would most likely have been able to detect the underlying defect? a) Decision testing b) Statement testing c) Checklist-based testing d) Error guessing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. For a loop construct, statement coverage only requires that all statements within the loop are executed, but decision coverage requires testing of both the conditions where the loop is executed and when it is bypassed b) Is not correct. For a loop construct, statement coverage only requires that all statements within the loop are executed, but decision coverage requires testing of both the conditions where the loop is executed and when it is bypassed c) Is not correct. Checklists are based on experience, defect and failure data, knowledge about what is important for the user, and an understanding of why and how software fails, none of which is likely to have led to the inclusion of such a test condition d) Is not correct. While it is possible that someone might anticipate a developer making the mistaken assumption that there would always be at least one transaction in a month for every account, only decision testing guarantees testing of that condition 32 / 40 32. Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review? a) Manager – Decides on the execution of reviews b) Review Leader - Ensures effective running of review meetings c) Scribe – Fixes defects in the work product under review d) Moderator – Monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. The management decides about performing the review b) Is not correct. The moderator, not the review leader should ensure the effective running of review meetings c) Is not correct. The author fixes the work product under review d) Is not correct. The manager monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness 33 / 40 33. A mass market operating system software product is designed to run on any PC hardware with an x86-family processor. You are running a set of tests to look for defects related to support of the various PCs that use such a processor and to build confidence that important PC brands will work. What type of test are you performing? a) Performance test b) Processor test c) Functional test d) Portability test Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The test described is a non-functional test, it is a portability test, not a performance test b) Is not correct. Processor test is not a defined test type c) Is not correct. The test described is a non-functional test, specifically a portability test d) Is correct. Testing supported devices is a non-functional test, specifically a portability test 34 / 40 34. Consider the following state transition diagram for a credit-card only, unattended gasoline pump: Assume that you want to develop the minimum number of tests to cover each transition in the state transition diagram. Assume further that each test must start at the beginning state, waiting for customer, and each test ends when a transition arrives at the beginning state. How many tests do you need? a) 4 b) 7 c) 1 d) Infinite Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Each transition must be traversed at least once. To do so, the first test can cover the happy path, a successful purchase, the next test cancels, or timeout from waiting for pumping, the next test cancels, or timeout from waiting for fuel type, and the last test the insertion of an invalid credit card. While the order is immaterial, fewer than four tests fail to cover one of the transitions inbound to waiting for customer or violates the rules about where a test starts or ends. More than four tests include tests that re-traverse already-covered transitions. Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 35 / 40 35. In a formal review, what is the role name for the participant who runs an inspection meeting? a) Facilitator b) Programmer c) Author d) Project manager Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. The facilitator or moderator runs the review meetings b) Is not correct. This is not a role name for a formal review participant c) Is not correct. The facilitator or moderator runs the review meetings d) Is not correct. The facilitator or moderator runs the review meetings 36 / 40 36. Which of the following descriptions of statement coverage is CORRECT? a) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of lines of source code exercised by tests b) Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests c) Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of lines of source code (without comments) exercised by tests d) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements exercised by tests. The number of executable statements is often close to the number of lines of code minus the comments, but this option only talks about the number of lines of code exercised and not the proportion exercised b) Is correct. Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements exercised by tests (normally presented as a percentage) c) Is not correct. Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of executable statements exercised by tests, however many of the lines of source code are not executable (e.g., comments) d) Is not correct. Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements exercised by tests. This option only talks about the number of executable statements exercised and not the proportion (or percentage) exercised 37 / 40 37. Which one of the following answers describes a test condition? a) A distinguishing characteristic of a component or system b) A testable aspect of a component or system identified as a basis for testing c) The degree to which a software product provides functions which meet stated and implied needs when the software is used under specified conditions d) Test cases designed to execute combinations of conditions and actions resulting from them Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Definition of feature according to glossary b) Is correct. From glossary c) Is not correct. Definition of functionality suitability according to glossary d) Is not correct. Like Definition of Decision table testing according to glossary 38 / 40 38. Which one of the following is the characteristic of a metrics-based approach for test estimation? a) Budget which was used by a previous similar test project b) Overall experience collected in interviews with test managers c) Estimation of effort for test automation agreed in the test team d) Average of calculations collected from business experts Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. The metrics-based approach: estimating the testing effort based on metrics of former similar projects or based on typical values b) Is not correct. This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the owners of the tasks or by experts c) Is not correct. This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the responsible team of the tasks or by experts d) Is not correct. This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the owners of the tasks or by experts 39 / 40 39. Which one of the following test tools is mostly suitable for developers rather than testers? a) Requirement management tools b) Configuration management tools c) Static analysis tools d) Performance testing tools Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Requirement management tools are not particularly suitable for developers b) Is not correct. Configuration management tools are not particularly suitable for developers c) Is correct. Static analysis tools are especially suitable for developers d) Is not correct. Performance testing tools are not better suited for developers than for testers 40 / 40 40. Which of the following is a typical test objective? a) Preventing defects b) Repairing defects c) Comparing actual results to expected results d) Analyzing the cause of failure Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. This is an objective listed b) Is not correct. This is debugging c) Is not correct. This is an activity within the test execution group of activities within the test process d) Is not correct. This is part of debugging 0% Restart quiz
