0% 3 12345678910111213141516171819202122232425262728293031323334353637383940 Created on June 25, 2024 By Admin 2018v3.1 - Exam 4 - 75 minutes Name 1 / 40 1. Which of the following statements about test types and test levels is CORRECT? a) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing b) Functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component testing c) It is possible to perform functional, non-functional and white-box testing at any test level d) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level - so, although it is correct that functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels, it is incorrect to state that white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing b) Is not correct. It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level - so, it is incorrect to state that white-box testing is restricted to component testing c) Is correct. It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level d) Is not correct. It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level - so, it is incorrect to state that white-box testing is restricted to component testing and integration testing 2 / 40 2. Which one of the following is the description of statement coverage? a) It is a metric, which is the percentage of test cases that have been executed b) It is a metric, which is the percentage of statements in the source code that have been executed c) It is a metric, which is the number of statements in the source code that have been executed by test cases that are passed d) It is a metric, that gives a true/false confirmation if all statements are covered or not Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Statement coverage measures the percentage of statements exercised by test cases b) Is correct. Statement testing exercises the executable statements in the code. Statement coverage is measured as the number of statements executed by the tests divided by the total number of executable statements in the test object, normally expressed as a percentage c) Is not correct. The coverage does not measure pass/fail d) Is not correct. It is a metric and does not provide true/false statements 3 / 40 3. Which of the following activities is part of the main activity "test analysis" in the test process? a) Identifying any required infrastructure and tools b) Creating test suites from test scripts c) Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement d) Evaluating the test basis for testability Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This activity is performed during the test design activity (test design) b) Is not correct. This activity is performed during the test implementation activity (test implementation) c) Is not correct. This activity is performed during the test completion activity (test completion) d) Is correct. This activity is performed during the test analysis activity (test analysis) 4 / 40 4. You are working on a video game development project, using Agile methods. It is based on Greek mythology and history, and players can play key roles in scenarios such as the battles between the Greeks and Trojans. Consider the following user story and its associated acceptance criteria: As a player, I want to be able to acquire the Rod of Midas (a new magic object), so that I can turn objects and other players into gold AC1: The Rod must work on any object or player, no matter what size, which can be touched anywhere by the player holding the Rod AC2: Holding the Rod does not change the player holding it into gold AC3: Any object or player touched by the Rod transforms completely into gold within one millisecond AC4: The Rod appears as shown in Prototype O.W.RoM AC5: The transformation starts at the point of contact with the Rod and moves at a rate of one meter per millisecond You are participating in a checklist-based review session of this user story. This user story and its associated acceptance criteria contain which of the following typical defects identified by static testing in this type of work product? a) Deviation from standards b) Contradiction c) Security vulnerability d) Coverage gaps Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While deviation from standards is a typical, we are not given any standard with which the user stories should comply b) Is correct. Contradiction is a typical requirements defect. AC3 and AC5 conflict if the Rod is touched to an object that extends more than 1 meter in any direction from the point at which touched, since AC1 does not limit the size of the objects to be touched c) Is not correct. While security vulnerabilities are typical defects, there is nothing here related to security d) Is not correct. While test coverage gaps are typical defects, including missing tests for acceptance criteria, we are not provided with any information about which tests do and do not exist 5 / 40 5. The following statement refers to decision coverage: “When the code contains only a single ‘if’ statement and no loops or CASE statements, and its execution is not nested within the test, any single test case we run will result in 50% decision coverage.” Which of the following statement is correct? a) The statement is true. Any single test case provides 100% statement coverage and therefore 50% decision coverage b) The statement is true. Any single test case would cause the outcome of the “if” statement to be either true or false c) The statement is false. A single test case can only guarantee 25% decision coverage in this case d) The statement is false. The statement is too broad. It may be correct or not, depending on the tested software Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While the given statement is true, the explanation is not. The relationship between statement and decision coverage is misrepresented b) Is correct. Since any test case will cause the outcome of the “if” statement to be either TRUE or FALSE, by definition we achieved 50% decision coverage c) Is not correct. A single test case can give more than 25% decision coverage, this means according to the statement above always 50 % decision coverage d) Is not correct. The statement is specific and always true, because each test case achieves 50 % decision coverage 6 / 40 6. Which of the following are two factors that can be used to determine the level of risk? a) Testing and development b) Dynamic and reactive c) Statement and decision d) Likelihood and impact Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The level of risk will be determined by the likelihood of an adverse event happening and the impact (the harm) from that event. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 7 / 40 7. Consider a mobile app that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. A user story has just been added to the set of features that checks customers’ social media accounts and bank records to give personalized greetings on birthdays and other personal milestones. Which of the following test techniques could a PROGRAMMER use during a unit test of the code to ensure that coverage of situations when the greetings ARE supposed to occur and when the greetings ARE NOT supposed to occur? a) Statement testing b) Exploratory testing c) State transition testing d) Decision testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Statement testing exercises the executable statements in the code, which might result in the absence of certain greetings not being tested b) Is not correct. Unless the test charter specifically mentioned testing both the presence and the absence of each type of greeting, coverage can be difficult to assess for an exploratory test c) Is not correct. State transition testing is useful for situations where the test object responds differently to an input depending on current conditions or previous history, but in this case the test object must decide whether the current date matches a particular milestone and thus whether to display the relevant greeting d) Is correct. Decision testing involves test cases that follow the control flows that occur from a decision point, which in this case would be deciding whether a greeting should or should not be given 8 / 40 8. As a test manager you are responsible for testing the following parts of requirements: • R1 - Process anomalies • R2 - Synchronization • R3 - Approval • R4 - Problem solving • R5 - Financial data • R6 - Diagram data • R7 - Changes to the user profile Notation: Logical requirement dependencies (A -> B means, that B depends on A): Which one of the following options structures the test execution schedule according to the requirement dependencies? a) R1 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 b) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R4 ; R7 ; R5 ; R6 c) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R4 ; R7 d) R1 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. R4 is dependent on R2, so R2 should be tested before R4 b) Is not correct. R4 is dependent on R2, R5 and R6, so R5 and R6 should be tested before R4 c) Is correct. The tests are specified in a sequence that takes the dependencies into account d) Is not correct. R2 is dependent on R3, so R3 should be tested before R2 9 / 40 9. You will be invited to a review. The work product to be reviewed is a description of the in-house document creation process. The aim of the description is to present the work distribution between the different roles involved in the process in a way that can be clearly understood by everyone. You will be invited to a checklist-based review. The checklist will also be sent to you. It includes the following points: i. Is the person who performs the activity clearly identified for each activity? ii. Are the entry criteria clearly defined for each activity? iii. Are the exit criteria clearly defined for each activity? iv. Are the supporting roles and their scope of work clearly defined for each activity? In the following we show an excerpt of the work result to be reviewed, for which you should use the checklist above: "After checking the customer documentation for completeness and correctness, the software architect creates the system specification. Once the software architect has completed the system specification, he invites testers and verifiers to the review. A checklist describes the scope of the review. Each invited reviewer creates review comments - if necessary - and concludes the review with an official review done-comment." Which of the following statements about your review is correct? a) Point ii) of the checklist has been violated because it is not clear which condition must be fulfilled to invite to the review b) You notice that in addition to the tester and the verifier, the validator must also be invited. Since this item is not part of your checklist, you do not create a corresponding comment c) Point iii) of the checklist has been violated as it is not clear what marks the review as completed d) Point i) of the checklist has been violated because it is not clear who is providing the checklist for the invitation to the review Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. It is described that the software architect must have completed the system specification b) Is not correct. ‘Checklist-based’, last sentence it is documented that you should also look for defects outside the checklist c) Is not correct. It is described: every reviewer did his review done comment d) Is correct. It is described that a checklist is available, but who provides the checklist? 10 / 40 10. A product owner says that your role as a tester on an Agile team is to catch all the bugs before the end of each iteration. Which of the following is a testing principle that could be used to respond to this (false) statement? a) Defect clustering b) Testing shows the presence of defects c) Absence of error fallacy d) Root cause analysis Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Defect clustering has to do with where defects are most likely to be found, not whether all of them can be found b) Is correct. Testing can show the presence of defects but cannot prove their absence, which makes it impossible to know if you have caught all the bugs. Further, the impossibility of exhaustive testing makes it impossible for you to catch all the bugs c) Is not correct. This principle says that you can find and remove many bugs but still release an unsuccessful software product, which is not what the product owner is asking you to ensure d) Is not correct. Root cause analysis is not a testing principle 11 / 40 11. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes: • There is a role of a scribe • The purpose is to detect potential defects • The review meeting is led by the author • Reviewers find potential defects by individual review • A review report is produced Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used? a) Informal Review b) Walkthrough c) Technical Review d) Inspection Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering the attributes: • There is a role of a scribe – specified for walkthroughs, technical reviews, and inspections; thus, the reviews being performed cannot be informal reviews • The purpose is to detect potential defects – the purpose of detecting potential defects is specified for all types of review. • The review meeting is led by the author – this is not allowed for inspections and is typically not the author for technical reviews, but is part of walkthroughs, and allowed for informal reviews • Reviewers find potential issues by individual review - all types of reviews can include individual review (even informal reviews) • A review report is produced - all types of reviews can produce a review report, although it would be less likely for an informal review Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 12 / 40 12. Which of the following statements about the given state transition diagram and table of test cases is TRUE? a) The given test cases cover both valid and invalid transitions in the state transition diagram b) The given test cases represent all possible valid transitions in the state transition diagram c) The given test cases represent some of the valid transitions in the state transition diagram d) The given test cases represent pairs of transitions in the state transition diagram Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Proposed test case covers all five possible single valid transitions in the given state diagram (S1->S2, S2->S1, S2->S3, S3->S2, and S3->S1). Thus: a) Is not correct. Because no invalid transitions are covered b) Is correct. Because all valid transitions are covered c) Is not correct. Because all valid transitions are covered d) Is not correct. Because the test cases do not have pairs of transitions specified 13 / 40 13. Consider the following testing activities: 1. Selecting regression tests 2. Evaluating completeness of test execution 3. Identifying which user stories have open defect reports 4. Evaluating whether the number of tests for each requirement is consistent with the level of product risk Consider the following ways traceability can help testing: A. Improve understandability of test status reports to include status of test basis items B. Make testing auditable C. Provide information to assess process quality D. Analyze the impact of changes Which of the following best matches the testing activity with how traceability can assist that activity? a) 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A b) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C c) 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B d) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Traceability assists with: • Selecting regression tests in terms of analyzing the impact of changes (1D) • Evaluating completeness of test execution which makes testing auditable (2B) • Identifying which user stories have open defect reports which improves understandability of test status reports to include status of test basis items (3A) • Evaluating whether the number of tests for each requirement is consistent with the level of product risk which provides information to assess test process quality (i.e., alignment of test effort with risk) (4C) Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 14 / 40 14. Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review? a) Manager – Decides on the execution of reviews b) Review Leader - Ensures effective running of review meetings c) Scribe – Fixes defects in the work product under review d) Moderator – Monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. The management decides about performing the review b) Is not correct. The moderator, not the review leader should ensure the effective running of review meetings c) Is not correct. The author fixes the work product under review d) Is not correct. The manager monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness 15 / 40 15. Which of the following statements on the use of checklists in a formal review is CORRECT? a) As part of the review planning, the reviewers create the checklists needed for the review b) As part of the issue communication, the reviewers fill in the checklists provided for the review c) As part of the review meeting, the reviewers create defect reports based on the checklists provided for the review d) As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists needed for the review Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. During planning it is decided whether checklists are used. The preparation of the checklists is not part of the planning. In addition, the reviewers are neither involved in the planning, nor responsible for the creation of the checklists b) Is not correct. During issue communication, any potential defects that have been identified in the individual review are communicated. The completion of checklists by the reviewers already takes place, if at all, during individual review c) Is not correct. During review session, the reviewers communicate any potential defects of the work product that they did identify during the individual review. Defect reports are only created during the fixing and reporting activity d) Is correct. Initiating the review (“Kick-off”) involves distributing the work product and other materials, like checklists 16 / 40 16. You are running a performance test with the objective of finding possible network bottlenecks in interfaces between components of a system. Which of the following statements describes this test? a) A functional test during the integration test level b) A non-functional test during the integration test level c) A functional test during the component test level d) A non-functional test during the component test level Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While this test does match the description of an integration test, it is a non-functional test b) Is correct. This test matches the description of an integration test and it is a non-functional test c) Is not correct. This test does not match the description of a component test and it is not a functional test d) Is not correct. While this test is a non-functional test, it does not match the description of a component test 17 / 40 17. Which one of the following is NOT included in a test summary report? a) Defining pass/fail criteria and objectives of testing b) Deviations from the test approach c) Measurements of actual progress against exit criteria d) Evaluation of the quality of the test object Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. This information has been defined earlier in the test project b) Is not correct. This information is included in a test report: information on what occurred during a test period c) Is not correct. This information is included in a test report: • Status of testing and product quality with respect to the exit criteria or definition of done • Metrics of defects, test cases, test coverage, activity progress, and resource consumption d) Is not correct. This information is included in a test report: Information and metrics to support recommendations and decisions about future actions, such as an assessment of defects remaining, the economic benefit of continued testing, outstanding risks, and the level of confidence in the tested software 18 / 40 18. Which of the following statements comparing component testing and system testing is TRUE? a) Component testing verifies the functionality of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system b) Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications or use cases c) Component testing only focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics d) Component testing is the responsibility of the testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. System testing does not test interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system; this is a target of integration tests b) Is correct. Examples of work products that can be used as a test basis for component testing include detailed design, code, data model, component specifications. Examples of work products for system testing include system and software requirement specifications (functional and non-functional) use cases c) Is not correct. Component testing does not ONLY focus on functional characteristics d) Is not correct. Component tests are also executed by developers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of (independent) testers 19 / 40 19. Which of the following is MOST likely to be used as a reason for using a pilot project to introduce a tool into an organization? a) The need to evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices and determining what would need to change b) The need to evaluate the test automation skills and training, mentoring and coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool c) The need to evaluate whether the tool provides the required functionality and does not duplicate existing test tools d) The need to evaluate the tool vendor in terms of the training and other support they provide Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct b) Is not correct. The evaluation of the test automation skills and training, mentoring and coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool should have been performed as part of the tool selection activity c) Is not correct. The decision on whether the tool provides the required functionality and does not duplicate existing tools should have been performed as part of the tool selection activity d) Is not correct. The evaluation of the tool vendor in terms of the training and other support they provide should have been performed as part of the tool selection activity 20 / 40 20. Decision table testing is being performed on a speeding fine system. Two test cases have already been generated for rules R1 and R4, which are shown below: Given the following additional test cases: Which two of the additional test cases would achieve full coverage of the complete decision table (when combined with the test cases that have already been generated for rules R1 and R4)? a) DT1, DT2 b) DT2, DT3 c) DT2, DT4 d) DT3, DT4 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The complete decision table is shown below: To achieve full coverage, test cases covering rules 2 and 3 are needed. DT4 satisfies the constraints of rule 2, while DT2 satisfies the constraints of rule 3. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is correct d) Is not correct 21 / 40 21. Which of the following BEST defines risk level? a) Risk level is calculated by adding together the probabilities of all problem situations and the financial harm that results from them b) Risk level is estimated by multiplying the likelihood of a threat to the system by the chance that the threat will occur and will result in financial damage c) Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable event and the expected impact of that event d) Risk level is the sum of all potential hazards to a system multiplied by the sum of all potential losses from that system Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Risk is determined by considering a combination of the likelihood of problem situations and the harm that may result from them but cannot be calculated by adding these together (the probability would be in the range 0 to 1 and the harm could be in dollars) b) Is not correct. Risk is determined by considering a combination of a likelihood and an impact. This definition only considers likelihood and chance (both forms of probability) with no consideration of the impact (or harm) c) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers d) Is not correct. Risk is determined by considering a combination of a likelihood and an impact. This definition only considers hazards and losses (a hazard is a bad event, like a risk, while loss is a form of impact) with no consideration of the likelihood (or probability) 22 / 40 22. A phone ringing momentarily distracts a programmer, causing the programmer to improperly program the logic that checks the upper boundary of an input variable. Later, during system testing, a tester notices that this input field accepts invalid input values. The improperly coded logic for the upper boundary check is: a) The root-cause b) The failure c) The error d) The defect Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The root cause is the distraction that the programmer experienced while programming b) Is not correct. The accepting of invalid inputs is the failure c) Is not correct. The error is the mistaken thinking that resulted in putting the defect in the code d) Is correct. The problem in the code is a defect 23 / 40 23. Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing? a) Error guessing requires you to imagine you are the user of the test object and guess mistakes the user could make interacting with it b) Error guessing involves using your personal experience of development and the mistakes you made as a developer c) Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past and typical mistakes made by developers d) Error guessing requires you to rapidly duplicate the development task to identify the sort of mistakes a developer might make Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. error guessing is not a usability technique for guessing how users may fail to interact with the test object b) Is not correct. Although a tester who used to be a developer may use their personal experience to help them when performing error guessing, the technique is not based on prior knowledge of development c) Is correct. The basic concept behind error guessing is that the tester tries to guess what mistakes may have been made by the developer and what defects may be in the test object based on past-experience (and sometimes checklists) d) Is not correct. Duplicating the development task has several flaws that make it impractical, such as the requirement for the tester to have equivalent skills to the developer and the time involved in performing the development. It is not error guessing 24 / 40 24. Which of the following should NOT be a trigger for maintenance testing? a) Decision to test the maintainability of the software b) Decision to test the system after migration to a new operating platform c) Decision to test if archived data is possible to be retrieved d) Decision to test after “hot fixes” Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. This is maintainability testing, not maintenance testing b) Is not correct. This is a trigger for maintenance testing: Operational tests of the new environment as well as of the changed software c) Is not correct. This is the trigger for maintenance testing: testing restore/retrieve procedures after archiving for long retention periods d) Is not correct. This is the trigger for maintenance testing: Reactive modification of a delivered software product to correct emergency defects that have caused actual failures 25 / 40 25. Given that the testing being performed has the following attributes: • Based on interface specifications • Focused on finding failures in communication • The test approach uses both functional and structural test types Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed? a) Integration testing b) Acceptance testing c) System testing d) Component testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering the scenario: 1. ‘testing is based on interface specifications’ – the test basis for integration testing includes interface specifications (along with communication protocol specification), while these are not included for any of the other test levels 2. ‘testing is focused on finding failures in communication’ - failures in the communication between tested components is included as a typical failure for integration testing, but failures in communication is not included for any of the other test levels 3. ‘the test approach uses both functional and structural test types’ - functional and structural test types are both included as possible approaches for integration testing, and would also be appropriate for any of the other test levels, although they are only otherwise explicitly mentioned in the syllabus for system testing Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 26 / 40 26. Given the following statements about the relationships between software development activities and test activities in the software development lifecycle: 1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity 2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available 3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding development activity 4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development lifecycle Which of the following CORRECTLY shows which are true and false? a) True – 1, 2; False – 3, 4 b) True – 2, 3; False – 1, 4 c) True – 1, 2, 4; False – 3 d) True – 1, 4; False – 2, 3 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering each statement: 1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity. TRUE 2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available. FALSE – it should start as soon as drafts are available 3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding development activity. FALSE – the analysis and design of tests should start during the corresponding development activity, not the implementation 4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development lifecycle. TRUE Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 27 / 40 27. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independent testing? a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team, so ensuring everyone is aware that quality is the test team’s overall responsibility b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines c) An independent test team can work totally separately from the developers, need not be distracted with changing project requirements, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Quality should be the responsibility of everyone working on the project and not the sole responsibility of the test team b) Is not correct. First, it is not a benefit if an external test team does not meet delivery deadlines, and second, there is no reason to believe that external test teams will feel they do not have to meet strict delivery deadlines c) Is not correct. It is bad practice for the test team to work in complete isolation, and we would expect an external test team to be concerned with changing project requirements and communicate well with developers d) Is correct. Specifications are never perfect, meaning that assumptions will have to be made by the developer. An independent tester is useful in that they can challenge and verify the assumptions and subsequent interpretation made by the developer 28 / 40 28. You are performing system testing of a train reservation system. Based on the test cases performed, you have noticed that the system occasionally reports that no trains are available, although this should be the case. You have provided the developers with a summary of the defect and the version of the tested system. They recognize the urgency of the defect and are now waiting for you to provide further details. In addition to the information already provided, the following additional information is given: 1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect 2. Identification of the test object 3. Details of the test environment 4. Urgency/priority to fix 5. Actual results 6. Reference to test case specification Which of this additional information is most useful to include in the defect report? a) 1, 2, 6 b) 1, 4, 5, 6 c) 2, 3, 4, 5 d) 3, 5, 6 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering each of the pieces of information: 1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect – the developers are already aware of the problem and are waiting to fix it, so this is a less important piece of information. 2. Identification of the test object – as the developers are already aware of the problem and you are performing system testing, and you have already provided the version of the system you are testing you can assume they know the object that was being tested, so this is a less important piece of information. 3. Details of the test environment – the set-up of the test environment may have a noticeable effect on the test results, and detailed information should be provided, so this is an important piece of information. 4. Urgency/priority to fix – the developers are already aware of the problem and are waiting to fix it, so this is a less important piece of information. 5. Actual results – the actual results may well help the developers to determine what is going wrong with the system, so this is an important piece of information. 6. Reference to test case specification – this will show the developers the tests you ran, including the test inputs that caused the system to fail (and expected results), so this is an important piece of information. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 29 / 40 29. A video application has the following requirement: The application shall allow playing a video on the following display resolution: 1. 640x480 2. 1280x720 3. 1600x1200 4. 1920x1080 Which of the following list of test cases is a result of applying the equivalence partitioning test technique to test this requirement? a) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 1920x1080 (1 test case) b) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 640x480 and 1920x1080 (2 test cases) c) Verify that the application can play a video on each of the display sizes in the requirement (4 test cases) d) Verify that the application can play a video on any one of the display sizes in the requirement (1 test case) Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. See reason from correct answer b) Is not correct. See reason from correct answer c) Is correct. This is a case where the requirement gives an enumeration of discrete values. Each enumeration value is an equivalence class by itself; therefore, each will be tested when using equivalence partitioning test technique d) Is not correct. See reason from correct answer 30 / 40 30. Which of the following provides the definition of the term test case? a) Subset of the value domain of a variable within a component or system in which all values are expected to be treated the same based on the specification b) A set of preconditions, inputs, actions, expected results and post conditions, developed based on test conditions c) Work products produced during the test process for use in planning, designing, executing, evaluating, and reporting on testing d) A source to determine an expected result to compare with the actual result of the system under test Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Based on definition of equivalence partition b) Is correct. Based on definition from Glossary c) Is not correct. Based on Glossary definition of testware d) Is not correct. Based on definition of test oracle 31 / 40 31. You are reading a user story in the product backlog to prepare for a meeting with the product owner and a developer, noting potential defects as you go. Which of the following statements is true about this activity? a) It is not a static test, because static testing involves execution of the test object b) It is not a static test, because static testing is always performed using a tool c) It is a static test, because any defects you find could be found cheaper during dynamic testing d) It is a static test because static testing does not involve execution of the test object Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Static testing does not involve execution of the test object b) Is not correct. Some static tests involve the use of a tool, especially static analysis, but reviews (such as the activity described here) do not necessarily involve the use of a tool c) Is not correct. The review activity described here is part of a static test, but defects found in static tests are usually cheaper than those found in dynamic testing d) Is correct. Static testing does not involve execution of the test object 32 / 40 32. Consider the following types of defects that a test level might focus on: a) Defects in separately testable modules or objects b) Not focused on identifying defects c) Defects in interfaces and interactions d) Defects in the whole test object Which of the following list correctly matches test levels from the Foundation syllabus with the defect focus options given above? a) 1 = performance test; 2 = component test; 3 = system test; 4 = acceptance test b) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = system test; 4 = integration test c) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = integration test; 4 = system test d) 1 = integration test; 2 = system test; 3 = component test; 4 = acceptance test Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Performance testing is a test type, not a test level. Component testing focuses on defects in separately testable modules or objects, integration testing on defects in interfaces and interactions, system testing on defects in the whole test object, and acceptance testing is not typically focused on identifying defects. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is correct d) Is not correct 33 / 40 33. In a formal review, what is the role name for the participant who runs an inspection meeting? a) Facilitator b) Programmer c) Author d) Project manager Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. The facilitator or moderator runs the review meetings b) Is not correct. This is not a role name for a formal review participant c) Is not correct. The facilitator or moderator runs the review meetings d) Is not correct. The facilitator or moderator runs the review meetings 34 / 40 34. Given the following priorities and dependencies for these test cases: Which of the following test execution schedules BEST considers the priorities and technical and logical dependencies? a) TC1 – TC3 – TC4 – TC6 – TC2 – TC5 b) TC4 – TC3 – TC1 – TC2 – TC5 – TC6 c) TC4 – TC1 – TC3 – TC5 – TC6 – TC2 d) TC4 – TC2 – TC5 – TC1 – TC3 – TC6 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The test cases should be scheduled in priority order, but the schedule must also take account of the dependencies. The two highest priority test cases (TC1 and TC3) are both dependent on TC4, so the first three test cases should be scheduled as either TC4 – TC1 – TC3 or TC4 – TC3 – TC1 (we have no way to discriminate between TC1 and TC3). Next, we need to consider the remaining medium priority test case, TC6. TC6 is dependent on TC5, but TC5 is dependent on TC2, so the next two three cases must be scheduled as TC2 – TC5 – TC6. This means there are two possible optimal schedules: • TC4 – TC1 – TC3 – TC2 – TC5 – TC6 or • TC4 – TC3 – TC1 – TC2 – TC5 – TC6 Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 35 / 40 35. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and debugging? a) Testing identifies the source of defects; debugging analyzes the defects and proposes prevention activities b) Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects; debugging eliminates the defects, which are the source of failures c) Testing removes faults; but debugging removes defects that cause the faults d) Dynamic testing prevents the causes of failures; debugging removes the failures Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Testing does not identify the source of defects, debugging identifies the source of defects b) Is correct. Dynamic testing can show failures that are caused by defects in the software. Debugging eliminates the defects, which are the source of failures c) Is not correct. Testing does not remove faults, but debugging removes faults, which is synonyms for defects, that may cause the failures d) Is not correct. Dynamic testing does not directly prevent the causes of failures (defects) but detects the presence of defects 36 / 40 36. Given the following test activities and tasks: A. Test design B. Test implementation C. Test execution D. Test completion 1. Entering change requests for open defect reports 2. Identifying test data to support the test cases 3. Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data 4. Analyzing discrepancies to determine their cause Which of the following BEST matches the activities with the tasks? a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The correct pairing of test activities and tasks is: A. Test design – (2) Identifying test data to support the test cases B. Test implementation – (3) Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data C. Test execution – (4) Analyzing discrepancies to determine their cause D. Test completion – (1) Entering change requests for open defect reports Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 37 / 40 37. During an Agile development effort, a product owner discovers a previously unknown regulatory requirement that applies to most of the user stories within a particular epic. The user stories are updated to provide for the necessary changes in software behavior. The programmers on the team are modifying the code appropriately. As a tester on the team, what types of tests will you run? a) Confirmation tests b) Regression tests c) Functional tests d) Change-related tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The change in behavior may be either functional or non-functional you need to run change-related tests, some of which are confirmation tests and others are regression tests. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 38 / 40 38. You are testing an unattended gasoline pump that only accepts credit cards. Once the credit card is validated, the pump nozzle placed into the tank, and the desired grade selected, the customer enters the desired amount of fuel in gallons using the keypad. The keypad only allows the entry of digits. Fuel is sold in tenths (0.1) of a gallon, up to 50.0 gallons. Which of the following is a minimum set of desired amounts that covers the equivalence partitions for this input? a) 0.0, 20.0, 60.0 b) 0.0, 0.1, 50.0 c) 0.0, 0.1, 50.0, 70.0 d) -0.1, 0.0, 0.1, 49.9, 50.0, 50.1 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There are three equivalence partitions: • No sale completed (0.0 gallons) • A valid sale occurs (0.1 to 50.0 gallons) • An invalid amount is selected (50.1 or more gallons) Thus: a) Is correct. This set of input values has exactly one test per equivalence partition b) Is not correct. This set of input values has does not cover the invalid amount partition c) Is not correct. This set of input values has two tests for the valid sale equivalence partition, which is not the minimum d) Is not correct. This set of input values covers the three-point boundary values for the two boundaries, not the minimum number required to cover the equivalence partitions 39 / 40 39. Which of the following is a typical test objective? a) Preventing defects b) Repairing defects c) Comparing actual results to expected results d) Analyzing the cause of failure Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. This is an objective listed b) Is not correct. This is debugging c) Is not correct. This is an activity within the test execution group of activities within the test process d) Is not correct. This is part of debugging 40 / 40 40. A company's employees are paid bonuses if they work more than a year in the company and achieve a target which is individually agreed before. These facts can be shown in a decision table: Which of the following test cases represents a situation that can happen in real life, and is missing in the above decision table? a) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO b) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= YES c) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO d) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= NO Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. If there was no agreement on targets, it is impossible to reach the targets. Since this situation can´t occur, this is not a scenario happening in reality b) Is not correct. The test case is objectively wrong, since under these conditions no bonus is paid because the agreed target was not reached c) Is not correct. There was no agreement on targets, it is impossible to reach the targets. Since this situation can´t occur, this is not a scenario happening in reality d) Is correct. The test case describes the situation that the too short period of employment and the non-fulfilment of the agreed target leads to non-payment of the bonus. This situation can occur in practice but is missing in the decision table 0% Restart quiz
