2018v3.1 – Exam 4 – 75 minutes

Created on June 25, 2024 By

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2018v3.1 - Exam 4 - 75 minutes

Name

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1. A product owner says that your role as a tester on an Agile team is to catch all the bugs before the end of each iteration. Which of the following is a testing principle that could be used to respond to this (false) statement?

a) Defect clustering

b) Testing shows the presence of defects

c) Absence of error fallacy

d) Root cause analysis

Select ONE option.

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2. During a project following Agile methods, you find a discrepancy between the developer’s interpretation of an acceptance criteria and the product owner’s interpretation, which you bring up during a user story refinement session. Which of the following is a benefit of test independence exemplified by this situation?

a) Recognizing different kinds of failures

b) Taking primary responsibility for quality

c) Removing a defect early

d) Challenging stakeholder assumptions

Select ONE option.

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3. In what way can testing be part of Quality Assurance?

a) It ensures that requirements are detailed enough

b) Testing reduces the risk of poor software quality

c) It ensures that standards in the organization are followed

d) It measures the quality of software in terms of number of executed test cases

Select ONE option.

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4. Which one of the following answers describes a test condition?

a) A distinguishing characteristic of a component or system

b) A testable aspect of a component or system identified as a basis for testing

c) The degree to which a software product provides functions which meet stated and implied needs when the software is used under specified conditions

d) Test cases designed to execute combinations of conditions and actions resulting from them

Select ONE option.

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5. Which one of the following test tools is mostly suitable for developers rather than testers?

a) Requirement management tools

b) Configuration management tools

c) Static analysis tools

d) Performance testing tools

Select ONE option.

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6. Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT?

a) With the metrics-based approach, the estimate is based on test measures from the project and so this estimate is only available after the testing starts

b) With the expert-based approach, a group of expert users identified by the client recommends the necessary testing budget

c) With the expert-based approach, the test managers responsible for the different testing activities predict the expected testing effort

d) With the metrics-based approach, an average of the testing costs recorded from several past projects is used as the testing budget

Select ONE option.

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7. Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review?

a) Manager – Decides on the execution of reviews

b) Review Leader - Ensures effective running of review meetings

c) Scribe – Fixes defects in the work product under review

d) Moderator – Monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness

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8. Which of the following is an example of a failure in a car cruise control system?

a) The developer of the system forgot to rename variables after a cut-and-paste operation

b) Unnecessary code that sounds an alarm when reversing was included in the system

c) The system stops maintaining a set speed when the radio volume is increased or decreased

d) The design specification for the system wrongly states speeds

Select ONE option.

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9. Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester?

a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and set the tools usage guidelines

b) The test manager plans, coordinates, and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests

c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides on the release of the test object

d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester executes the tests

Select ONE option.

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10. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the unit’s field is 0.1 units.

Which of the following is a set of input values that cover the boundary values with two-point boundary values for this field?

a) 0.3, 10.0, 28.0

b) 0.4, 0.5, 0.6, 24, 9, 25, 0, 25.1

c) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0 25.1

d) 0.5, 0.6, 24.9, 25.0

Select ONE option.

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11. An employee’s bonus is to be calculated. It cannot be negative, but it can be calculated down to zero. The bonus is based on the length of employment:

• Less than or equal to 2 years
• More than 2 years but less than 5 years
• 5 to 10 years inclusively
• Longer than 10 years

What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for calculating the bonus?

a) 3

b) 5

c) 2

d) 4

Select ONE option.

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12. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes a role of impact analysis in Maintenance Testing?

a) Impact analysis is used when deciding if a fix to a maintained system is worthwhile

b) Impact analysis is used to identify how data should be migrated into the maintained system

c) Impact analysis is used to decide which hot fixes are of most value to the user

d) Impact analysis is used to determine the effectiveness of new maintenance test cases

Select ONE option.

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13. Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

a) Risk level is calculated by adding together the probabilities of all problem situations and the financial harm that results from them

b) Risk level is estimated by multiplying the likelihood of a threat to the system by the chance that the threat will occur and will result in financial damage

c) Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable event and the expected impact of that event

d) Risk level is the sum of all potential hazards to a system multiplied by the sum of all potential losses from that system

Select ONE option.

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14. You are working as a tester on an online banking system. Availability is considered one of the top products (quality) risks for the system. You find a reproducible failure that results in customers losing their connections to the bank Web site when transferring funds between common types of accounts and being unable to reconnect for between three and five minutes.

Which of the following would be a good summary for a defect report for this failure, one that captures both the essence of the failure and its impact on stakeholders?

a) Web server logs show error 0x44AB27 when running test 07.005, which is not an expected error message in /tmp filesystem

b) Developers have introduced major availability defect which will seriously upset our customers

c) Performance is slow and reliability flaky under load

d) Typical funds-transfer transaction results in termination of customer session, with a delay in availability when attempting to reconnect

Select ONE option.

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15. Which of the following statements about test types and test levels is CORRECT?

a) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing

b) Functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component testing

c) It is possible to perform functional, non-functional and white-box testing at any test level

d) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing

Select ONE option.

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16. Consider the following list of undesirable outcomes that could occur on a mobile app development effort:

A. Incorrect totals on screens
B. Change to acceptance criteria during acceptance testing
C. Users find the soft keyboard too hard to use with your app
D. System responds too slowly to user input during search string entry
E. Testers not allowed to report test results in daily standup meetings

Which of the following properly classifies these outcomes as project and product risks?

a) Product risks: B, E; Project risks: A, C, D

b) Product risks: A, C, D; Project risks: B, E

c) Product risks: A, C, D, E Project risks: B

d) Product risks: A, C Project risks: B, D, E

Select ONE option.

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17. Which of the following is MOST likely to be used as a reason for using a pilot project to introduce a tool into an organization?

a) The need to evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices and determining what would need to change

b) The need to evaluate the test automation skills and training, mentoring and coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool

c) The need to evaluate whether the tool provides the required functionality and does not duplicate existing test tools

d) The need to evaluate the tool vendor in terms of the training and other support they provide

Select ONE option.

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18. Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case?

a) Test cases are created to exercise defined basic, exceptional and error behaviors performed by the system under test in collaboration with actors

b) Test cases are derived by identifying the components included in the use case and creating integration tests that exercise the interactions of these components

c) Test cases are generated by analyzing the interactions of the actors with the system to ensure the user interfaces are easy to use

d) Test cases are derived to exercise each of the decision points in the business process flows of the use case, to achieve 100% decision coverage of these flows

Select ONE option.

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19. You are working as a tester on an Agile team and have participated in over two dozen user story refinement sessions with the product owner and the developers on the team at the start of each iteration. As the reviews have gotten more effective at detecting defects in user stories and the product owner more proficient at correcting those defects, you and the team notice that the team’s velocity, as shown in your burndown charts, has started to increase. Which of the following is a benefit of static testing that is MOST DIRECTLY related to the team’s increased velocity?

a) Increasing total cost of quality

b) Reducing testing cost

c) Increasing development productivity

d) Reducing total cost of quality

Select ONE option.

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20. You are testing a new version of software for a coffee machine. The machine can prepare different types of coffee based on four categories. i.e., coffee size, sugar, milk, and syrup. The criteria are as follows:

• Coffee size (small, medium, large)
• Sugar (none, 1 unit, 2 units, 3 units, 4 units)
• Milk (yes or no)
• Coffee flavor syrup (no syrup, caramel, hazelnut, vanilla)

Now you are writing a defect report with the following information:

• Title: Low coffee temperature.
• Short summary: When you select coffee with milk, the time for preparing coffee is too long and the temperature of the beverage is too low (less than 40 °C).
• Expected result: The temperature of coffee should be standard (about 75 °C).
• Degree of risk: Medium
• Priority: Normal

What valuable information was omitted in the above defect report?

a) The actual test results

b) Identification of the tested software version

c) Status of the defect

d) Ideas for improving the test case

Select ONE option.

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21. Which of the following lists contains only typical exit criteria from testing?

a) Reliability measures, test coverage, schedule and status about fixing defect and remaining risks

b) Reliability measures, test coverage, degree of tester’s independence and product completeness

c) Reliability measures, test coverage, test cost, availability of test environment, time to market and product completeness

d) Time to market, remaining defects, tester qualification, availability of testable use cases, test coverage and test cost

Select ONE option.

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22. A smart home app measures the average temperature in the house over the previous week and provides feedback to the occupants on their environmental friendliness based on this temperature.

The feedback for different average temperature ranges (to the nearest °C) should be:

Up to 10°C - Icy Cool!
11°C to 15°C - Chilled Out!
16°C to 19°C - Cool Man!
20°C to 22°C - Too Warm!
Above 22°C - Hot & Sweaty!

Using BVA (only Min- and Max values), which of the following sets of test inputs provides the highest level of boundary coverage?

a) 0°C, 11°C, 20°C, 22°C, 23°C

b) 9°C, 15°C, 19°C, 23°C, 100°C

c) 10°C, 16°C, 19°C, 22°C, 23°C

d) 14°C, 15°C, 18°C, 19°C, 21°C, 22°C

Select ONE option.

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23. Which of the review types below is the BEST option to choose when the review must follow a formal process based on rules and checklists?

a) Informal Review

b) Technical Review

c) Inspection

d) Walkthrough

Select ONE option.

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24. A phone ringing momentarily distracts a programmer, causing the programmer to improperly program the logic that checks the upper boundary of an input variable. Later, during system testing, a tester notices that this input field accepts invalid input values. The improperly coded logic for the upper boundary check is:

a) The root-cause

b) The failure

c) The error

d) The defect

Select ONE option.

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25. Given the following statements about the relationships between software development activities and test activities in the software development lifecycle:

1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity
2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available
3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding development activity
4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development lifecycle

Which of the following CORRECTLY shows which are true and false?

a) True – 1, 2; False – 3, 4

b) True – 2, 3; False – 1, 4

c) True – 1, 2, 4; False – 3

d) True – 1, 4; False – 2, 3

Select ONE option.

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26. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and debugging?

a) Testing identifies the source of defects; debugging analyzes the defects and proposes prevention activities

b) Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects; debugging eliminates the defects, which are the source of failures

c) Testing removes faults; but debugging removes defects that cause the faults

d) Dynamic testing prevents the causes of failures; debugging removes the failures

Select ONE option.

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27. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Impact analysis is useful for confirmation testing during maintenance testing

b) Confirmation testing is useful for regression testing during system design

c) Impact analysis is useful for regression testing during maintenance testing

d) Confirmation testing is useful for impact analysis during maintenance testing

Select ONE option.

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28. Which of the following provides the definition of the term test case?

a) Subset of the value domain of a variable within a component or system in which all values are expected to be treated the same based on the specification

b) A set of preconditions, inputs, actions, expected results and post conditions, developed based on test conditions

c) Work products produced during the test process for use in planning, designing, executing, evaluating, and reporting on testing

d) A source to determine an expected result to compare with the actual result of the system under test

Select ONE option.

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29. Which of the following statements about static testing are MOST true?

a) Static testing is a cheap way to detect and remove defects

b) Static testing makes dynamic testing less challenging

c) Static testing makes it possible to find run-time problems early in the lifecycle

d) When testing safety-critical system, static testing has less value because dynamic testing finds the defects better

Select ONE options.

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30. Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing?

a) Error guessing requires you to imagine you are the user of the test object and guess mistakes the user could make interacting with it

b) Error guessing involves using your personal experience of development and the mistakes you made as a developer

c) Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past and typical mistakes made by developers

d) Error guessing requires you to rapidly duplicate the development task to identify the sort of mistakes a developer might make

Select ONE option.

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31. Which of the following can affect and be part of the (initial) test planning?

a) Budget limitations

b) Test log

c) Failure rate

d) Use cases

Select ONE options.

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32. Given the following state model of a battery charger software:

Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level of transition coverage for the model?

a) OFF → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → LOW

b) WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE

c) HIGH → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE

d) WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT

Select ONE option.

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33. You are performing system testing of a train reservation system. Based on the test cases performed, you have noticed that the system occasionally reports that no trains are available, although this should be the case. You have provided the developers with a summary of the defect and the version of the tested system. They recognize the urgency of the defect and are now waiting for you to provide further details.

In addition to the information already provided, the following additional information is given:

1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect
2. Identification of the test object
3. Details of the test environment
4. Urgency/priority to fix
5. Actual results
6. Reference to test case specification

Which of this additional information is most useful to include in the defect report?

a) 1, 2, 6

b) 1, 4, 5, 6

c) 2, 3, 4, 5

d) 3, 5, 6

Select ONE option.

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34. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes:

• There is a role of a scribe
• The purpose is to detect potential defects
• The review meeting is led by the author
• Reviewers find potential defects by individual review
• A review report is produced

Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used?

a) Informal Review

b) Walkthrough

c) Technical Review

d) Inspection

Select ONE option.

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35. Which of the following statements BEST compares the purposes of confirmation testing and regression testing?

a) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that all previously run tests still work correctly, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to ensure that any fixes made to one part of the system have not adversely affected other parts

b) The purpose of confirmation testing is to check that a previously found defect has been fixed, while the purpose of regression testing is to ensure that no other parts of the system have been adversely affected by the fix

c) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that any changes to one part of the system have not caused another part to fail, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check that all previously run tests still provide the same results as before

d) The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that changes to the system were made successfully, while the purpose of regression testing is to run tests that previously failed to ensure that they now work correctly

Select ONE option.

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36. During a period of intensive project overtime, a system architecture document is sent to various project participants, announcing a previously unplanned technical review to occur in one week. No adjustments are made to the participants’ list of assigned tasks. Based on this information alone, which of the following is a factor for review success that is MISSING?

a) Appropriate review type

b) Adequate time to prepare

c) Sufficient metrics to evaluate the author

d) Well-managed review meeting

Select ONE option.

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37. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units.

Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field?

a) 10.0, 28.0

b) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1

c) 0.2, 0.9, 29.5

d) 12.3

Select ONE option.

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38. A batch application has been in production unchanged for over two years. It runs overnight once a month to produce statements that will be e-mailed to customers. For each customer, the application goes through every account and lists every transaction on that account in the last month. It uses a nested-loop structure to process customers (outer loop), each customer’s accounts (middle loop), and each account’s transactions (inner loop).

One night, the batch application terminates prematurely, failing to e-mail statements to some customers, when it encounters a customer with one account for which no transactions occurred in the last month. This is a very unusual situation and has not occurred in the years since this application was placed in production.

While fixing the defect, a programmer asks you to recommend test techniques that are effective against this kind of defect. Which of the following test techniques would most likely have been able to detect the underlying defect?

a) Decision testing

b) Statement testing

c) Checklist-based testing

d) Error guessing

Select ONE option.

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39. Which of the following is a common test metric often used to monitor BOTH test preparation and test execution?

a) Test case status

b) Defect find/fix rates

c) Test environment preparation

d) Estimated cost to find the next defect

Select ONE option.

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40. Which of the following is a typical test objective?

a) Preventing defects

b) Repairing defects

c) Comparing actual results to expected results

d) Analyzing the cause of failure

Select ONE option.

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