0% 3 12345678910111213141516171819202122232425262728293031323334353637383940 Created on June 25, 2024 By Admin 2018v3.1 - Exam 4 - 75 minutes Name 1 / 40 1. During a period of intensive project overtime, a system architecture document is sent to various project participants, announcing a previously unplanned technical review to occur in one week. No adjustments are made to the participants’ list of assigned tasks. Based on this information alone, which of the following is a factor for review success that is MISSING? a) Appropriate review type b) Adequate time to prepare c) Sufficient metrics to evaluate the author d) Well-managed review meeting Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Technical reviews are appropriate for technical documents such as a system architecture b) Is correct. Adequate time for preparation is important, but people are working overtime and no adjustments are made for this new set of tasks c) Is not correct. Gathering metrics from a review to evaluate participants is a factor that leads to failure, not success, because it destroys trust d) Is not correct. A well-managed review meeting is important, but there is no reason to think the review meeting will not be well managed based on the information provided 2 / 40 2. Which one of the following options is categorized as a black-box test technique? a) A technique based on analysis of the architecture b) A technique checking that the test object is working according to the detailed design c) A technique based on the knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures d) A technique based on formal requirements Select ONE option Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This is a white-box test technique b) Is not correct. This is a white-box test technique c) Is not correct. This is an experience-based test technique d) Is correct. Black-box test techniques are based on an analysis of the appropriate test basis (e.g., formal requirements documents, specifications, use cases, user stories) 3 / 40 3. Which of the following metrics would be MOST useful to monitor during test execution? a) Percentage of executed test cases b) Average number of testers involved in the test execution c) Coverage of requirements by source code d) Percentage of test cases already created and reviewed Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Test case execution (e.g., number of test cases run/not run, and test cases passed/failed) b) Is not correct. This metric can be measured, but its value is low. The number of testers does not give any information about the quality of the test object or test progress c) Is not correct. the coverage of requirements by source code is not measured during test execution. At most, the TEST(!) coverage of the code or requirements is measured d) Is not correct. This metric is part of test preparation and not test execution 4 / 40 4. You are working on a video game development project, using Agile methods. It is based on Greek mythology and history, and players can play key roles in scenarios such as the battles between the Greeks and Trojans. Consider the following user story and its associated acceptance criteria: As a player, I want to be able to acquire the Rod of Midas (a new magic object), so that I can turn objects and other players into gold AC1: The Rod must work on any object or player, no matter what size, which can be touched anywhere by the player holding the Rod AC2: Holding the Rod does not change the player holding it into gold AC3: Any object or player touched by the Rod transforms completely into gold within one millisecond AC4: The Rod appears as shown in Prototype O.W.RoM AC5: The transformation starts at the point of contact with the Rod and moves at a rate of one meter per millisecond You are participating in a checklist-based review session of this user story. This user story and its associated acceptance criteria contain which of the following typical defects identified by static testing in this type of work product? a) Deviation from standards b) Contradiction c) Security vulnerability d) Coverage gaps Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While deviation from standards is a typical, we are not given any standard with which the user stories should comply b) Is correct. Contradiction is a typical requirements defect. AC3 and AC5 conflict if the Rod is touched to an object that extends more than 1 meter in any direction from the point at which touched, since AC1 does not limit the size of the objects to be touched c) Is not correct. While security vulnerabilities are typical defects, there is nothing here related to security d) Is not correct. While test coverage gaps are typical defects, including missing tests for acceptance criteria, we are not provided with any information about which tests do and do not exist 5 / 40 5. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the unit’s field is 0.1 units. Which of the following is a set of input values that cover the boundary values with two-point boundary values for this field? a) 0.3, 10.0, 28.0 b) 0.4, 0.5, 0.6, 24, 9, 25, 0, 25.1 c) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0 25.1 d) 0.5, 0.6, 24.9, 25.0 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There are three equivalence partitions, with the boundaries as shown: • Invalid too low (0.4 and below) • Valid (0.5 to 25.0) • Invalid too high (25.1 and above) Thus: a) Is not correct. None of those four boundary values are included in this set of tests. These tests do cover the equivalence partitions b) Is not correct. All these four boundary values are included in this set of tests, but two additional values are included, one for each boundary. These are the values associated with three-point boundary value analysis c) Is correct. Each of those four two-point boundary values are included in this set of tests d) Is not correct. These four values are all included in the valid partition 6 / 40 6. Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester? a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and set the tools usage guidelines b) The test manager plans, coordinates, and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides on the release of the test object d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester executes the tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Selection of tools is a test manager task b) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers c) Is not correct. The tester does not decide on the release of the test object d) Is not correct. The tester specifies the test cases, the test manager does the prioritization 7 / 40 7. Given the following test activities and test tools: 1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis 2. Test execution and logging 3. Management of testing and testware 4. Test design A. Code coverage tools B. Dynamic analysis tools C. Test data preparation tools D. Defect management tools Which of the following BEST matches the activities and tools? a) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A b) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D c) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C d) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – C Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The correct pairings of test activities and test tools are: 1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis – (b) Dynamic analysis tools 2. Test execution and logging – (a) Code coverage tools 3. Management of testing and testware – (d) Defect management tools 4. Test design – (c) Test data preparation tools Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is correct d) Is not correct 8 / 40 8. Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the test manager? a) Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing b) Review tests developed by others c) Prepare and acquire test data d) Analyze, review, and assess requirements, specifications, and models for testability Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. One of the typical tasks of a test manager b) Is not correct. One of the typical tasks of a tester c) Is not correct. One of the typical tasks of a tester d) Is not correct. One of the typical tasks of a tester 9 / 40 9. Consider a mobile app that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. A user story has just been added to the set of features that checks customers’ social media accounts and bank records to give personalized greetings on birthdays and other personal milestones. Which of the following test techniques could a PROGRAMMER use during a unit test of the code to ensure that coverage of situations when the greetings ARE supposed to occur and when the greetings ARE NOT supposed to occur? a) Statement testing b) Exploratory testing c) State transition testing d) Decision testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Statement testing exercises the executable statements in the code, which might result in the absence of certain greetings not being tested b) Is not correct. Unless the test charter specifically mentioned testing both the presence and the absence of each type of greeting, coverage can be difficult to assess for an exploratory test c) Is not correct. State transition testing is useful for situations where the test object responds differently to an input depending on current conditions or previous history, but in this case the test object must decide whether the current date matches a particular milestone and thus whether to display the relevant greeting d) Is correct. Decision testing involves test cases that follow the control flows that occur from a decision point, which in this case would be deciding whether a greeting should or should not be given 10 / 40 10. Which of the following is a typical test objective? a) Preventing defects b) Repairing defects c) Comparing actual results to expected results d) Analyzing the cause of failure Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. This is an objective listed b) Is not correct. This is debugging c) Is not correct. This is an activity within the test execution group of activities within the test process d) Is not correct. This is part of debugging 11 / 40 11. Which of the following statements on the use of checklists in a formal review is CORRECT? a) As part of the review planning, the reviewers create the checklists needed for the review b) As part of the issue communication, the reviewers fill in the checklists provided for the review c) As part of the review meeting, the reviewers create defect reports based on the checklists provided for the review d) As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists needed for the review Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. During planning it is decided whether checklists are used. The preparation of the checklists is not part of the planning. In addition, the reviewers are neither involved in the planning, nor responsible for the creation of the checklists b) Is not correct. During issue communication, any potential defects that have been identified in the individual review are communicated. The completion of checklists by the reviewers already takes place, if at all, during individual review c) Is not correct. During review session, the reviewers communicate any potential defects of the work product that they did identify during the individual review. Defect reports are only created during the fixing and reporting activity d) Is correct. Initiating the review (“Kick-off”) involves distributing the work product and other materials, like checklists 12 / 40 12. Which of the following is a defect rather than a root cause in a fitness tracker? a) Because the author of the requirements was unfamiliar with the domain of fitness training, he therefore wrongly assumed that users wanted heartbeat in beats per hour b) The tester of the smartphone interface had not been trained in state transition testing, so missed a major defect c) An incorrect configuration variable implemented for the GPS function could cause location problems during daylight saving times d) Because the designer had never worked on wearable devices before, she as designer of the user interface therefore misunderstood the effects of reflected sunlight Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The lack of familiarity of the requirements author with the fitness domain is a root cause b) Is not correct. The lack of training of the tester in state transition testing was one of the root causes of the defect (the developer presumably created the defect, as well) c) Is correct. The incorrect configuration data represents faulty software in the fitness tracker (a defect), that may cause failures d) Is not correct. The lack of experience in designing user interfaces for wearable devices is a typical example of a root cause of a defect 13 / 40 13. Which of the following is a common test metric often used to monitor BOTH test preparation and test execution? a) Test case status b) Defect find/fix rates c) Test environment preparation d) Estimated cost to find the next defect Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Percentage of test cases prepared is a common metric during test preparation while percentage of test cases passed, failed, not run, etc., are common during test execution b) Is not correct. Defect reports are typically filed during test execution, based on failures found c) Is not correct. Test environment preparation is part implementation and would generally be complete before test execution d) Is not correct. Defects are typically reported during test execution, based on failures found, so the cost to find the next defect is available during test execution only 14 / 40 14. Which of the following is an example of a task that can be carried out as part of the test process? a) Analyzing a defect b) Designing test data c) Assigning a version to a test item d) Writing a user story Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Analyzing a defect is part of debugging, not testing b) Is correct. Creating test data is a test implementation task c) Is not correct. While a tester may need to identify a test item’s version for results reporting purposes, assigning a test item’s version is part of configuration management d) Is not correct. Writing a user story is not a testing activity and should be done by the product owner 15 / 40 15. Decision table testing is being performed on a speeding fine system. Two test cases have already been generated for rules R1 and R4, which are shown below: Given the following additional test cases: Which two of the additional test cases would achieve full coverage of the complete decision table (when combined with the test cases that have already been generated for rules R1 and R4)? a) DT1, DT2 b) DT2, DT3 c) DT2, DT4 d) DT3, DT4 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The complete decision table is shown below: To achieve full coverage, test cases covering rules 2 and 3 are needed. DT4 satisfies the constraints of rule 2, while DT2 satisfies the constraints of rule 3. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is correct d) Is not correct 16 / 40 16. Which one of the following test tools is mostly suitable for developers rather than testers? a) Requirement management tools b) Configuration management tools c) Static analysis tools d) Performance testing tools Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Requirement management tools are not particularly suitable for developers b) Is not correct. Configuration management tools are not particularly suitable for developers c) Is correct. Static analysis tools are especially suitable for developers d) Is not correct. Performance testing tools are not better suited for developers than for testers 17 / 40 17. The following statement refers to decision coverage: “When the code contains only a single ‘if’ statement and no loops or CASE statements, and its execution is not nested within the test, any single test case we run will result in 50% decision coverage.” Which of the following statement is correct? a) The statement is true. Any single test case provides 100% statement coverage and therefore 50% decision coverage b) The statement is true. Any single test case would cause the outcome of the “if” statement to be either true or false c) The statement is false. A single test case can only guarantee 25% decision coverage in this case d) The statement is false. The statement is too broad. It may be correct or not, depending on the tested software Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While the given statement is true, the explanation is not. The relationship between statement and decision coverage is misrepresented b) Is correct. Since any test case will cause the outcome of the “if” statement to be either TRUE or FALSE, by definition we achieved 50% decision coverage c) Is not correct. A single test case can give more than 25% decision coverage, this means according to the statement above always 50 % decision coverage d) Is not correct. The statement is specific and always true, because each test case achieves 50 % decision coverage 18 / 40 18. You are defining the process for carrying out product risk analysis as part of each iteration on an Agile project. Which of the following is the proper place to document this process in a test plan? a) Scope of testing b) Approach of testing c) Metrics of testing d) Configuration management of the test object Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While scope is a topic addressed in a test plan, the implementation of a risk-based testing strategy on this project is the approach, so this topic should be addressed in that section b) Is correct. Approach is a topic addressed in a test plan and the implementation of a risk-based testing strategy on this project is the approach c) Is not correct. While metrics for test monitoring and control is a topic addressed in a test plan, the implementation of a risk-based testing strategy on this project is the approach, so this topic should be addressed in that section d) Is not correct. Configuration management is not a topic addressed in a test plan 19 / 40 19. In a formal review, what is the role name for the participant who runs an inspection meeting? a) Facilitator b) Programmer c) Author d) Project manager Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. The facilitator or moderator runs the review meetings b) Is not correct. This is not a role name for a formal review participant c) Is not correct. The facilitator or moderator runs the review meetings d) Is not correct. The facilitator or moderator runs the review meetings 20 / 40 20. Which of the following qualities is MORE likely to be found in a tester’s mindset rather than in a developer’s? a) A tester´s mindset tends to grow and mature as the tester gains experience b) Ability to see what might go wrong c) Good communication with team members d) Focus on getting all things done Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Both developers and testers gain from experience b) Is correct. Developers are often more interested in designing and building solutions than in contemplating what might be wrong with those solutions c) Is not correct. Both developers and testers should be able to communicate well d) Is not correct. Testers shall focus on the quality, not on the quantity 21 / 40 21. You are working as a project manager on an in-house banking software project. To prevent rework and excessive find/fix/retest cycles, the following process has been put in place for resolving a defect once it is found in the test lab: 1. The assigned developer finds and fixes the defect, then creates an experimental build 2. A peer developer reviews, unit tests, and confirmation tests the defect fix on his/her desktop 3. A tester – usually the one who found the defect – confirmation tests the defect fix in the development environment 4. Once a day, a new release with all confirmed defect fixes included, is installed in the test environment 5. The same tester from step 3 confirmation tests the defect fix in the test environment Nevertheless, a large number of defects which the testers confirmed as fixed in the development environment (in step 3) are somehow failing confirmation testing in the test environment, with the resulting rework and cycle time outcomes. You have the highest confidence in your testers and have ruled out mistakes or omissions in step 3. Which of the following is the MOST likely part of the process to check next? a) The activity of developers, who may not be adequately testing in step 2 b) The activity of testers, who may be confused about what to test in step 5 c) Configuration management, which may not be maintaining the integrity of the product in step 4 d) The activity of developers, who may not be fixing defects properly in step 1 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. If inadequate developer testing were the problem, the confirmation test would not pass in step 3 b) Is not correct. The same tester who successfully performed the confirmation test in step 3 is repeating it in step 5 c) Is correct. Configuration management maintains the integrity of the software. If a test that passes in step 3 fails in step 5, then something is different between those two steps. One possible difference is the test object, the option listed here. Another possible difference is the between the development environment and the test environment, but that is not an option listed here d) Is not correct. If the developers were not fixing the defect, the confirmation test would not pass in step 3 22 / 40 22. You are testing a mobile app that allows users to find a nearby restaurant, based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (smaller number is high priority), and dependencies, in the following format: Which of the following is a possible test execution schedule that considers both priorities and dependencies? a) 01.001, 01.002, 01.003, 01.005, 01.004 b) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.003, 01.005 c) 01.003, 01.004, 01.002, 01.001, 01.002 d) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.005, 01.003 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Test 01.001 must come first, followed by 01.002, to satisfy dependencies. Afterwards, 01.004 and 01.003 should be run in either order, followed by 01.005, to satisfy priority. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 23 / 40 23. Which of the following statements about static testing are MOST true? a) Static testing is a cheap way to detect and remove defects b) Static testing makes dynamic testing less challenging c) Static testing makes it possible to find run-time problems early in the lifecycle d) When testing safety-critical system, static testing has less value because dynamic testing finds the defects better Select ONE options. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Defects found early are often much cheaper to remove than defects detected later in the lifecycle b) Is not correct. Dynamic testing still has its challenging because they find other types of defects c) Is not correct. This is dynamic testing d) Is not correct. Static testing is important for safety-critical computer systems 24 / 40 24. You are running a performance test with the objective of finding possible network bottlenecks in interfaces between components of a system. Which of the following statements describes this test? a) A functional test during the integration test level b) A non-functional test during the integration test level c) A functional test during the component test level d) A non-functional test during the component test level Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While this test does match the description of an integration test, it is a non-functional test b) Is correct. This test matches the description of an integration test and it is a non-functional test c) Is not correct. This test does not match the description of a component test and it is not a functional test d) Is not correct. While this test is a non-functional test, it does not match the description of a component test 25 / 40 25. Which of the following BEST defines risk level? a) Risk level is calculated by adding together the probabilities of all problem situations and the financial harm that results from them b) Risk level is estimated by multiplying the likelihood of a threat to the system by the chance that the threat will occur and will result in financial damage c) Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable event and the expected impact of that event d) Risk level is the sum of all potential hazards to a system multiplied by the sum of all potential losses from that system Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Risk is determined by considering a combination of the likelihood of problem situations and the harm that may result from them but cannot be calculated by adding these together (the probability would be in the range 0 to 1 and the harm could be in dollars) b) Is not correct. Risk is determined by considering a combination of a likelihood and an impact. This definition only considers likelihood and chance (both forms of probability) with no consideration of the impact (or harm) c) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers d) Is not correct. Risk is determined by considering a combination of a likelihood and an impact. This definition only considers hazards and losses (a hazard is a bad event, like a risk, while loss is a form of impact) with no consideration of the likelihood (or probability) 26 / 40 26. Which of the following should NOT be a trigger for maintenance testing? a) Decision to test the maintainability of the software b) Decision to test the system after migration to a new operating platform c) Decision to test if archived data is possible to be retrieved d) Decision to test after “hot fixes” Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. This is maintainability testing, not maintenance testing b) Is not correct. This is a trigger for maintenance testing: Operational tests of the new environment as well as of the changed software c) Is not correct. This is the trigger for maintenance testing: testing restore/retrieve procedures after archiving for long retention periods d) Is not correct. This is the trigger for maintenance testing: Reactive modification of a delivered software product to correct emergency defects that have caused actual failures 27 / 40 27. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independent testing? a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team, so ensuring everyone is aware that quality is the test team’s overall responsibility b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines c) An independent test team can work totally separately from the developers, need not be distracted with changing project requirements, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Quality should be the responsibility of everyone working on the project and not the sole responsibility of the test team b) Is not correct. First, it is not a benefit if an external test team does not meet delivery deadlines, and second, there is no reason to believe that external test teams will feel they do not have to meet strict delivery deadlines c) Is not correct. It is bad practice for the test team to work in complete isolation, and we would expect an external test team to be concerned with changing project requirements and communicate well with developers d) Is correct. Specifications are never perfect, meaning that assumptions will have to be made by the developer. An independent tester is useful in that they can challenge and verify the assumptions and subsequent interpretation made by the developer 28 / 40 28. A mass market operating system software product is designed to run on any PC hardware with an x86-family processor. You are running a set of tests to look for defects related to support of the various PCs that use such a processor and to build confidence that important PC brands will work. What type of test are you performing? a) Performance test b) Processor test c) Functional test d) Portability test Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The test described is a non-functional test, it is a portability test, not a performance test b) Is not correct. Processor test is not a defined test type c) Is not correct. The test described is a non-functional test, specifically a portability test d) Is correct. Testing supported devices is a non-functional test, specifically a portability test 29 / 40 29. Which of the following statements is a valid objective for testing? a) The test should start as late as possible so that development had enough time to create a good product b) To validate whether the test object works as expected by the users and other stakeholders c) To prove that all possible defects are identified d) To prove that any remaining defects will not cause any failures Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Contradiction to principle 3: “Early testing saves time and money” b) Is correct. This is one objective of testing c) Is not correct. Principle #2 states that exhaustive testing is impossible, so one can never prove that all defects were identified d) Is not correct. To make an assessment whether a defect will cause a failure or not, one must detect the defect first. Saying that no remaining defect will cause a failure implicitly means that all defects were found. This again contradicts principle #2 30 / 40 30. Which of the following activities is part of the main activity "test analysis" in the test process? a) Identifying any required infrastructure and tools b) Creating test suites from test scripts c) Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement d) Evaluating the test basis for testability Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This activity is performed during the test design activity (test design) b) Is not correct. This activity is performed during the test implementation activity (test implementation) c) Is not correct. This activity is performed during the test completion activity (test completion) d) Is correct. This activity is performed during the test analysis activity (test analysis) 31 / 40 31. A company's employees are paid bonuses if they work more than a year in the company and achieve a target which is individually agreed before. These facts can be shown in a decision table: Which of the following test cases represents a situation that can happen in real life, and is missing in the above decision table? a) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO b) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= YES c) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO d) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= NO Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. If there was no agreement on targets, it is impossible to reach the targets. Since this situation can´t occur, this is not a scenario happening in reality b) Is not correct. The test case is objectively wrong, since under these conditions no bonus is paid because the agreed target was not reached c) Is not correct. There was no agreement on targets, it is impossible to reach the targets. Since this situation can´t occur, this is not a scenario happening in reality d) Is correct. The test case describes the situation that the too short period of employment and the non-fulfilment of the agreed target leads to non-payment of the bonus. This situation can occur in practice but is missing in the decision table 32 / 40 32. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units. Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field? a) 10.0, 28.0 b) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1 c) 0.2, 0.9, 29.5 d) 12.3 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There are three equivalence partitions, with the boundaries as shown: • Invalid too low (0.4 and below) • Valid (0.5 to 25.0) • Invalid too high (25.1 and above) Thus: a) Is not correct. Only two of the equivalence partitions are covered in this set of tests b) Is not correct. Each of those four boundary values are included in this set of tests, but the question asked for equivalence partition coverage with minimal tests, so either 0.5 or 25.0 should be dropped c) Is correct. Each of these three equivalence partitions are covered in this set of tests d) Is not correct. Only one of those equivalence partitions is covered by this test 33 / 40 33. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of product risk analysis CORRECTLY influencing the testing? a) The potential impact of security flaws has been identified as being particularly high, so security testing has been prioritized ahead of some other testing activities b) Testing has found the quality of the network module to be higher than expected, so additional testing will be performed in that area c) The users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, so additional usability testing is planned for the replacement system d) The time needed to load web pages is crucial to the success of the new website, so an expert in performance testing has been employed for this project Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale This question is looking for bad application of product risk analysis. a) Is not correct. As we are told security flaws have a particularly high impact, their risk level will be higher, and thus we have prioritized the security testing ahead of some other testing. Thus, product risk analysis has influenced the testing properly. b) Is correct. As less defects than expected have been found in the network module, the perceived risk in this area should be lower, and so less testing should be focused on this area, NOT additional testing. Thus, product risk analysis has NOT CORRECTLY influenced the testing in this situation c) Is not correct. Because the users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, there is now high awareness of the risk associated with the user interface, which has resulted in additional usability testing being planned. Thus, product risk analysis has properly influenced the thoroughness and scope of testing d) Is not correct. As the time needed to load web pages has been identified as crucial to the success of the new website, the performance of the website should be considered a risk, and the employment of an expert in performance testing helps to mitigate this risk. Thus, product risk analysis has properly influenced the testing 34 / 40 34. As a test manager you are responsible for testing the following parts of requirements: • R1 - Process anomalies • R2 - Synchronization • R3 - Approval • R4 - Problem solving • R5 - Financial data • R6 - Diagram data • R7 - Changes to the user profile Notation: Logical requirement dependencies (A -> B means, that B depends on A): Which one of the following options structures the test execution schedule according to the requirement dependencies? a) R1 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 b) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R4 ; R7 ; R5 ; R6 c) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R4 ; R7 d) R1 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. R4 is dependent on R2, so R2 should be tested before R4 b) Is not correct. R4 is dependent on R2, R5 and R6, so R5 and R6 should be tested before R4 c) Is correct. The tests are specified in a sequence that takes the dependencies into account d) Is not correct. R2 is dependent on R3, so R3 should be tested before R2 35 / 40 35. Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques? 1. Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test object 2. The processing within the test object is checked 3. Tests are based on defects’ likelihood and their distribution 4. Deviations from the requirements are checked 5. User stories are used as the test basis Using notation for the following 4 options: Black - Black-box test techniques White - White-box test techniques Experience - Experience-based test techniques a) Black – 4, 5 White – 1, 2; Experience – 3 b) Black – 3 White – 1, 2; Experience – 4, 5 c) Black – 4 White – 1, 2; Experience – 3, 5 d) Black – 1, 3, 5 White – 2; Experience – 4 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The correct pairing of descriptions with the different categories of test techniques is: • Black-box test techniques Deviations from the requirements are checked (4) User stories are used as the test basis (5) • White-box test techniques Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test object (1) The processing within the test object is checked (2) • Experience-based test techniques Tests are based on defects’ likelihood and their distribution (3) Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 36 / 40 36. Consider the following decision table for the portion of an online airline reservation system that allows frequent flyers to redeem points for reward travel: Suppose that there are two equivalence partitions for the condition where “Account/password okay” is not true, one where the account is invalid and another where the account is valid, but the password is invalid. Suppose that there is only one equivalence partition corresponding to the condition where “Account/password okay” is true, where both the account and password are valid. If you want to design tests to cover the equivalence partitions for “Account/password okay” and also for this portion of the decision table, what is the minimum number of tests required? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 9 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There is at least one test for each column in the decision table. However, column one requires two tests, one where the account is invalid and another where the account is valid, but the password is invalid, so the minimum number of tests is four. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is correct d) Is not correct 37 / 40 37. Consider the following state transition diagram for a credit-card only, unattended gasoline pump: Assume that you want to develop the minimum number of tests to cover each transition in the state transition diagram. Assume further that each test must start at the beginning state, waiting for customer, and each test ends when a transition arrives at the beginning state. How many tests do you need? a) 4 b) 7 c) 1 d) Infinite Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Each transition must be traversed at least once. To do so, the first test can cover the happy path, a successful purchase, the next test cancels, or timeout from waiting for pumping, the next test cancels, or timeout from waiting for fuel type, and the last test the insertion of an invalid credit card. While the order is immaterial, fewer than four tests fail to cover one of the transitions inbound to waiting for customer or violates the rules about where a test starts or ends. More than four tests include tests that re-traverse already-covered transitions. Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 38 / 40 38. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes: • There is a role of a scribe • The purpose is to detect potential defects • The review meeting is led by the author • Reviewers find potential defects by individual review • A review report is produced Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used? a) Informal Review b) Walkthrough c) Technical Review d) Inspection Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering the attributes: • There is a role of a scribe – specified for walkthroughs, technical reviews, and inspections; thus, the reviews being performed cannot be informal reviews • The purpose is to detect potential defects – the purpose of detecting potential defects is specified for all types of review. • The review meeting is led by the author – this is not allowed for inspections and is typically not the author for technical reviews, but is part of walkthroughs, and allowed for informal reviews • Reviewers find potential issues by individual review - all types of reviews can include individual review (even informal reviews) • A review report is produced - all types of reviews can produce a review report, although it would be less likely for an informal review Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 39 / 40 39. A video application has the following requirement: The application shall allow playing a video on the following display resolution: 1. 640x480 2. 1280x720 3. 1600x1200 4. 1920x1080 Which of the following list of test cases is a result of applying the equivalence partitioning test technique to test this requirement? a) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 1920x1080 (1 test case) b) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 640x480 and 1920x1080 (2 test cases) c) Verify that the application can play a video on each of the display sizes in the requirement (4 test cases) d) Verify that the application can play a video on any one of the display sizes in the requirement (1 test case) Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. See reason from correct answer b) Is not correct. See reason from correct answer c) Is correct. This is a case where the requirement gives an enumeration of discrete values. Each enumeration value is an equivalence class by itself; therefore, each will be tested when using equivalence partitioning test technique d) Is not correct. See reason from correct answer 40 / 40 40. Which one of the following is TRUE? a) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the correction has been successfully implemented, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the correction has no side effects b) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the system is still working in a new environment c) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed d) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the new functionality is working, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Regression testing does not check successful implementation of corrections and confirmation testing does not check for side effects b) Is not correct. The statement about confirmation testing should be about regression testing c) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers d) Is not correct. Testing new functionality is not regression testing 0% Restart quiz
