2018v3.1 – Exam 4 – 75 minutes

Created on June 25, 2024 By

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2018v3.1 - Exam 4 - 75 minutes

Name

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1. Which one of the following answers describes a test condition?

a) A distinguishing characteristic of a component or system

b) A testable aspect of a component or system identified as a basis for testing

c) The degree to which a software product provides functions which meet stated and implied needs when the software is used under specified conditions

d) Test cases designed to execute combinations of conditions and actions resulting from them

Select ONE option.

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2. What is quality?

a) Activities focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled

b) The degree to which a component or system satisfies the stated and implied needs of its various stakeholders

c) The degree to which a component or system protects information and data so that persons or other components or systems have the degree of access appropriate to their types and levels of authorization

d) The total costs incurred on quality activities and issues and often split into prevention costs, appraisal costs, internal failure costs and external failure costs

Select ONE option.

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3. In a formal review, what is the role name for the participant who runs an inspection meeting?

a) Facilitator

b) Programmer

c) Author

d) Project manager

Select ONE option.

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4. You are testing a new version of software for a coffee machine. The machine can prepare different types of coffee based on four categories. i.e., coffee size, sugar, milk, and syrup. The criteria are as follows:

• Coffee size (small, medium, large)
• Sugar (none, 1 unit, 2 units, 3 units, 4 units)
• Milk (yes or no)
• Coffee flavor syrup (no syrup, caramel, hazelnut, vanilla)

Now you are writing a defect report with the following information:

• Title: Low coffee temperature.
• Short summary: When you select coffee with milk, the time for preparing coffee is too long and the temperature of the beverage is too low (less than 40 °C).
• Expected result: The temperature of coffee should be standard (about 75 °C).
• Degree of risk: Medium
• Priority: Normal

What valuable information was omitted in the above defect report?

a) The actual test results

b) Identification of the tested software version

c) Status of the defect

d) Ideas for improving the test case

Select ONE option.

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5. The project develops a "smart" heating thermostat. The control algorithms of the thermostat were modeled as Matlab/Simulink models and run on the internet connected server. The thermostat uses the specifications of the server to trigger the heating valves.

The test manager has defined the following test strategy/approach in the test plan:

1. The acceptance test for the whole system is executed as an experience-based test.
2. The control algorithms on the server are checked against standard of the energy saving regulation.
3. The functional test of the thermostat is performed as risk-based testing.
4. The security tests of data / communication via the internet are executed together with external security experts.

What four common types of test strategies/approaches did the test manager implement in the test plan?

a) Methodical, analytical, reactive, and regression-averse

b) Analytical, standard-compliant, consultative, and reactive

c) Model-based, methodical, analytical, and consultative

d) Regression-averse, consultative, reactive, and methodical

Select ONE option.

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6. You are engaged in planning a test effort for a new mobile banking application. As part of estimation, you first meet with the proposed testers and others on the project. The team is well-coordinated and has already worked on similar projects. To verify the resulting estimate, you then refer to some industry averages for testing effort and costs on similar projects, published by a reputable consultant.

Which statement accurately describes your estimation approach?

a) A simultaneous expert-based and metrics-based approach

b) Primarily an expert-based approach, augmented with a metrics-based approach

c) Primarily a metrics-based approach, augmented with an expert-based approach

d) Primarily planning poker, checked by velocity from burndown charts

Select ONE option.

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7. Consider the following decision table for the portion of an online airline reservation system that allows frequent flyers to redeem points for reward travel:

Suppose that there are two equivalence partitions for the condition where “Account/password okay” is not true, one where the account is invalid and another where the account is valid, but the password is invalid. Suppose that there is only one equivalence partition corresponding to the condition where “Account/password okay” is true, where both the account and password are valid.

If you want to design tests to cover the equivalence partitions for “Account/password okay” and also for this portion of the decision table, what is the minimum number of tests required?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 9

Select ONE option.

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8. Prior to an iteration planning session, you are studying a user story and its acceptance criteria, deriving test conditions and associated test cases from the user story as a way of applying the principle of early QA and test. What test technique are you applying?

a) White-box

b) Black-box

c) Experience-based

d) Error guessing

Select ONE option.

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9. Consider the following list of undesirable outcomes that could occur on a mobile app development effort:

A. Incorrect totals on screens
B. Change to acceptance criteria during acceptance testing
C. Users find the soft keyboard too hard to use with your app
D. System responds too slowly to user input during search string entry
E. Testers not allowed to report test results in daily standup meetings

Which of the following properly classifies these outcomes as project and product risks?

a) Product risks: B, E; Project risks: A, C, D

b) Product risks: A, C, D; Project risks: B, E

c) Product risks: A, C, D, E Project risks: B

d) Product risks: A, C Project risks: B, D, E

Select ONE option.

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10. You are working as a project manager on an in-house banking software project. To prevent rework and excessive find/fix/retest cycles, the following process has been put in place for resolving a defect once it is found in the test lab:

1. The assigned developer finds and fixes the defect, then creates an experimental build
2. A peer developer reviews, unit tests, and confirmation tests the defect fix on his/her desktop
3. A tester – usually the one who found the defect – confirmation tests the defect fix in the development environment
4. Once a day, a new release with all confirmed defect fixes included, is installed in the test environment
5. The same tester from step 3 confirmation tests the defect fix in the test environment

Nevertheless, a large number of defects which the testers confirmed as fixed in the development environment (in step 3) are somehow failing confirmation testing in the test environment, with the resulting rework and cycle time outcomes. You have the highest confidence in your testers and have ruled out mistakes or omissions in step 3.

Which of the following is the MOST likely part of the process to check next?

a) The activity of developers, who may not be adequately testing in step 2

b) The activity of testers, who may be confused about what to test in step 5

c) Configuration management, which may not be maintaining the integrity of the product in step 4

d) The activity of developers, who may not be fixing defects properly in step 1

Select ONE option.

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11. Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing?

a) Error guessing requires you to imagine you are the user of the test object and guess mistakes the user could make interacting with it

b) Error guessing involves using your personal experience of development and the mistakes you made as a developer

c) Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past and typical mistakes made by developers

d) Error guessing requires you to rapidly duplicate the development task to identify the sort of mistakes a developer might make

Select ONE option.

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12. Consider the following state transition diagram for a credit-card only, unattended gasoline pump:

Assume that you want to develop the minimum number of tests to cover each transition in the state transition diagram. Assume further that each test must start at the beginning state, waiting for customer, and each test ends when a transition arrives at the beginning state. How many tests do you need?

a) 4

b) 7

c) 1

d) Infinite

Select ONE option.

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13. Consider the following types of defects that a test level might focus on:

a) Defects in separately testable modules or objects
b) Not focused on identifying defects
c) Defects in interfaces and interactions
d) Defects in the whole test object

Which of the following list correctly matches test levels from the Foundation syllabus with the defect focus options given above?

a) 1 = performance test; 2 = component test; 3 = system test; 4 = acceptance test

b) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = system test; 4 = integration test

c) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = integration test; 4 = system test

d) 1 = integration test; 2 = system test; 3 = component test; 4 = acceptance test

Select ONE option.

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14. Match the following test work products (1-4) with the right description (A-D).

1. Test suite
2. Test case
3. Test script
4. Test charter

A. A set of test scripts to be executed in a specific test run
B. A set of instructions for the execution of a test
C. Contains expected results
D. Documentation of test activities in session-based exploratory testing

a) 1A, 2C, 3B, 4D

b) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C

c) 1A, 2C, 3D, 4B

d) 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A

Select ONE option.

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15. Given the following state model of a battery charger software:

Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level of transition coverage for the model?

a) OFF → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → LOW

b) WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE

c) HIGH → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE

d) WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT

Select ONE option.

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16. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the correction has been successfully implemented, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the correction has no side effects

b) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the system is still working in a new environment

c) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed

d) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the new functionality is working, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed

Select ONE option.

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17. Which of the following is a common test metric often used to monitor BOTH test preparation and test execution?

a) Test case status

b) Defect find/fix rates

c) Test environment preparation

d) Estimated cost to find the next defect

Select ONE option.

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18. A daily radiation recorder for plants produces a sunshine score based on a combination of the number of hours a plant is exposed to the sun (below 3 hours, 3 to 6 hours or above 6 hours) and the average intensity of the sunshine (very low, low, medium, high).

Given the following test cases:

What is the minimum number of additional test cases that are needed to ensure full coverage of ALL VALID INPUT equivalence partitions?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

Select ONE option.

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19. Which one of the following options is categorized as a black-box test technique?

a) A technique based on analysis of the architecture

b) A technique checking that the test object is working according to the detailed design

c) A technique based on the knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures

d) A technique based on formal requirements

Select ONE option

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20. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the unit’s field is 0.1 units.

Which of the following is a set of input values that cover the boundary values with two-point boundary values for this field?

a) 0.3, 10.0, 28.0

b) 0.4, 0.5, 0.6, 24, 9, 25, 0, 25.1

c) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0 25.1

d) 0.5, 0.6, 24.9, 25.0

Select ONE option.

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21. Which statement about the relationship between statement coverage and decision coverage is true?

a) 100% decision coverage also guarantees 100% statement coverage

b) 100% statement coverage also guarantees 100% decision coverage

c) 50% decision coverage also guarantees 50% statement coverage

d) Decision coverage can never reach 100%

Select ONE option.

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22. In what way can testing be part of Quality Assurance?

a) It ensures that requirements are detailed enough

b) Testing reduces the risk of poor software quality

c) It ensures that standards in the organization are followed

d) It measures the quality of software in terms of number of executed test cases

Select ONE option.

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23. Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review?

a) Manager – Decides on the execution of reviews

b) Review Leader - Ensures effective running of review meetings

c) Scribe – Fixes defects in the work product under review

d) Moderator – Monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness

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24. Decision table testing is being performed on a speeding fine system. Two test cases have already been generated for rules R1 and R4, which are shown below:

Given the following additional test cases:

Which two of the additional test cases would achieve full coverage of the complete decision table (when combined with the test cases that have already been generated for rules R1 and R4)?

a) DT1, DT2

b) DT2, DT3

c) DT2, DT4

d) DT3, DT4

Select ONE option.

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25. During an Agile development effort, a product owner discovers a previously unknown regulatory requirement that applies to most of the user stories within a particular epic. The user stories are updated to provide for the necessary changes in software behavior. The programmers on the team are modifying the code appropriately. As a tester on the team, what types of tests will you run?

a) Confirmation tests

b) Regression tests

c) Functional tests

d) Change-related tests

Select ONE option.

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26. Given the following statements about the relationships between software development activities and test activities in the software development lifecycle:

1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity
2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available
3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding development activity
4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development lifecycle

Which of the following CORRECTLY shows which are true and false?

a) True – 1, 2; False – 3, 4

b) True – 2, 3; False – 1, 4

c) True – 1, 2, 4; False – 3

d) True – 1, 4; False – 2, 3

Select ONE option.

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27. A product owner says that your role as a tester on an Agile team is to catch all the bugs before the end of each iteration. Which of the following is a testing principle that could be used to respond to this (false) statement?

a) Defect clustering

b) Testing shows the presence of defects

c) Absence of error fallacy

d) Root cause analysis

Select ONE option.

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28. Which of the following options are roles in a formal review?

a) Developer, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Tester

b) Author, Moderator, Manager, Reviewer, Developer

c) Author, Manager, Review leader, Reviewer, Designer

d) Author, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Scribe

Select ONE option.

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29. Which one of the following test tools is mostly suitable for developers rather than testers?

a) Requirement management tools

b) Configuration management tools

c) Static analysis tools

d) Performance testing tools

Select ONE option.

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30. Which of the following is a true statement about exploratory testing?

a) More experienced testers who have tested similar applications and technologies are likely to do better than less experienced testers at exploratory testing

b) Exploratory testing does not identify any additional tests beyond those that would result from formal test techniques

c) The time required to complete an exploratory testing session cannot be predicted in advance

d) Exploratory testing can involve the use of black-box techniques but not white-box techniques

Select ONE option.

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31. Which of the following statements on the use of checklists in a formal review is CORRECT?

a) As part of the review planning, the reviewers create the checklists needed for the review

b) As part of the issue communication, the reviewers fill in the checklists provided for the review

c) As part of the review meeting, the reviewers create defect reports based on the checklists provided for the review

d) As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists needed for the review

Select ONE option.

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32. For which of the following situations is exploratory testing suitable?

a) When time pressure requires speeding up the execution of tests already specified

b) When the system is developed incrementally, and no test charter is available

c) When testers are available who have enough knowledge of similar applications and technologies

d) When an advanced knowledge of the system already exists, and evidence is to be if it should be tested intensively

Select ONE option.

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33. Which of the following lists contains only typical exit criteria from testing?

a) Reliability measures, test coverage, schedule and status about fixing defect and remaining risks

b) Reliability measures, test coverage, degree of tester’s independence and product completeness

c) Reliability measures, test coverage, test cost, availability of test environment, time to market and product completeness

d) Time to market, remaining defects, tester qualification, availability of testable use cases, test coverage and test cost

Select ONE option.

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34. Which of the following qualities is MORE likely to be found in a tester’s mindset rather than in a developer’s?

a) A tester´s mindset tends to grow and mature as the tester gains experience

b) Ability to see what might go wrong

c) Good communication with team members

d) Focus on getting all things done

Select ONE option.

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35. Which of the following can affect and be part of the (initial) test planning?

a) Budget limitations

b) Test log

c) Failure rate

d) Use cases

Select ONE options.

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36. During a project following Agile methods, you find a discrepancy between the developer’s interpretation of an acceptance criteria and the product owner’s interpretation, which you bring up during a user story refinement session. Which of the following is a benefit of test independence exemplified by this situation?

a) Recognizing different kinds of failures

b) Taking primary responsibility for quality

c) Removing a defect early

d) Challenging stakeholder assumptions

Select ONE option.

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37. As a test manager you are responsible for testing the following parts of requirements:

• R1 - Process anomalies
• R2 - Synchronization
• R3 - Approval
• R4 - Problem solving
• R5 - Financial data
• R6 - Diagram data
• R7 - Changes to the user profile

Notation: Logical requirement dependencies (A -> B means, that B depends on A):

Which one of the following options structures the test execution schedule according to the requirement dependencies?

a) R1 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6

b) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R4 ; R7 ; R5 ; R6

c) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R4 ; R7

d) R1 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7

Select ONE option.

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38. Which of the following statements about test types and test levels is CORRECT?

a) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing

b) Functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component testing

c) It is possible to perform functional, non-functional and white-box testing at any test level

d) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing

Select ONE option.

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39. You are running a performance test with the objective of finding possible network bottlenecks in interfaces between components of a system. Which of the following statements describes this test?

a) A functional test during the integration test level

b) A non-functional test during the integration test level

c) A functional test during the component test level

d) A non-functional test during the component test level

Select ONE option.

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40. Which of the following statements comparing component testing and system testing is TRUE?

a) Component testing verifies the functionality of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system

b) Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications or use cases

c) Component testing only focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics

d) Component testing is the responsibility of the testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system

Select ONE option.

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