2018v3.1 – Exam 4 – 75 minutes

Created on June 25, 2024 By

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2018v3.1 - Exam 4 - 75 minutes

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1. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of product risk analysis CORRECTLY influencing the testing?

a) The potential impact of security flaws has been identified as being particularly high, so security testing has been prioritized ahead of some other testing activities

b) Testing has found the quality of the network module to be higher than expected, so additional testing will be performed in that area

c) The users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, so additional usability testing is planned for the replacement system

d) The time needed to load web pages is crucial to the success of the new website, so an expert in performance testing has been employed for this project

Select ONE option.

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2. Which of the following statements about test types and test levels is CORRECT?

a) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing

b) Functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component testing

c) It is possible to perform functional, non-functional and white-box testing at any test level

d) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing

Select ONE option.

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3. Given the following test activities and test tools:

1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis
2. Test execution and logging
3. Management of testing and testware
4. Test design
A. Code coverage tools

B. Dynamic analysis tools
C. Test data preparation tools
D. Defect management tools

Which of the following BEST matches the activities and tools?

a) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A

b) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D

c) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C

d) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – C

Select ONE option.

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4. You are working on a video game development project, using Agile methods. It is based on Greek mythology and history, and players can play key roles in scenarios such as the battles between the Greeks and Trojans.

Consider the following user story and its associated acceptance criteria:

As a player,
I want to be able to acquire the Rod of Midas (a new magic object),
so that I can turn objects and other players into gold
AC1: The Rod must work on any object or player, no matter what size, which can be touched anywhere by the player holding the Rod
AC2: Holding the Rod does not change the player holding it into gold
AC3: Any object or player touched by the Rod transforms completely into gold within one millisecond
AC4: The Rod appears as shown in Prototype O.W.RoM
AC5: The transformation starts at the point of contact with the Rod and moves at a rate of one meter per millisecond

You are participating in a checklist-based review session of this user story.

This user story and its associated acceptance criteria contain which of the following typical defects identified by static testing in this type of work product?

a) Deviation from standards

b) Contradiction

c) Security vulnerability

d) Coverage gaps

Select ONE option.

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5. How can white-box testing be applied during user acceptance testing?

a) To check if large volumes of data can be transferred between integrated systems

b) To check if all code statements and code decision paths have been executed

c) To check if all work process flows have been covered

d) To cover all web page navigations

Select ONE option.

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6. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units.

Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field?

a) 10.0, 28.0

b) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1

c) 0.2, 0.9, 29.5

d) 12.3

Select ONE option.

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7. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes:

• There is a role of a scribe
• The purpose is to detect potential defects
• The review meeting is led by the author
• Reviewers find potential defects by individual review
• A review report is produced

Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used?

a) Informal Review

b) Walkthrough

c) Technical Review

d) Inspection

Select ONE option.

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8. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Impact analysis is useful for confirmation testing during maintenance testing

b) Confirmation testing is useful for regression testing during system design

c) Impact analysis is useful for regression testing during maintenance testing

d) Confirmation testing is useful for impact analysis during maintenance testing

Select ONE option.

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9. Which of the following is a true statement about exploratory testing?

a) More experienced testers who have tested similar applications and technologies are likely to do better than less experienced testers at exploratory testing

b) Exploratory testing does not identify any additional tests beyond those that would result from formal test techniques

c) The time required to complete an exploratory testing session cannot be predicted in advance

d) Exploratory testing can involve the use of black-box techniques but not white-box techniques

Select ONE option.

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10. Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria:

1. The original testing budget of $30,000 plus contingency of $7,000 has been spent
2. 96% of planned tests for the drawing package have been executed and the remaining tests are now out of scope
3. The trading performance test environment has been designed, set-up and verified
4. Current status is no outstanding critical defects and two high-priority ones
5. The autopilot design specifications have been reviewed and reworked
6. The tax rate calculation component has passed unit testing.

Which of the following BEST categorizes them as entry and exit criteria:

a) Entry criteria – 5, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 2, 3, 4

b) Entry criteria – 2, 3, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 4, 5

c) Entry criteria – 1, 3; Exit criteria – 2, 4, 5, 6

d) Entry criteria – 3, 5, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 2, 4

Select ONE option.

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11. Which of the following statements comparing component testing and system testing is TRUE?

a) Component testing verifies the functionality of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system

b) Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications or use cases

c) Component testing only focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics

d) Component testing is the responsibility of the testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system

Select ONE option.

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12. Which of the following activities is part of the main activity "test analysis" in the test process?

a) Identifying any required infrastructure and tools

b) Creating test suites from test scripts

c) Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement

d) Evaluating the test basis for testability

Select ONE option.

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13. You are testing a new version of software for a coffee machine. The machine can prepare different types of coffee based on four categories. i.e., coffee size, sugar, milk, and syrup. The criteria are as follows:

• Coffee size (small, medium, large)
• Sugar (none, 1 unit, 2 units, 3 units, 4 units)
• Milk (yes or no)
• Coffee flavor syrup (no syrup, caramel, hazelnut, vanilla)

Now you are writing a defect report with the following information:

• Title: Low coffee temperature.
• Short summary: When you select coffee with milk, the time for preparing coffee is too long and the temperature of the beverage is too low (less than 40 °C).
• Expected result: The temperature of coffee should be standard (about 75 °C).
• Degree of risk: Medium
• Priority: Normal

What valuable information was omitted in the above defect report?

a) The actual test results

b) Identification of the tested software version

c) Status of the defect

d) Ideas for improving the test case

Select ONE option.

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14. Consider the following testing activities:

1. Selecting regression tests
2. Evaluating completeness of test execution
3. Identifying which user stories have open defect reports
4. Evaluating whether the number of tests for each requirement is consistent with the level of product risk

Consider the following ways traceability can help testing:

A. Improve understandability of test status reports to include status of test basis items
B. Make testing auditable
C. Provide information to assess process quality
D. Analyze the impact of changes

Which of the following best matches the testing activity with how traceability can assist that activity?

a) 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A

b) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C

c) 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B

d) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C

Select ONE option.

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15. You are running a performance test with the objective of finding possible network bottlenecks in interfaces between components of a system. Which of the following statements describes this test?

a) A functional test during the integration test level

b) A non-functional test during the integration test level

c) A functional test during the component test level

d) A non-functional test during the component test level

Select ONE option.

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16. As a result of risk analysis, more testing is being directed to those areas of the system under test where initial testing found more defects than average.

Which of the following testing principles is being applied?

a) Beware of the pesticide paradox

b) Testing is context dependent

c) Absence-of-errors is a fallacy

d) Defects cluster together

Select ONE option.

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17. During an Agile development effort, a product owner discovers a previously unknown regulatory requirement that applies to most of the user stories within a particular epic. The user stories are updated to provide for the necessary changes in software behavior. The programmers on the team are modifying the code appropriately. As a tester on the team, what types of tests will you run?

a) Confirmation tests

b) Regression tests

c) Functional tests

d) Change-related tests

Select ONE option.

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18. You are working as a tester on an Agile team and have participated in over two dozen user story refinement sessions with the product owner and the developers on the team at the start of each iteration. As the reviews have gotten more effective at detecting defects in user stories and the product owner more proficient at correcting those defects, you and the team notice that the team’s velocity, as shown in your burndown charts, has started to increase. Which of the following is a benefit of static testing that is MOST DIRECTLY related to the team’s increased velocity?

a) Increasing total cost of quality

b) Reducing testing cost

c) Increasing development productivity

d) Reducing total cost of quality

Select ONE option.

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19. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independent testing?

a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team, so ensuring everyone is aware that quality is the test team’s overall responsibility

b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines

c) An independent test team can work totally separately from the developers, need not be distracted with changing project requirements, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system

d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer

Select ONE option.

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20. You are testing a mobile app that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. You are running a test suite that involves evaluating each screen and each field on each screen against a general list of user interface best practices, derived from a popular book on the topic, that maximize attractiveness, ease-of-use, and accessibility for such apps. Which of the following options BEST categorizes the test technique you are using?

a) Specification-based

b) Exploratory

c) Checklist-based

d) Error guessing

Select ONE option.

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21. What is quality?

a) Activities focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled

b) The degree to which a component or system satisfies the stated and implied needs of its various stakeholders

c) The degree to which a component or system protects information and data so that persons or other components or systems have the degree of access appropriate to their types and levels of authorization

d) The total costs incurred on quality activities and issues and often split into prevention costs, appraisal costs, internal failure costs and external failure costs

Select ONE option.

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22. You are engaged in planning a test effort for a new mobile banking application. As part of estimation, you first meet with the proposed testers and others on the project. The team is well-coordinated and has already worked on similar projects. To verify the resulting estimate, you then refer to some industry averages for testing effort and costs on similar projects, published by a reputable consultant.

Which statement accurately describes your estimation approach?

a) A simultaneous expert-based and metrics-based approach

b) Primarily an expert-based approach, augmented with a metrics-based approach

c) Primarily a metrics-based approach, augmented with an expert-based approach

d) Primarily planning poker, checked by velocity from burndown charts

Select ONE option.

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23. Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing?

a) Error guessing requires you to imagine you are the user of the test object and guess mistakes the user could make interacting with it

b) Error guessing involves using your personal experience of development and the mistakes you made as a developer

c) Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past and typical mistakes made by developers

d) Error guessing requires you to rapidly duplicate the development task to identify the sort of mistakes a developer might make

Select ONE option.

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24. What is checklist-based testing?

a) A test technique in which tests are derived based on the tester's knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures

b) A test technique based on an analysis of the specification of a component or system

c) An experience-based test technique whereby the experienced tester uses a list of items to be noted, checked, or remembered, or a set of rules or criteria against which a product must be verified

d) An approach to testing where the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests

Select ONE option.

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25. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes a role of impact analysis in Maintenance Testing?

a) Impact analysis is used when deciding if a fix to a maintained system is worthwhile

b) Impact analysis is used to identify how data should be migrated into the maintained system

c) Impact analysis is used to decide which hot fixes are of most value to the user

d) Impact analysis is used to determine the effectiveness of new maintenance test cases

Select ONE option.

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26. What is decision coverage?

a) The coverage of condition outcomes

b) Decision coverage is a synonym for statement coverage

c) The coverage of executable statements

d) The coverage of decision outcomes

Select ONE option.

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27. You are defining the process for carrying out product risk analysis as part of each iteration on an Agile project. Which of the following is the proper place to document this process in a test plan?

a) Scope of testing

b) Approach of testing

c) Metrics of testing

d) Configuration management of the test object

Select ONE option.

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28. Which of the following is MOST likely to be used as a reason for using a pilot project to introduce a tool into an organization?

a) The need to evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices and determining what would need to change

b) The need to evaluate the test automation skills and training, mentoring and coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool

c) The need to evaluate whether the tool provides the required functionality and does not duplicate existing test tools

d) The need to evaluate the tool vendor in terms of the training and other support they provide

Select ONE option.

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29. Which of the following metrics would be MOST useful to monitor during test execution?

a) Percentage of executed test cases

b) Average number of testers involved in the test execution

c) Coverage of requirements by source code

d) Percentage of test cases already created and reviewed

Select ONE option.

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30. Which activities are carried out within the planning of a formal review?

a) Collection of metrics for the evaluation of the effectiveness of the review

b) Answer any questions the participants may have

c) Definition and Verification of fulfillment of entry criteria for the review

d) Evaluation of the review findings against the exit criteria

Select ONE option.

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31. A fitness app measures the number of steps that are walked each day and provides feedback to encourage the user to keep fit.

The feedback for different numbers of steps should be:

Up to 1000 - Couch Potato!
Above 1000, up to 2000 - Lazy Bones!
Above 2000, up to 4000 - Getting There!
Above 4000, up to 6000 - Not Bad!
Above 6000 - Way to Go!

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the BEST equivalence partition coverage?

a) 0, 1000, 2000, 3000, 4000

b) 1000, 2001, 4000, 4001, 6000

c) 123, 2345, 3456, 4567, 5678

d) 666, 999, 2222, 5555, 6666

Select ONE option.

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32. Programmers often write and execute unit tests against code which they have written. During this self-testing activity, which of the following is a tester mindset that programmers should adopt to perform this unit testing effectively?

a) Good communication skills

b) Code coverage

c) Evaluating code defects

d) Attention to detail

Select ONE option.

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33. Consider the following decision table for the portion of an online airline reservation system that allows frequent flyers to redeem points for reward travel:

Suppose that there are two equivalence partitions for the condition where “Account/password okay” is not true, one where the account is invalid and another where the account is valid, but the password is invalid. Suppose that there is only one equivalence partition corresponding to the condition where “Account/password okay” is true, where both the account and password are valid.

If you want to design tests to cover the equivalence partitions for “Account/password okay” and also for this portion of the decision table, what is the minimum number of tests required?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 9

Select ONE option.

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34. During a project following Agile methods, you find a discrepancy between the developer’s interpretation of an acceptance criteria and the product owner’s interpretation, which you bring up during a user story refinement session. Which of the following is a benefit of test independence exemplified by this situation?

a) Recognizing different kinds of failures

b) Taking primary responsibility for quality

c) Removing a defect early

d) Challenging stakeholder assumptions

Select ONE option.

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35. Which one of the following options is categorized as a black-box test technique?

a) A technique based on analysis of the architecture

b) A technique checking that the test object is working according to the detailed design

c) A technique based on the knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures

d) A technique based on formal requirements

Select ONE option

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36. You are testing a mobile app that allows users to find a nearby restaurant, based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (smaller number is high priority), and dependencies, in the following format:

Which of the following is a possible test execution schedule that considers both priorities and dependencies?

a) 01.001, 01.002, 01.003, 01.005, 01.004

b) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.003, 01.005

c) 01.003, 01.004, 01.002, 01.001, 01.002

d) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.005, 01.003

Select ONE option.

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37. Which of the review types below is the BEST option to choose when the review must follow a formal process based on rules and checklists?

a) Informal Review

b) Technical Review

c) Inspection

d) Walkthrough

Select ONE option.

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38. Which of the following statements about static testing are MOST true?

a) Static testing is a cheap way to detect and remove defects

b) Static testing makes dynamic testing less challenging

c) Static testing makes it possible to find run-time problems early in the lifecycle

d) When testing safety-critical system, static testing has less value because dynamic testing finds the defects better

Select ONE options.

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39. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an incremental development model?

a) Defining requirements, designing software and testing are done in phases where in each phase a piece of the system is added

b) A phase in the development process should begin when the previous phase is complete

c) Testing is viewed as a separate phase which takes place after development has been completed

d) Testing is added to development as an increment

Select ONE option.

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40. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY reflects the value of static testing?

a) By introducing reviews, we have found that both the quality of specifications and the time required for development and testing have increased

b) Using static testing means we have better control and cheaper defect management due to the ease of detecting defects later in the lifecycle

c) Now that we require the use of static analysis, missed requirements have decreased and communication between testers and developers has improved

d) Since we started using static analysis, we find coding defects that might have not been found by performing only dynamic testing

Select ONE option.

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