0% 3 12345678910111213141516171819202122232425262728293031323334353637383940 Created on June 25, 2024 By Admin 2018v3.1 - Exam 4 - 75 minutes Name 1 / 40 1. For which of the following situations is exploratory testing suitable? a) When time pressure requires speeding up the execution of tests already specified b) When the system is developed incrementally, and no test charter is available c) When testers are available who have enough knowledge of similar applications and technologies d) When an advanced knowledge of the system already exists, and evidence is to be if it should be tested intensively Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Exploratory testing is not suitable to speed up tests, which are already specified. It is most useful when there are few or inappropriate specified requirements or significant time pressure on testing b) Is not correct. The absence of a test charter, which may have been derived from the test analysis, is a poor precondition for the use of exploratory testing c) Is correct. Exploratory tests should be performed by experienced testers with knowledge of similar applications and technologies d) Is not correct. Explorative testing alone is not suitable to provide evidence that the test was very intensive, instead the evidence is provided in combination with other test methods 2 / 40 2. Which statement about the relationship between statement coverage and decision coverage is true? a) 100% decision coverage also guarantees 100% statement coverage b) 100% statement coverage also guarantees 100% decision coverage c) 50% decision coverage also guarantees 50% statement coverage d) Decision coverage can never reach 100% Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. The statement is true. Achieving 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage b) Is not correct. The statement is false because achieving 100 % statement coverage does not in any case mean that the decision coverage is 100% c) Is not correct. The statement is false because we can only do statements about 100% values d) Is not correct. The statement is false 3 / 40 3. Programmers often write and execute unit tests against code which they have written. During this self-testing activity, which of the following is a tester mindset that programmers should adopt to perform this unit testing effectively? a) Good communication skills b) Code coverage c) Evaluating code defects d) Attention to detail Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The programmer appears to be performing unit testing on their own code b) Is not correct. Code coverage is useful for unit testing, but it is not a tester mindset c) Is not correct. The programmer’s mindset included contemplating what might be wrong with the code, but that is not a tester’s mindset d) Is correct. This tester mindset, attention to detail, will help programmers find defects during unit testing 4 / 40 4. A company's employees are paid bonuses if they work more than a year in the company and achieve a target which is individually agreed before. These facts can be shown in a decision table: Which of the following test cases represents a situation that can happen in real life, and is missing in the above decision table? a) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO b) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= YES c) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO d) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= NO Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. If there was no agreement on targets, it is impossible to reach the targets. Since this situation can´t occur, this is not a scenario happening in reality b) Is not correct. The test case is objectively wrong, since under these conditions no bonus is paid because the agreed target was not reached c) Is not correct. There was no agreement on targets, it is impossible to reach the targets. Since this situation can´t occur, this is not a scenario happening in reality d) Is correct. The test case describes the situation that the too short period of employment and the non-fulfilment of the agreed target leads to non-payment of the bonus. This situation can occur in practice but is missing in the decision table 5 / 40 5. You are working as a tester on an Agile team and have participated in over two dozen user story refinement sessions with the product owner and the developers on the team at the start of each iteration. As the reviews have gotten more effective at detecting defects in user stories and the product owner more proficient at correcting those defects, you and the team notice that the team’s velocity, as shown in your burndown charts, has started to increase. Which of the following is a benefit of static testing that is MOST DIRECTLY related to the team’s increased velocity? a) Increasing total cost of quality b) Reducing testing cost c) Increasing development productivity d) Reducing total cost of quality Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Reviews reduce, not increase, the total cost of quality b) Is not correct. Increasing velocity is a sign of increasing development productivity overall, not just testing, so B only partially applies c) Is correct. Velocity is a way of measuring productivity in Agile development d) Is not correct. The benefit mentioned here has to do with increasing overall development team productivity 6 / 40 6. Which one of the following is the characteristic of a metrics-based approach for test estimation? a) Budget which was used by a previous similar test project b) Overall experience collected in interviews with test managers c) Estimation of effort for test automation agreed in the test team d) Average of calculations collected from business experts Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. The metrics-based approach: estimating the testing effort based on metrics of former similar projects or based on typical values b) Is not correct. This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the owners of the tasks or by experts c) Is not correct. This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the responsible team of the tasks or by experts d) Is not correct. This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the owners of the tasks or by experts 7 / 40 7. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independent testing? a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team, so ensuring everyone is aware that quality is the test team’s overall responsibility b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines c) An independent test team can work totally separately from the developers, need not be distracted with changing project requirements, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Quality should be the responsibility of everyone working on the project and not the sole responsibility of the test team b) Is not correct. First, it is not a benefit if an external test team does not meet delivery deadlines, and second, there is no reason to believe that external test teams will feel they do not have to meet strict delivery deadlines c) Is not correct. It is bad practice for the test team to work in complete isolation, and we would expect an external test team to be concerned with changing project requirements and communicate well with developers d) Is correct. Specifications are never perfect, meaning that assumptions will have to be made by the developer. An independent tester is useful in that they can challenge and verify the assumptions and subsequent interpretation made by the developer 8 / 40 8. Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT? a) With the metrics-based approach, the estimate is based on test measures from the project and so this estimate is only available after the testing starts b) With the expert-based approach, a group of expert users identified by the client recommends the necessary testing budget c) With the expert-based approach, the test managers responsible for the different testing activities predict the expected testing effort d) With the metrics-based approach, an average of the testing costs recorded from several past projects is used as the testing budget Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Estimates may be updated as more information becomes available, but estimates are needed to assist with planning before the testing starts b) Is not correct. In the expert-based approach, the experts need to be experts in testing, not in using the test object c) Is correct. Test Managers, who will be leading testers doing the testing, are considered experts in their respective areas and suitable for estimating the necessary resources needed d) Is not correct. While it is useful to know the testing costs from previous projects, a more sophisticated approach is needed than simply taking an average of past projects (the new project may not be like the previous projects, e.g., it may be far larger or far smaller than previous projects) 9 / 40 9. Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review? a) Manager – Decides on the execution of reviews b) Review Leader - Ensures effective running of review meetings c) Scribe – Fixes defects in the work product under review d) Moderator – Monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. The management decides about performing the review b) Is not correct. The moderator, not the review leader should ensure the effective running of review meetings c) Is not correct. The author fixes the work product under review d) Is not correct. The manager monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness 10 / 40 10. Which of the following should NOT be a trigger for maintenance testing? a) Decision to test the maintainability of the software b) Decision to test the system after migration to a new operating platform c) Decision to test if archived data is possible to be retrieved d) Decision to test after “hot fixes” Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. This is maintainability testing, not maintenance testing b) Is not correct. This is a trigger for maintenance testing: Operational tests of the new environment as well as of the changed software c) Is not correct. This is the trigger for maintenance testing: testing restore/retrieve procedures after archiving for long retention periods d) Is not correct. This is the trigger for maintenance testing: Reactive modification of a delivered software product to correct emergency defects that have caused actual failures 11 / 40 11. Mr. Test has been testing software applications on mobile devices for a period of 5 years. He has a wealth of experience in testing mobile applications and achieves better results in a shorter time than others. Over several months, Mr. Test did not modify the existing automated test cases and did not create any new test cases. This leads to fewer and fewer defects being found by executing the tests. What principle of testing did Mr. Test not observe? a) Testing depends on the environment b) Exhaustive testing is not possible c) Repeating of same tests will not find new defects d) Defects cluster together Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Testing is context dependent, regardless of it being manual or automated (principle #6), but does not result in detecting a decreasing number of faults as described above b) Is not correct. Exhaustive testing is impossible, regardless of the amount of effort put into testing (principle #2) c) Is correct. Principle #5 says “If the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually these tests no longer find any new defects. To detect new defects, existing tests and test data may need changing, and new tests may need to be written.” Automated regression testing of the same test cases will not bring new findings d) Is not correct. ”Defect cluster together” (principle #4). A small number of modules usually contain most of the defects, but this does not mean that fewer and fewer defects will be found 12 / 40 12. You are working on a video game development project, using Agile methods. It is based on Greek mythology and history, and players can play key roles in scenarios such as the battles between the Greeks and Trojans. Consider the following user story and its associated acceptance criteria: As a player, I want to be able to acquire the Rod of Midas (a new magic object), so that I can turn objects and other players into gold AC1: The Rod must work on any object or player, no matter what size, which can be touched anywhere by the player holding the Rod AC2: Holding the Rod does not change the player holding it into gold AC3: Any object or player touched by the Rod transforms completely into gold within one millisecond AC4: The Rod appears as shown in Prototype O.W.RoM AC5: The transformation starts at the point of contact with the Rod and moves at a rate of one meter per millisecond You are participating in a checklist-based review session of this user story. This user story and its associated acceptance criteria contain which of the following typical defects identified by static testing in this type of work product? a) Deviation from standards b) Contradiction c) Security vulnerability d) Coverage gaps Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While deviation from standards is a typical, we are not given any standard with which the user stories should comply b) Is correct. Contradiction is a typical requirements defect. AC3 and AC5 conflict if the Rod is touched to an object that extends more than 1 meter in any direction from the point at which touched, since AC1 does not limit the size of the objects to be touched c) Is not correct. While security vulnerabilities are typical defects, there is nothing here related to security d) Is not correct. While test coverage gaps are typical defects, including missing tests for acceptance criteria, we are not provided with any information about which tests do and do not exist 13 / 40 13. Given the following test activities and test tools: 1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis 2. Test execution and logging 3. Management of testing and testware 4. Test design A. Code coverage tools B. Dynamic analysis tools C. Test data preparation tools D. Defect management tools Which of the following BEST matches the activities and tools? a) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A b) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D c) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C d) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – C Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The correct pairings of test activities and test tools are: 1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis – (b) Dynamic analysis tools 2. Test execution and logging – (a) Code coverage tools 3. Management of testing and testware – (d) Defect management tools 4. Test design – (c) Test data preparation tools Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is correct d) Is not correct 14 / 40 14. Which of the following is an example of a task that can be carried out as part of the test process? a) Analyzing a defect b) Designing test data c) Assigning a version to a test item d) Writing a user story Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Analyzing a defect is part of debugging, not testing b) Is correct. Creating test data is a test implementation task c) Is not correct. While a tester may need to identify a test item’s version for results reporting purposes, assigning a test item’s version is part of configuration management d) Is not correct. Writing a user story is not a testing activity and should be done by the product owner 15 / 40 15. Which of the following options are roles in a formal review? a) Developer, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Tester b) Author, Moderator, Manager, Reviewer, Developer c) Author, Manager, Review leader, Reviewer, Designer d) Author, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Scribe Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Tester and developer are NOT roles in a formal review b) Is not correct. Developer is NOT a role in a formal review c) Is not correct. Designer is NOT a role in a formal review d) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers 16 / 40 16. In what way can testing be part of Quality Assurance? a) It ensures that requirements are detailed enough b) Testing reduces the risk of poor software quality c) It ensures that standards in the organization are followed d) It measures the quality of software in terms of number of executed test cases Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Static testing (reviews) contributes, but could not ensure, that requirements are detailed enough b) Is correct. Testing contributes to the achievement of quality in a variety of ways, e.g., such as reducing the risk of inadequate software quality c) Is not correct. This is quality assurance but not testing d) Is not correct. The quality cannot be measured by counting the number of executed test cases without knowing the outcome 17 / 40 17. Which of the following provides the definition of the term test case? a) Subset of the value domain of a variable within a component or system in which all values are expected to be treated the same based on the specification b) A set of preconditions, inputs, actions, expected results and post conditions, developed based on test conditions c) Work products produced during the test process for use in planning, designing, executing, evaluating, and reporting on testing d) A source to determine an expected result to compare with the actual result of the system under test Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Based on definition of equivalence partition b) Is correct. Based on definition from Glossary c) Is not correct. Based on Glossary definition of testware d) Is not correct. Based on definition of test oracle 18 / 40 18. As a test manager you are responsible for testing the following parts of requirements: • R1 - Process anomalies • R2 - Synchronization • R3 - Approval • R4 - Problem solving • R5 - Financial data • R6 - Diagram data • R7 - Changes to the user profile Notation: Logical requirement dependencies (A -> B means, that B depends on A): Which one of the following options structures the test execution schedule according to the requirement dependencies? a) R1 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 b) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R4 ; R7 ; R5 ; R6 c) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R4 ; R7 d) R1 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. R4 is dependent on R2, so R2 should be tested before R4 b) Is not correct. R4 is dependent on R2, R5 and R6, so R5 and R6 should be tested before R4 c) Is correct. The tests are specified in a sequence that takes the dependencies into account d) Is not correct. R2 is dependent on R3, so R3 should be tested before R2 19 / 40 19. Which of the following is MOST likely to be used as a reason for using a pilot project to introduce a tool into an organization? a) The need to evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices and determining what would need to change b) The need to evaluate the test automation skills and training, mentoring and coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool c) The need to evaluate whether the tool provides the required functionality and does not duplicate existing test tools d) The need to evaluate the tool vendor in terms of the training and other support they provide Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct b) Is not correct. The evaluation of the test automation skills and training, mentoring and coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool should have been performed as part of the tool selection activity c) Is not correct. The decision on whether the tool provides the required functionality and does not duplicate existing tools should have been performed as part of the tool selection activity d) Is not correct. The evaluation of the tool vendor in terms of the training and other support they provide should have been performed as part of the tool selection activity 20 / 40 20. Which of the following statements comparing component testing and system testing is TRUE? a) Component testing verifies the functionality of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system b) Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications or use cases c) Component testing only focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics d) Component testing is the responsibility of the testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. System testing does not test interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system; this is a target of integration tests b) Is correct. Examples of work products that can be used as a test basis for component testing include detailed design, code, data model, component specifications. Examples of work products for system testing include system and software requirement specifications (functional and non-functional) use cases c) Is not correct. Component testing does not ONLY focus on functional characteristics d) Is not correct. Component tests are also executed by developers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of (independent) testers 21 / 40 21. Consider the following testing activities: 1. Selecting regression tests 2. Evaluating completeness of test execution 3. Identifying which user stories have open defect reports 4. Evaluating whether the number of tests for each requirement is consistent with the level of product risk Consider the following ways traceability can help testing: A. Improve understandability of test status reports to include status of test basis items B. Make testing auditable C. Provide information to assess process quality D. Analyze the impact of changes Which of the following best matches the testing activity with how traceability can assist that activity? a) 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A b) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C c) 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B d) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Traceability assists with: • Selecting regression tests in terms of analyzing the impact of changes (1D) • Evaluating completeness of test execution which makes testing auditable (2B) • Identifying which user stories have open defect reports which improves understandability of test status reports to include status of test basis items (3A) • Evaluating whether the number of tests for each requirement is consistent with the level of product risk which provides information to assess test process quality (i.e., alignment of test effort with risk) (4C) Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 22 / 40 22. Given that the testing being performed has the following attributes: • Based on interface specifications • Focused on finding failures in communication • The test approach uses both functional and structural test types Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed? a) Integration testing b) Acceptance testing c) System testing d) Component testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering the scenario: 1. ‘testing is based on interface specifications’ – the test basis for integration testing includes interface specifications (along with communication protocol specification), while these are not included for any of the other test levels 2. ‘testing is focused on finding failures in communication’ - failures in the communication between tested components is included as a typical failure for integration testing, but failures in communication is not included for any of the other test levels 3. ‘the test approach uses both functional and structural test types’ - functional and structural test types are both included as possible approaches for integration testing, and would also be appropriate for any of the other test levels, although they are only otherwise explicitly mentioned in the syllabus for system testing Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 23 / 40 23. You are testing a mobile app that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. You are running a test suite that involves evaluating each screen and each field on each screen against a general list of user interface best practices, derived from a popular book on the topic, that maximize attractiveness, ease-of-use, and accessibility for such apps. Which of the following options BEST categorizes the test technique you are using? a) Specification-based b) Exploratory c) Checklist-based d) Error guessing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The book provides general guidance, and is not a formal requirements document, a specification, or a set of use cases, user stories, or business processes b) Is not correct. While you could consider the list as a set of test charters, it more closely resembles the list of test conditions c) Is correct. The list of user interface best practices is the list of test conditions d) Is not correct. The tests are not focused on failures that could occur, but rather on knowledge about what is important for the user, in terms of usability 24 / 40 24. Which of the following statements about test types and test levels is CORRECT? a) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing b) Functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component testing c) It is possible to perform functional, non-functional and white-box testing at any test level d) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level - so, although it is correct that functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels, it is incorrect to state that white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing b) Is not correct. It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level - so, it is incorrect to state that white-box testing is restricted to component testing c) Is correct. It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level d) Is not correct. It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level - so, it is incorrect to state that white-box testing is restricted to component testing and integration testing 25 / 40 25. You are working as a project manager on an in-house banking software project. To prevent rework and excessive find/fix/retest cycles, the following process has been put in place for resolving a defect once it is found in the test lab: 1. The assigned developer finds and fixes the defect, then creates an experimental build 2. A peer developer reviews, unit tests, and confirmation tests the defect fix on his/her desktop 3. A tester – usually the one who found the defect – confirmation tests the defect fix in the development environment 4. Once a day, a new release with all confirmed defect fixes included, is installed in the test environment 5. The same tester from step 3 confirmation tests the defect fix in the test environment Nevertheless, a large number of defects which the testers confirmed as fixed in the development environment (in step 3) are somehow failing confirmation testing in the test environment, with the resulting rework and cycle time outcomes. You have the highest confidence in your testers and have ruled out mistakes or omissions in step 3. Which of the following is the MOST likely part of the process to check next? a) The activity of developers, who may not be adequately testing in step 2 b) The activity of testers, who may be confused about what to test in step 5 c) Configuration management, which may not be maintaining the integrity of the product in step 4 d) The activity of developers, who may not be fixing defects properly in step 1 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. If inadequate developer testing were the problem, the confirmation test would not pass in step 3 b) Is not correct. The same tester who successfully performed the confirmation test in step 3 is repeating it in step 5 c) Is correct. Configuration management maintains the integrity of the software. If a test that passes in step 3 fails in step 5, then something is different between those two steps. One possible difference is the test object, the option listed here. Another possible difference is the between the development environment and the test environment, but that is not an option listed here d) Is not correct. If the developers were not fixing the defect, the confirmation test would not pass in step 3 26 / 40 26. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes: • There is a role of a scribe • The purpose is to detect potential defects • The review meeting is led by the author • Reviewers find potential defects by individual review • A review report is produced Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used? a) Informal Review b) Walkthrough c) Technical Review d) Inspection Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering the attributes: • There is a role of a scribe – specified for walkthroughs, technical reviews, and inspections; thus, the reviews being performed cannot be informal reviews • The purpose is to detect potential defects – the purpose of detecting potential defects is specified for all types of review. • The review meeting is led by the author – this is not allowed for inspections and is typically not the author for technical reviews, but is part of walkthroughs, and allowed for informal reviews • Reviewers find potential issues by individual review - all types of reviews can include individual review (even informal reviews) • A review report is produced - all types of reviews can produce a review report, although it would be less likely for an informal review Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 27 / 40 27. Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester? a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and set the tools usage guidelines b) The test manager plans, coordinates, and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides on the release of the test object d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester executes the tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Selection of tools is a test manager task b) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers c) Is not correct. The tester does not decide on the release of the test object d) Is not correct. The tester specifies the test cases, the test manager does the prioritization 28 / 40 28. A mass market operating system software product is designed to run on any PC hardware with an x86-family processor. You are running a set of tests to look for defects related to support of the various PCs that use such a processor and to build confidence that important PC brands will work. What type of test are you performing? a) Performance test b) Processor test c) Functional test d) Portability test Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The test described is a non-functional test, it is a portability test, not a performance test b) Is not correct. Processor test is not a defined test type c) Is not correct. The test described is a non-functional test, specifically a portability test d) Is correct. Testing supported devices is a non-functional test, specifically a portability test 29 / 40 29. As a result of risk analysis, more testing is being directed to those areas of the system under test where initial testing found more defects than average. Which of the following testing principles is being applied? a) Beware of the pesticide paradox b) Testing is context dependent c) Absence-of-errors is a fallacy d) Defects cluster together Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. ‘Beware of the pesticide paradox’ is concerned with re-running the same tests and their fault-finding effectiveness decreasing b) Is not correct. This testing principle is concerned with performing testing differently based on the context (e.g., games vs safety-critical) c) Is not correct. This testing principle is concerned with the difference between a tested and fixed system and a validated system. No ‘errors’ does not mean the system is fit for use d) Is correct. If clusters of defects are identified (areas of the system containing more defects than average), then testing effort should be focused on these areas 30 / 40 30. Which of the following is a typical objective of testing? a) To find defects and failures b) To validate the project plan works as required c) Ensuring of complete testing d) Comparing actual results with expected results Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. One of the major objectives of testing b) Is not correct. Validation of the project plan would be a project management activity c) Is not correct. Contradiction to principle #2; complete/exhaustive testing is not possible d) Is not correct. “Comparing actual results with expected results” is a test performing activity, but not a test objective 31 / 40 31. Which of the following is a typical test objective? a) Preventing defects b) Repairing defects c) Comparing actual results to expected results d) Analyzing the cause of failure Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. This is an objective listed b) Is not correct. This is debugging c) Is not correct. This is an activity within the test execution group of activities within the test process d) Is not correct. This is part of debugging 32 / 40 32. Which of the following provides the BEST description of exploratory testing? a) A testing practice in which an in-depth investigation of the background of the test object is used to identify potential weaknesses that are examined by test cases b) An approach to testing whereby the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests c) An approach to test design in which test activities are planned as uninterrupted sessions of test analysis and design, often used in conjunction with checklist-based testing d) Testing based on the tester's experience, knowledge, and intuition Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Exploratory testing is often carried out when timescales are short, so making in-depth investigations of the background of the test object is unlikely b) Is correct. Glossary definition c) Is not correct. Based on the Glossary definition of session-based testing, but with test execution replaced by test analysis d) Is not correct. Glossary definition of experience-based testing 33 / 40 33. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the unit’s field is 0.1 units. Which of the following is a set of input values that cover the boundary values with two-point boundary values for this field? a) 0.3, 10.0, 28.0 b) 0.4, 0.5, 0.6, 24, 9, 25, 0, 25.1 c) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0 25.1 d) 0.5, 0.6, 24.9, 25.0 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There are three equivalence partitions, with the boundaries as shown: • Invalid too low (0.4 and below) • Valid (0.5 to 25.0) • Invalid too high (25.1 and above) Thus: a) Is not correct. None of those four boundary values are included in this set of tests. These tests do cover the equivalence partitions b) Is not correct. All these four boundary values are included in this set of tests, but two additional values are included, one for each boundary. These are the values associated with three-point boundary value analysis c) Is correct. Each of those four two-point boundary values are included in this set of tests d) Is not correct. These four values are all included in the valid partition 34 / 40 34. During a period of intensive project overtime, a system architecture document is sent to various project participants, announcing a previously unplanned technical review to occur in one week. No adjustments are made to the participants’ list of assigned tasks. Based on this information alone, which of the following is a factor for review success that is MISSING? a) Appropriate review type b) Adequate time to prepare c) Sufficient metrics to evaluate the author d) Well-managed review meeting Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Technical reviews are appropriate for technical documents such as a system architecture b) Is correct. Adequate time for preparation is important, but people are working overtime and no adjustments are made for this new set of tasks c) Is not correct. Gathering metrics from a review to evaluate participants is a factor that leads to failure, not success, because it destroys trust d) Is not correct. A well-managed review meeting is important, but there is no reason to think the review meeting will not be well managed based on the information provided 35 / 40 35. Which of the following is a true statement about exploratory testing? a) More experienced testers who have tested similar applications and technologies are likely to do better than less experienced testers at exploratory testing b) Exploratory testing does not identify any additional tests beyond those that would result from formal test techniques c) The time required to complete an exploratory testing session cannot be predicted in advance d) Exploratory testing can involve the use of black-box techniques but not white-box techniques Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Exploratory testing is a form of experience-based testing, which benefits from the skills and experience of the tester b) b) Is not correct. Exploratory testing is useful to complement formal testing techniques c) Is not correct. In session-based test management, exploratory testing is conducted within a defined time-box, and the tester uses a test charter containing test objectives to guide the testing d) Is not correct. Exploratory testing can incorporate the use of other black-box, white-box, and experience-based techniques referenced in this syllabus 36 / 40 36. A tester participated in a discussion about proposed database structure. The tester identified a potential performance problem related to certain common user searches. This possible problem was explained to the development team. Which of the following is a testing contribution to success that BEST matches this situation? a) Enabling required tests to be identified at an early stage b) Ensuring processes are carried out properly c) Reducing the risk of fundamental design defects d) Reducing the risk of untestable functionality Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While enabling required tests to be identified in an early stage is a testing contribution to success, there is no indication in the question that the tester did so b) Is not correct. Ensuring processes are carried out properly is part of quality assurance, not a testing contribution to success c) Is correct. Reducing the risk of fundamental design defects is a testing contribution to success. Database structure is related to design, and performance problems can be a significant product risk d) Is not correct. While reducing the risk of untestable functionality is a testing contribution to success, the tester here has not identified something untestable, but rather something that would result in performance tests failing 37 / 40 37. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes a role of impact analysis in Maintenance Testing? a) Impact analysis is used when deciding if a fix to a maintained system is worthwhile b) Impact analysis is used to identify how data should be migrated into the maintained system c) Impact analysis is used to decide which hot fixes are of most value to the user d) Impact analysis is used to determine the effectiveness of new maintenance test cases Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Impact analysis may be used to identify those areas of the system that will be affected by the fix, and so the extent of the impact (e.g., necessary regression testing) can be used when deciding if the change is worthwhile b) Is not correct. Although testing migrated data is part of maintenance testing (see conversion testing), impact analysis does not identify how this is done c) Is not correct. Impact analysis shows which parts of a system are affected by a change, so it can show the difference between different hot fixes in terms of the impact on the system, however it does not give any indication of the value of the changes to the user d) Is not correct. Impact analysis shows which parts of a system are affected by a change; it cannot provide an indication of the effectiveness of test cases 38 / 40 38. How can white-box testing be applied during user acceptance testing? a) To check if large volumes of data can be transferred between integrated systems b) To check if all code statements and code decision paths have been executed c) To check if all work process flows have been covered d) To cover all web page navigations Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Relevant for integration testing b) Is not correct. Relevant for component testing c) Is correct. For acceptance testing, tests are designed to cover all workflows defined in the functional requirements documents. d) Is not correct. Relevant for system testing 39 / 40 39. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units. Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field? a) 10.0, 28.0 b) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1 c) 0.2, 0.9, 29.5 d) 12.3 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There are three equivalence partitions, with the boundaries as shown: • Invalid too low (0.4 and below) • Valid (0.5 to 25.0) • Invalid too high (25.1 and above) Thus: a) Is not correct. Only two of the equivalence partitions are covered in this set of tests b) Is not correct. Each of those four boundary values are included in this set of tests, but the question asked for equivalence partition coverage with minimal tests, so either 0.5 or 25.0 should be dropped c) Is correct. Each of these three equivalence partitions are covered in this set of tests d) Is not correct. Only one of those equivalence partitions is covered by this test 40 / 40 40. Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case? a) Test cases are created to exercise defined basic, exceptional and error behaviors performed by the system under test in collaboration with actors b) Test cases are derived by identifying the components included in the use case and creating integration tests that exercise the interactions of these components c) Test cases are generated by analyzing the interactions of the actors with the system to ensure the user interfaces are easy to use d) Test cases are derived to exercise each of the decision points in the business process flows of the use case, to achieve 100% decision coverage of these flows Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. This explains that each use case specifies some behavior that a subject can perform in collaboration with one or more actors. It also (later) explains that tests are designed to exercise the defined behaviors (basic, exceptional and errors) b) Is not correct. Use cases normally specify requirements, and so do not ‘include’ the components that will implement them c) Is not correct. Tests based on use cases do exercise interactions between the actor and the system, but they are focused on the functionality and do not consider the ease of use of user interfaces d) Is not correct. Tests do cover the use case paths through the use case, but there is no concept of decision coverage of these paths, and certainly not of business process flows 0% Restart quiz
