0% 3 12345678910111213141516171819202122232425262728293031323334353637383940 Created on June 25, 2024 By Admin 2018v3.1 - Exam 4 - 75 minutes Name 1 / 40 1. Which of the following provides the BEST description of exploratory testing? a) A testing practice in which an in-depth investigation of the background of the test object is used to identify potential weaknesses that are examined by test cases b) An approach to testing whereby the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests c) An approach to test design in which test activities are planned as uninterrupted sessions of test analysis and design, often used in conjunction with checklist-based testing d) Testing based on the tester's experience, knowledge, and intuition Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Exploratory testing is often carried out when timescales are short, so making in-depth investigations of the background of the test object is unlikely b) Is correct. Glossary definition c) Is not correct. Based on the Glossary definition of session-based testing, but with test execution replaced by test analysis d) Is not correct. Glossary definition of experience-based testing 2 / 40 2. Which one of the following is the characteristic of a metrics-based approach for test estimation? a) Budget which was used by a previous similar test project b) Overall experience collected in interviews with test managers c) Estimation of effort for test automation agreed in the test team d) Average of calculations collected from business experts Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. The metrics-based approach: estimating the testing effort based on metrics of former similar projects or based on typical values b) Is not correct. This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the owners of the tasks or by experts c) Is not correct. This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the responsible team of the tasks or by experts d) Is not correct. This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the owners of the tasks or by experts 3 / 40 3. Which of the following is a defect rather than a root cause in a fitness tracker? a) Because the author of the requirements was unfamiliar with the domain of fitness training, he therefore wrongly assumed that users wanted heartbeat in beats per hour b) The tester of the smartphone interface had not been trained in state transition testing, so missed a major defect c) An incorrect configuration variable implemented for the GPS function could cause location problems during daylight saving times d) Because the designer had never worked on wearable devices before, she as designer of the user interface therefore misunderstood the effects of reflected sunlight Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The lack of familiarity of the requirements author with the fitness domain is a root cause b) Is not correct. The lack of training of the tester in state transition testing was one of the root causes of the defect (the developer presumably created the defect, as well) c) Is correct. The incorrect configuration data represents faulty software in the fitness tracker (a defect), that may cause failures d) Is not correct. The lack of experience in designing user interfaces for wearable devices is a typical example of a root cause of a defect 4 / 40 4. Which of the following statements on the use of checklists in a formal review is CORRECT? a) As part of the review planning, the reviewers create the checklists needed for the review b) As part of the issue communication, the reviewers fill in the checklists provided for the review c) As part of the review meeting, the reviewers create defect reports based on the checklists provided for the review d) As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists needed for the review Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. During planning it is decided whether checklists are used. The preparation of the checklists is not part of the planning. In addition, the reviewers are neither involved in the planning, nor responsible for the creation of the checklists b) Is not correct. During issue communication, any potential defects that have been identified in the individual review are communicated. The completion of checklists by the reviewers already takes place, if at all, during individual review c) Is not correct. During review session, the reviewers communicate any potential defects of the work product that they did identify during the individual review. Defect reports are only created during the fixing and reporting activity d) Is correct. Initiating the review (“Kick-off”) involves distributing the work product and other materials, like checklists 5 / 40 5. Given the following test activities and test tools: 1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis 2. Test execution and logging 3. Management of testing and testware 4. Test design A. Code coverage tools B. Dynamic analysis tools C. Test data preparation tools D. Defect management tools Which of the following BEST matches the activities and tools? a) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A b) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D c) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C d) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – C Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The correct pairings of test activities and test tools are: 1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis – (b) Dynamic analysis tools 2. Test execution and logging – (a) Code coverage tools 3. Management of testing and testware – (d) Defect management tools 4. Test design – (c) Test data preparation tools Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is correct d) Is not correct 6 / 40 6. Which of the following should NOT be a trigger for maintenance testing? a) Decision to test the maintainability of the software b) Decision to test the system after migration to a new operating platform c) Decision to test if archived data is possible to be retrieved d) Decision to test after “hot fixes” Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. This is maintainability testing, not maintenance testing b) Is not correct. This is a trigger for maintenance testing: Operational tests of the new environment as well as of the changed software c) Is not correct. This is the trigger for maintenance testing: testing restore/retrieve procedures after archiving for long retention periods d) Is not correct. This is the trigger for maintenance testing: Reactive modification of a delivered software product to correct emergency defects that have caused actual failures 7 / 40 7. For which of the following situations is exploratory testing suitable? a) When time pressure requires speeding up the execution of tests already specified b) When the system is developed incrementally, and no test charter is available c) When testers are available who have enough knowledge of similar applications and technologies d) When an advanced knowledge of the system already exists, and evidence is to be if it should be tested intensively Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Exploratory testing is not suitable to speed up tests, which are already specified. It is most useful when there are few or inappropriate specified requirements or significant time pressure on testing b) Is not correct. The absence of a test charter, which may have been derived from the test analysis, is a poor precondition for the use of exploratory testing c) Is correct. Exploratory tests should be performed by experienced testers with knowledge of similar applications and technologies d) Is not correct. Explorative testing alone is not suitable to provide evidence that the test was very intensive, instead the evidence is provided in combination with other test methods 8 / 40 8. A mass market operating system software product is designed to run on any PC hardware with an x86-family processor. You are running a set of tests to look for defects related to support of the various PCs that use such a processor and to build confidence that important PC brands will work. What type of test are you performing? a) Performance test b) Processor test c) Functional test d) Portability test Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The test described is a non-functional test, it is a portability test, not a performance test b) Is not correct. Processor test is not a defined test type c) Is not correct. The test described is a non-functional test, specifically a portability test d) Is correct. Testing supported devices is a non-functional test, specifically a portability test 9 / 40 9. You are working as a tester on an online banking system. Availability is considered one of the top products (quality) risks for the system. You find a reproducible failure that results in customers losing their connections to the bank Web site when transferring funds between common types of accounts and being unable to reconnect for between three and five minutes. Which of the following would be a good summary for a defect report for this failure, one that captures both the essence of the failure and its impact on stakeholders? a) Web server logs show error 0x44AB27 when running test 07.005, which is not an expected error message in /tmp filesystem b) Developers have introduced major availability defect which will seriously upset our customers c) Performance is slow and reliability flaky under load d) Typical funds-transfer transaction results in termination of customer session, with a delay in availability when attempting to reconnect Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While this information is useful for developers, it does not provide managers with a sense of the impact on product quality b) Is not correct. This summary does not provide developers or managers with the necessary information and attacks the developers c) Is not correct. This summary does not provide developers or managers with the necessary information and attacks the developers d) Is correct. This summary gives a good sense of the failure and its impact 10 / 40 10. Which of the following statements about the given state transition diagram and table of test cases is TRUE? a) The given test cases cover both valid and invalid transitions in the state transition diagram b) The given test cases represent all possible valid transitions in the state transition diagram c) The given test cases represent some of the valid transitions in the state transition diagram d) The given test cases represent pairs of transitions in the state transition diagram Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Proposed test case covers all five possible single valid transitions in the given state diagram (S1->S2, S2->S1, S2->S3, S3->S2, and S3->S1). Thus: a) Is not correct. Because no invalid transitions are covered b) Is correct. Because all valid transitions are covered c) Is not correct. Because all valid transitions are covered d) Is not correct. Because the test cases do not have pairs of transitions specified 11 / 40 11. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes: • There is a role of a scribe • The purpose is to detect potential defects • The review meeting is led by the author • Reviewers find potential defects by individual review • A review report is produced Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used? a) Informal Review b) Walkthrough c) Technical Review d) Inspection Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering the attributes: • There is a role of a scribe – specified for walkthroughs, technical reviews, and inspections; thus, the reviews being performed cannot be informal reviews • The purpose is to detect potential defects – the purpose of detecting potential defects is specified for all types of review. • The review meeting is led by the author – this is not allowed for inspections and is typically not the author for technical reviews, but is part of walkthroughs, and allowed for informal reviews • Reviewers find potential issues by individual review - all types of reviews can include individual review (even informal reviews) • A review report is produced - all types of reviews can produce a review report, although it would be less likely for an informal review Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 12 / 40 12. Given the following statements about the relationships between software development activities and test activities in the software development lifecycle: 1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity 2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available 3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding development activity 4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development lifecycle Which of the following CORRECTLY shows which are true and false? a) True – 1, 2; False – 3, 4 b) True – 2, 3; False – 1, 4 c) True – 1, 2, 4; False – 3 d) True – 1, 4; False – 2, 3 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering each statement: 1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity. TRUE 2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available. FALSE – it should start as soon as drafts are available 3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding development activity. FALSE – the analysis and design of tests should start during the corresponding development activity, not the implementation 4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development lifecycle. TRUE Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct 13 / 40 13. Which of the following statements comparing component testing and system testing is TRUE? a) Component testing verifies the functionality of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system b) Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications or use cases c) Component testing only focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics d) Component testing is the responsibility of the testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. System testing does not test interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system; this is a target of integration tests b) Is correct. Examples of work products that can be used as a test basis for component testing include detailed design, code, data model, component specifications. Examples of work products for system testing include system and software requirement specifications (functional and non-functional) use cases c) Is not correct. Component testing does not ONLY focus on functional characteristics d) Is not correct. Component tests are also executed by developers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of (independent) testers 14 / 40 14. Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review? a) Manager – Decides on the execution of reviews b) Review Leader - Ensures effective running of review meetings c) Scribe – Fixes defects in the work product under review d) Moderator – Monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. The management decides about performing the review b) Is not correct. The moderator, not the review leader should ensure the effective running of review meetings c) Is not correct. The author fixes the work product under review d) Is not correct. The manager monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness 15 / 40 15. Which one of the following options is categorized as a black-box test technique? a) A technique based on analysis of the architecture b) A technique checking that the test object is working according to the detailed design c) A technique based on the knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures d) A technique based on formal requirements Select ONE option Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This is a white-box test technique b) Is not correct. This is a white-box test technique c) Is not correct. This is an experience-based test technique d) Is correct. Black-box test techniques are based on an analysis of the appropriate test basis (e.g., formal requirements documents, specifications, use cases, user stories) 16 / 40 16. Consider the following list of undesirable outcomes that could occur on a mobile app development effort: A. Incorrect totals on screens B. Change to acceptance criteria during acceptance testing C. Users find the soft keyboard too hard to use with your app D. System responds too slowly to user input during search string entry E. Testers not allowed to report test results in daily standup meetings Which of the following properly classifies these outcomes as project and product risks? a) Product risks: B, E; Project risks: A, C, D b) Product risks: A, C, D; Project risks: B, E c) Product risks: A, C, D, E Project risks: B d) Product risks: A, C Project risks: B, D, E Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Product risks exist when a work product may fail to satisfy legitimate needs, while project risks are situations that could have a negative impact on the project’s ability to achieve its objectives. So: A. Incorrect totals on screens = product risk B. Change to acceptance criteria during acceptance testing = project risk C. Users find the soft keyboard too hard to use with your app = product risk D. System responds too slowly to user input during search string entry = product risk E. Testers not allowed to report test results in daily standup meetings = project risk Thus: a) Is not correct. This list is entirely backwards b) Is correct c) Is not correct. While E is about product quality and product risks, the failure to communicate test results is a project risk per the syllabus d) Is not correct. Product risks can be functional and non-functional, so d is also a product risk 17 / 40 17. Which of the following qualities is MORE likely to be found in a tester’s mindset rather than in a developer’s? a) A tester´s mindset tends to grow and mature as the tester gains experience b) Ability to see what might go wrong c) Good communication with team members d) Focus on getting all things done Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Both developers and testers gain from experience b) Is correct. Developers are often more interested in designing and building solutions than in contemplating what might be wrong with those solutions c) Is not correct. Both developers and testers should be able to communicate well d) Is not correct. Testers shall focus on the quality, not on the quantity 18 / 40 18. Match the following test work products (1-4) with the right description (A-D). 1. Test suite 2. Test case 3. Test script 4. Test charter A. A set of test scripts to be executed in a specific test run B. A set of instructions for the execution of a test C. Contains expected results D. Documentation of test activities in session-based exploratory testing a) 1A, 2C, 3B, 4D b) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C c) 1A, 2C, 3D, 4B d) 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Glossary defines the following tests as: • Test suite: “A set of test scripts or test procedures to be executed in a specific test run.” (1A) • Test case: “A set of preconditions, inputs, actions (where applicable), expected results and post conditions, developed based on test conditions” (2C) • Test script: “A sequence of instructions for the execution of a test” (3B) • Test charter: “Documentation of test activities in session-based exploratory testing” (4D) Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 19 / 40 19. You are engaged in planning a test effort for a new mobile banking application. As part of estimation, you first meet with the proposed testers and others on the project. The team is well-coordinated and has already worked on similar projects. To verify the resulting estimate, you then refer to some industry averages for testing effort and costs on similar projects, published by a reputable consultant. Which statement accurately describes your estimation approach? a) A simultaneous expert-based and metrics-based approach b) Primarily an expert-based approach, augmented with a metrics-based approach c) Primarily a metrics-based approach, augmented with an expert-based approach d) Primarily planning poker, checked by velocity from burndown charts Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The two methods are used sequentially, not simultaneously b) Is correct. The primary sources of information come from the experienced testers, who are the experts. The consultant’s industry averages augment the original estimate from published metrics c) Is not correct. The expert-based approach is the primary approach, augmented by a metrics-based approach d) Is not correct. We do not know if this project is following Agile methods, and burndown charts do not come from external consultants 20 / 40 20. What is quality? a) Activities focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled b) The degree to which a component or system satisfies the stated and implied needs of its various stakeholders c) The degree to which a component or system protects information and data so that persons or other components or systems have the degree of access appropriate to their types and levels of authorization d) The total costs incurred on quality activities and issues and often split into prevention costs, appraisal costs, internal failure costs and external failure costs Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. This is the Glossary definition of quality assurance b) Is correct. This is the Glossary definition of quality c) Is not correct. This is the Glossary definition of security d) Is not correct. This is the Glossary definition of cost of quality 21 / 40 21. You are testing a mobile app that allows users to find a nearby restaurant, based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (smaller number is high priority), and dependencies, in the following format: Which of the following is a possible test execution schedule that considers both priorities and dependencies? a) 01.001, 01.002, 01.003, 01.005, 01.004 b) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.003, 01.005 c) 01.003, 01.004, 01.002, 01.001, 01.002 d) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.005, 01.003 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Test 01.001 must come first, followed by 01.002, to satisfy dependencies. Afterwards, 01.004 and 01.003 should be run in either order, followed by 01.005, to satisfy priority. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 22 / 40 22. Which of the following statements about static testing are MOST true? a) Static testing is a cheap way to detect and remove defects b) Static testing makes dynamic testing less challenging c) Static testing makes it possible to find run-time problems early in the lifecycle d) When testing safety-critical system, static testing has less value because dynamic testing finds the defects better Select ONE options. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Defects found early are often much cheaper to remove than defects detected later in the lifecycle b) Is not correct. Dynamic testing still has its challenging because they find other types of defects c) Is not correct. This is dynamic testing d) Is not correct. Static testing is important for safety-critical computer systems 23 / 40 23. Which of the following is a true statement about exploratory testing? a) More experienced testers who have tested similar applications and technologies are likely to do better than less experienced testers at exploratory testing b) Exploratory testing does not identify any additional tests beyond those that would result from formal test techniques c) The time required to complete an exploratory testing session cannot be predicted in advance d) Exploratory testing can involve the use of black-box techniques but not white-box techniques Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Exploratory testing is a form of experience-based testing, which benefits from the skills and experience of the tester b) b) Is not correct. Exploratory testing is useful to complement formal testing techniques c) Is not correct. In session-based test management, exploratory testing is conducted within a defined time-box, and the tester uses a test charter containing test objectives to guide the testing d) Is not correct. Exploratory testing can incorporate the use of other black-box, white-box, and experience-based techniques referenced in this syllabus 24 / 40 24. Given the following test activities and tasks: A. Test design B. Test implementation C. Test execution D. Test completion 1. Entering change requests for open defect reports 2. Identifying test data to support the test cases 3. Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data 4. Analyzing discrepancies to determine their cause Which of the following BEST matches the activities with the tasks? a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale The correct pairing of test activities and tasks is: A. Test design – (2) Identifying test data to support the test cases B. Test implementation – (3) Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data C. Test execution – (4) Analyzing discrepancies to determine their cause D. Test completion – (1) Entering change requests for open defect reports Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 25 / 40 25. You are working on a video game development project, using Agile methods. It is based on Greek mythology and history, and players can play key roles in scenarios such as the battles between the Greeks and Trojans. Consider the following user story and its associated acceptance criteria: As a player, I want to be able to acquire the Rod of Midas (a new magic object), so that I can turn objects and other players into gold AC1: The Rod must work on any object or player, no matter what size, which can be touched anywhere by the player holding the Rod AC2: Holding the Rod does not change the player holding it into gold AC3: Any object or player touched by the Rod transforms completely into gold within one millisecond AC4: The Rod appears as shown in Prototype O.W.RoM AC5: The transformation starts at the point of contact with the Rod and moves at a rate of one meter per millisecond You are participating in a checklist-based review session of this user story. This user story and its associated acceptance criteria contain which of the following typical defects identified by static testing in this type of work product? a) Deviation from standards b) Contradiction c) Security vulnerability d) Coverage gaps Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While deviation from standards is a typical, we are not given any standard with which the user stories should comply b) Is correct. Contradiction is a typical requirements defect. AC3 and AC5 conflict if the Rod is touched to an object that extends more than 1 meter in any direction from the point at which touched, since AC1 does not limit the size of the objects to be touched c) Is not correct. While security vulnerabilities are typical defects, there is nothing here related to security d) Is not correct. While test coverage gaps are typical defects, including missing tests for acceptance criteria, we are not provided with any information about which tests do and do not exist 26 / 40 26. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes a role of impact analysis in Maintenance Testing? a) Impact analysis is used when deciding if a fix to a maintained system is worthwhile b) Impact analysis is used to identify how data should be migrated into the maintained system c) Impact analysis is used to decide which hot fixes are of most value to the user d) Impact analysis is used to determine the effectiveness of new maintenance test cases Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. Impact analysis may be used to identify those areas of the system that will be affected by the fix, and so the extent of the impact (e.g., necessary regression testing) can be used when deciding if the change is worthwhile b) Is not correct. Although testing migrated data is part of maintenance testing (see conversion testing), impact analysis does not identify how this is done c) Is not correct. Impact analysis shows which parts of a system are affected by a change, so it can show the difference between different hot fixes in terms of the impact on the system, however it does not give any indication of the value of the changes to the user d) Is not correct. Impact analysis shows which parts of a system are affected by a change; it cannot provide an indication of the effectiveness of test cases 27 / 40 27. Given that the testing being performed has the following attributes: • Based on interface specifications • Focused on finding failures in communication • The test approach uses both functional and structural test types Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed? a) Integration testing b) Acceptance testing c) System testing d) Component testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale Considering the scenario: 1. ‘testing is based on interface specifications’ – the test basis for integration testing includes interface specifications (along with communication protocol specification), while these are not included for any of the other test levels 2. ‘testing is focused on finding failures in communication’ - failures in the communication between tested components is included as a typical failure for integration testing, but failures in communication is not included for any of the other test levels 3. ‘the test approach uses both functional and structural test types’ - functional and structural test types are both included as possible approaches for integration testing, and would also be appropriate for any of the other test levels, although they are only otherwise explicitly mentioned in the syllabus for system testing Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct 28 / 40 28. Which one of the following is the description of statement coverage? a) It is a metric, which is the percentage of test cases that have been executed b) It is a metric, which is the percentage of statements in the source code that have been executed c) It is a metric, which is the number of statements in the source code that have been executed by test cases that are passed d) It is a metric, that gives a true/false confirmation if all statements are covered or not Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Statement coverage measures the percentage of statements exercised by test cases b) Is correct. Statement testing exercises the executable statements in the code. Statement coverage is measured as the number of statements executed by the tests divided by the total number of executable statements in the test object, normally expressed as a percentage c) Is not correct. The coverage does not measure pass/fail d) Is not correct. It is a metric and does not provide true/false statements 29 / 40 29. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and debugging? a) Testing identifies the source of defects; debugging analyzes the defects and proposes prevention activities b) Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects; debugging eliminates the defects, which are the source of failures c) Testing removes faults; but debugging removes defects that cause the faults d) Dynamic testing prevents the causes of failures; debugging removes the failures Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Testing does not identify the source of defects, debugging identifies the source of defects b) Is correct. Dynamic testing can show failures that are caused by defects in the software. Debugging eliminates the defects, which are the source of failures c) Is not correct. Testing does not remove faults, but debugging removes faults, which is synonyms for defects, that may cause the failures d) Is not correct. Dynamic testing does not directly prevent the causes of failures (defects) but detects the presence of defects 30 / 40 30. Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the test manager? a) Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing b) Review tests developed by others c) Prepare and acquire test data d) Analyze, review, and assess requirements, specifications, and models for testability Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. One of the typical tasks of a test manager b) Is not correct. One of the typical tasks of a tester c) Is not correct. One of the typical tasks of a tester d) Is not correct. One of the typical tasks of a tester 31 / 40 31. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of product risk analysis CORRECTLY influencing the testing? a) The potential impact of security flaws has been identified as being particularly high, so security testing has been prioritized ahead of some other testing activities b) Testing has found the quality of the network module to be higher than expected, so additional testing will be performed in that area c) The users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, so additional usability testing is planned for the replacement system d) The time needed to load web pages is crucial to the success of the new website, so an expert in performance testing has been employed for this project Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale This question is looking for bad application of product risk analysis. a) Is not correct. As we are told security flaws have a particularly high impact, their risk level will be higher, and thus we have prioritized the security testing ahead of some other testing. Thus, product risk analysis has influenced the testing properly. b) Is correct. As less defects than expected have been found in the network module, the perceived risk in this area should be lower, and so less testing should be focused on this area, NOT additional testing. Thus, product risk analysis has NOT CORRECTLY influenced the testing in this situation c) Is not correct. Because the users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, there is now high awareness of the risk associated with the user interface, which has resulted in additional usability testing being planned. Thus, product risk analysis has properly influenced the thoroughness and scope of testing d) Is not correct. As the time needed to load web pages has been identified as crucial to the success of the new website, the performance of the website should be considered a risk, and the employment of an expert in performance testing helps to mitigate this risk. Thus, product risk analysis has properly influenced the testing 32 / 40 32. You are defining the process for carrying out product risk analysis as part of each iteration on an Agile project. Which of the following is the proper place to document this process in a test plan? a) Scope of testing b) Approach of testing c) Metrics of testing d) Configuration management of the test object Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While scope is a topic addressed in a test plan, the implementation of a risk-based testing strategy on this project is the approach, so this topic should be addressed in that section b) Is correct. Approach is a topic addressed in a test plan and the implementation of a risk-based testing strategy on this project is the approach c) Is not correct. While metrics for test monitoring and control is a topic addressed in a test plan, the implementation of a risk-based testing strategy on this project is the approach, so this topic should be addressed in that section d) Is not correct. Configuration management is not a topic addressed in a test plan 33 / 40 33. Which one of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test execution tools? a) It is easy to create regression tests b) It is easy to maintain version control of test assets c) It is easy to design tests for security testing d) It is easy to run regression tests Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The benefits are not when creating regressions tests, more in executing them b) Is not correct. This is done by configuration management tools c) Is not correct. This needs specialized tools d) Is correct. Reduction in repetitive manual work (e.g., running regression tests, environment set up/tear down tasks, re-entering the same test data, and checking against coding standards), thus saving time 34 / 40 34. Which one of the following is TRUE? a) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the correction has been successfully implemented, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the correction has no side effects b) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the system is still working in a new environment c) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed d) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the new functionality is working, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. Regression testing does not check successful implementation of corrections and confirmation testing does not check for side effects b) Is not correct. The statement about confirmation testing should be about regression testing c) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers d) Is not correct. Testing new functionality is not regression testing 35 / 40 35. During a project following Agile methods, you find a discrepancy between the developer’s interpretation of an acceptance criteria and the product owner’s interpretation, which you bring up during a user story refinement session. Which of the following is a benefit of test independence exemplified by this situation? a) Recognizing different kinds of failures b) Taking primary responsibility for quality c) Removing a defect early d) Challenging stakeholder assumptions Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While recognizing different kinds of failures is a benefit of tester independence, in the scenario here no code yet exists that can fail, and the problem is that the developer and product owner are both assuming different things about the acceptance criteria b) Is not correct. Developers losing a sense of responsibility for quality is a drawback, not a benefit c) Is not correct. While the effect of the discovery of this disagreement is the earlier removal of the defect, prior to coding, defects can be discovered early by various people, not just independent testers d) Is correct. Challenging stakeholder assumptions is a benefit of tester independence, and here the developer and product owner are both assuming different things about the acceptance criteria 36 / 40 36. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units. Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field? a) 10.0, 28.0 b) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1 c) 0.2, 0.9, 29.5 d) 12.3 Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale There are three equivalence partitions, with the boundaries as shown: • Invalid too low (0.4 and below) • Valid (0.5 to 25.0) • Invalid too high (25.1 and above) Thus: a) Is not correct. Only two of the equivalence partitions are covered in this set of tests b) Is not correct. Each of those four boundary values are included in this set of tests, but the question asked for equivalence partition coverage with minimal tests, so either 0.5 or 25.0 should be dropped c) Is correct. Each of these three equivalence partitions are covered in this set of tests d) Is not correct. Only one of those equivalence partitions is covered by this test 37 / 40 37. Which of the following lists contains only typical exit criteria from testing? a) Reliability measures, test coverage, schedule and status about fixing defect and remaining risks b) Reliability measures, test coverage, degree of tester’s independence and product completeness c) Reliability measures, test coverage, test cost, availability of test environment, time to market and product completeness d) Time to market, remaining defects, tester qualification, availability of testable use cases, test coverage and test cost Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers b) Is not correct. The “degree of tester’s independence” does not play a role in exit criteria c) Is not correct. “Availability of test environment” is an entry criterion d) Is not correct. “The Qualification of Tester” is not a typical exit criterion 38 / 40 38. You are testing a mobile app that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. You are running a test suite that involves evaluating each screen and each field on each screen against a general list of user interface best practices, derived from a popular book on the topic, that maximize attractiveness, ease-of-use, and accessibility for such apps. Which of the following options BEST categorizes the test technique you are using? a) Specification-based b) Exploratory c) Checklist-based d) Error guessing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. The book provides general guidance, and is not a formal requirements document, a specification, or a set of use cases, user stories, or business processes b) Is not correct. While you could consider the list as a set of test charters, it more closely resembles the list of test conditions c) Is correct. The list of user interface best practices is the list of test conditions d) Is not correct. The tests are not focused on failures that could occur, but rather on knowledge about what is important for the user, in terms of usability 39 / 40 39. Which activities are carried out within the planning of a formal review? a) Collection of metrics for the evaluation of the effectiveness of the review b) Answer any questions the participants may have c) Definition and Verification of fulfillment of entry criteria for the review d) Evaluation of the review findings against the exit criteria Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. ‘Collection of metrics’ belongs to the main activity “Fixing and Reporting” b) Is not correct. ‘Answer any question.’ belongs to the main activity “Initiate Review” c) Is correct. The checking of entry criteria takes place in the planning of a formal review d) Is not correct. The evaluation of the review findings against the exit criteria belongs to the main activity “Issue communication and analysis” 40 / 40 40. Which of the following statements is true? a) Impact analysis is useful for confirmation testing during maintenance testing b) Confirmation testing is useful for regression testing during system design c) Impact analysis is useful for regression testing during maintenance testing d) Confirmation testing is useful for impact analysis during maintenance testing Select ONE option. Explanation / Rationale a) Is not correct. While impact analysis is useful during maintenance testing it is not necessary for confirmation testing since confirmation testing is on the intended effects of a bug fix or other change b) Is not correct. Confirmation and regression testing are two separate activities, and confirmation testing is not part of system design c) Is correct. Impact analysis can be used to select regression tests for maintenance testing d) Is not correct. Confirmation testing is not part of impact analysis, though confirmation testing will typically happen during maintenance testing 0% Restart quiz
