Exam 1 – ISTQB Learning

Created on May 25, 2024 By

Admin

Exam 1

Name

1 / 40

1. The following list contains risks that have been identified for a new software product to be developed:

i. Management moves two experienced testers to another project
ii. The system does not comply with functional safety standards
iii. System response time exceeds user requirements
iv. Stakeholders have inaccurate expectations
v. Disabled people have problems when using the system

Which of them are project risks?

a) i, iv are project risks

b) iv, v are project risks

c) i, iii are project risks

d) ii, v are project risks

Select ONE option.

2 / 40

2. Which of the following statements about formal reviews is TRUE?

a) Some reviews do not require more than one role

b) The review process has several activities

c) Documentation to be reviewed is not distributed before the review meeting, with the exception of the work product for specific review types

d) Defects found during the review are not reported since they are not found by dynamic testing

Select ONE option.

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3. Which of the following BEST describes the way acceptance criteria can be documented?

a) Performing retrospectives to determine the actual needs of the stakeholders regarding a given user story

b) Using the given/when/then format to describe an example test condition related to a given user story

c) Using verbal communication to reduce the risk of misunderstanding the acceptance criteria by others

d) Documenting risks related to a given user story in a test plan to facilitate the risk-based testing of a given user story

Select ONE option.

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4. Which of the following statements describe a valid test objective?

a) To prove that there are no unfixed defects in the system under test

b) To prove that there will be no failures after the implementation of the system into production

c) To reduce the risk level of the test object and to build confidence in the quality level

d) To verify that there are no untested combinations of inputs

Select ONE option.

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5. How is the whole team approach present in the interactions between testers and business representatives?

a) Business representatives decide on test automation approaches

b) Testers help business representatives to define test strategy

c) Business representatives are not part of the whole team approach

d) Testers help business representatives to create suitable acceptance tests

Select ONE option.

6 / 40

6. You received the following defect report from the developers stating that the anomaly described in this test report is not reproducible.

Application hangs up
2022-May-03 – John Doe – Rejected
The application hangs up after entering “Test input: $ä” in the Name field on the new user creation screen. Tried to log off, log in with test_admin01 account, same issue. Tried with other test admin accounts, same issue. No error message received; log (see attached) contains fatal error notification. Based on the test case TC-1305, the application should accept the provided input and create the user. Please fix with high priority, this feature is related to REQ-0012, which is a critical new business requirement.

What critical information is MISSING from this test report that would have been useful for the developers?

a) Expected result and actual result

b) References and defect status

c) Test environment and test item

d) Priority and severity

Select ONE option.

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7. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independence of testing?

a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team

b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines

c) An independent test team can work separately from the developers, need not be distracted with project requirement changes, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system

d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer

Select ONE option.

8 / 40

8. Which of the following statements about branch testing is CORRECT?

a) If a program includes only unconditional branches, then 100% branch coverage can be achieved without executing any test cases

b) If the test cases exercise all unconditional branches in the code, then 100% branch coverage is achieved

c) If 100% statement coverage is achieved, then 100% branch coverage is also achieved

d) If 100% branch coverage is achieved, then all decision outcomes in each decision statement in the code are exercised

Select ONE option.

9 / 40

9. Which item correctly identifies a potential risk of performing test automation?

a) It may introduce unknown regressions in production

b) Sufficient efforts to maintain testware may not be properly allocated

c) Testing tools and associated testware may not be sufficiently relied upon

d) It may reduce the time allocated for manual testing

Select ONE option.

10 / 40

10. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent feedback?

a) It improves the test process for future projects

b) It forces customers to prioritize their requirements based on agreed risks

c) It is the only way to measure the quality of changes

d) It helps avoid requirements misunderstandings

Select ONE option.

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11. You are testing a mobile application that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. You are running a test suite that involves evaluating each screen, and each field on each screen, against a general list of user interface best practices derived from a popular book on the topic that maximizes attractiveness, ease-of-use, and accessibility for such applications. Which of the following options BEST categorizes the test technique you are using?

a) Black-box

b) Exploratory

c) Checklist-based

d) Error guessing

Select ONE option.

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12. Which of the following skills (i-v) are the MOST important skills of a tester?

i. Having domain knowledge
ii. Creating a product vision
iii. Being a good team player
iv. Planning and organizing the work of the team
v. Critical thinking

a) ii and iv are important

b) i, iii and v are important

c) i, ii and v are important

d) iii and iv are important

Select ONE option.

13 / 40

13. You have been assigned as a tester to a team producing a new system incrementally. You have noticed that no changes have been made to the existing regression test cases for several iterations and no new regression defects were identified. Your manager is happy, but you are not. Which testing principle explains your skepticism?

a) Tests wear out

b) Absence-of-errors fallacy

c) Defects cluster together

d) Exhaustive testing is impossible

Select ONE option.

14 / 40

14. How do testers add value to iteration and release planning?

a) Testers determine the priority of the user stories to be developed

b) Testers focus only on the functional aspects of the system to be tested

c) Testers participate in the detailed risk identification and risk assessment of user stories

d) Testers guarantee the release of high-quality software through early test design during the release planning

Select ONE option.

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15. A phone ringing in a neighboring cubicle distracts a programmer causing him to improperly program the logic that checks the upper boundary of an input variable. Later, during system testing, a tester notices that this input field accepts invalid input values.

Which of the following correctly describes an incorrectly coded upper bound?

a) The root cause

b) A failure

c) An error

d) A defect

Select ONE option.

16 / 40

16. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the test pyramid?

a) The test pyramid emphasizes having a larger number of tests at the lower test levels

b) The closer to the top of the pyramid, the more formal your test automation should be

c) Usually, component testing and component integration testing are automated using API-based tools

d) For system testing and acceptance testing, the automated tests are typically created using GUI-based tools

Select ONE option.

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17. Which test activity does a data preparation tool support?

a) Test monitoring and control

b) Test analysis and design

c) Test implementation and execution

d) Test completion

Select ONE option.

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18. Your team uses planning poker to estimate the test effort for a newly required feature. There is a rule in your team that if there is no time to reach full agreement and the variation in the results is small, applying rules like “accept the number with the most votes” can be applied.
After two rounds, the consensus was not reached, so the third round was initiated. You can see the test estimation results in the table below.

Which of the following is the BEST example of the next step?

a) The product owner has to step in and make a final decision

b) Accept 13 as the final test estimate as this has most of the votes

c) No further action is needed. Consensus has been reached

d) Remove the new feature from the current release because consensus has not been reached

Select ONE option.

19 / 40

19. What task may management take on during a formal review?

a) Taking overall responsibility for the review

b) Deciding what is to be reviewed

c) Ensuring the effective running of review meetings, and mediating, if necessary

d) Recording review information such as review decisions

Select ONE option.

20 / 40

20. You were given a task to analyze and fix causes of failures in a new system to be released.

Which activity are you performing?

a) Debugging

b) Software testing

c) Requirement elicitation

d) Defect management

Select ONE option.

21 / 40

21. Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing?

a) Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past and typical errors made by developers

b) Error guessing involves using your personal experience of development and the errors you made as a developer

c) Error guessing requires you to imagine that you are the user of the test object and to guess errors the user could make interacting with it

d) Error guessing requires you to rapidly duplicate the development task to identify the sort of errors a developer might make

Select ONE option.

22 / 40

22. Consider the following testware.

Which test activity produces this testware as an output?

a) Test planning

b) Test monitoring and control

c) Test analysis

d) Test design

Select ONE option.

23 / 40

23. Which of the following BEST describe the collaborative approach to user story writing?

a) User stories are created by testers and developers and then accepted by business representatives

b) User stories are created by business representatives, developers, and testers together

c) User stories are created by business representatives and verified by developers and testers

d) User stories are created in a way that they are independent, negotiable, valuable, estimable, small, and testable

Select ONE option.

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24. Consider the following test categories (1-4) and agile testing quadrants (A-D):

1. Usability testing
2. Component testing
3. Functional testing
4. Reliability testing

A. Agile testing quadrant Q1: technology facing, supporting the development team
B. Agile testing quadrant Q2: business facing, supporting the development team
C. Agile testing quadrant Q3: business facing, critique the product
D. Agile testing quadrant Q4: technology facing, critique the product

How do the following test categories map onto the agile testing quadrants?

a) 1C, 2A, 3B, 4D

b) 1D, 2A, 3C, 4B

c) 1C, 2B, 3D, 4A

d) 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A

Select ONE option.

25 / 40

25. Which of the arguments below would you use to convince your manager to organize retrospectives at the end of each release cycle?

a) Retrospectives are very popular these days and clients would appreciate it if we added them to our processes

b) Organizing retrospectives will save the organization money because without them end user representatives do not provide immediate feedback about the product

c) Process weaknesses identified during the retrospective can be analyzed and serve as a to do list for the organization’s continuous process improvement program

d) Retrospectives embrace five values including courage and respect, which are crucial to maintain continuous improvement in the organization

Select ONE option.

26 / 40

26. Which of the following is the BEST example of how traceability supports testing?

a) Performing the impact analysis of a change will give information about the completion of the tests

b) Analyzing the traceability between test cases and test results will give information about the estimated level of residual risk

c) Performing the impact analysis of a change will help selecting the right test cases for regression testing

d) Analyzing the traceability between the test basis, the test objects and the test cases will help in selecting test data to achieve the assumed coverage of the test object

Select ONE option.

27 / 40

27. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes:

• There is the role of a scribe
• The main purpose is to evaluate quality
• The meeting is led by the author of the work product
• There is individual preparation
• A review report is produced

Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used?

a) Informal review

b) Walkthrough

c) Technical review

d) Inspection

Select ONE option.

28 / 40

28. Which of the following are advantages of DevOps?

i. Faster product release and faster time to market
ii. Increases the need for repetitive manual testing
iii. Constant availability of executable software
iv. Reduction in the number of regression tests associated with code refactoring
v. Setting up the test automation framework is inexpensive since everything is automated

a) i, ii, iv are advantages

b) iii, v are advantages

c) i, iii are advantages

d) ii, iv, v are advantages

Select ONE option.

29 / 40

29. Your test suite achieved 100% statement coverage. What is the consequence of this fact?

a) Each instruction in the code that contains a defect has been executed at least once

b) Any test suite containing more test cases than your test suite will also achieve 100% statement coverage

c) Each path in the code has been executed at least once

d) Every combination of input values has been tested at least once

Select ONE option.

30 / 40

30. You need to update one of the automated test scripts to be in line with a new requirement. Which process indicates that you create a new version of the test script in the test repository?

a) Traceability management

b) Maintenance testing

c) Configuration management

d) Requirements engineering

Select ONE option.

31 / 40

31. Which TWO of the following options are common metrics used for reporting on the quality level of the test object?

a) Number of defects found during system testing

b) Total effort on test design divided by the number of designed test cases

c) Number of executed test procedures

d) Number of defects found divided by the size of a work product

e) Time needed to repair a defect

Select TWO options.

32 / 40

32. Your favorite bicycle daily rental store has just introduced a new Customer Relationship Management system and asked you, one of their most loyal members, to test it.
The implemented features are as follows:

• Anyone can rent a bicycle, but members receive a 20% discount
• However, if the return deadline is missed, the discount is no longer available
• After 15 rentals, members get a gift: a T-Shirt

Decision table describing the implemented features looks as follows:

Based ONLY on the feature description of the Customer Relationship Management system, which of the above rules describes an impossible situation?

a) R4

b) R2

c) R6

d) R8

Select ONE option.

33 / 40

33. Which of the following statements BEST describes the acceptance test-driven development (ATDD) approach?

a) In ATDD, acceptance criteria are typically created based on the given/when/then format

b) In ATDD, test cases are mainly created at component testing and are code-oriented

c) In ATDD, tests are created, based on acceptance criteria to drive the development of the related software

d) in ATDD, tests are based on the desired behavior of the software, which makes it easier for team members to understand them

Select ONE option.

34 / 40

34. A wine storage system uses a control device that measures the wine cell temperature T (measured in °C, rounded to the nearest degree) and alarms the user if it deviates from the optimal value of 12, according to the following rules:

• if T = 12, the system says, “optimal temperature”

• if T < 12, the system says, “temperature is too low!”

• if T > 12, the system says, “temperature is too high!”

You want to use the 3-point boundary value analysis (BVA) to verify the behavior of the control device. A test input is a temperature in °C provided by the device.

What is the MINIMAL set of test inputs that achieves 100% of the desired coverage?

a) 11, 12, 13

b) 10, 12, 14

c) 10, 11, 12, 13, 14

d) 10, 11, 13, 14

Select ONE option.

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35. Which TWO of the following options are the exit criteria for testing a system?

a) Test environment readiness

b) The ability to log in to the test object by the tester

c) Estimated defect density is reached

d) Requirements are translated into given/when/then format

e) Regression tests are automated

Select TWO options.

36 / 40

36. Which of the following is NOT true for white-box testing?

a) During white-box testing the entire software implementation is considered

b) White-box coverage metrics can help identify additional tests to increase code coverage

c) White-box test techniques can be used in static testing

d) White-box testing can help identify gaps in requirements implementation

Select ONE option.

37 / 40

37. Your organization’s test strategy suggests that once a system is going to be retired, data migration shall be tested. As part of what test type is this testing MOST likely to be performed?

a) Maintenance testing

b) Regression testing

c) Component testing

d) Integration testing

Select ONE option.

38 / 40

38. You are testing a system that calculates the final course grade for a given student.

The final grade is assigned based on the final result, according to the following rules:

• 0 – 50 points: failed
• 51 – 60 points: fair
• 61 – 70 points: satisfactory
• 71 – 80 points: good
• 81 – 90 points: very good
• 91 – 100 points: excellent

You have prepared the following set of test cases:

What is the 2-value Boundary Value Analysis (BVA) coverage for the final result that is achieved with the existing test cases?

a) 50%

b) 60%

c) 33.3%

d) 100%

Select ONE option.

39 / 40

39. Which work product can be used by an agile team to show the amount of work that has been completed and the amount of total work remaining for a given iteration?

a) Acceptance criteria

b) Defect report

c) Test completion report

d) Burndown chart

Select ONE option.

40 / 40

40. In many software organizations the test department is called the Quality Assurance (QA) department. Is this sentence correct or not and why?

a) It is correct. Testing and QA mean exactly the same thing

b) It is correct. These names can be used interchangeably because both testing and QA focus their activities on the same quality issues

c) It is not correct. Testing is something more; testing includes all activities with regard to quality. QA focuses on quality-related processes

d) It is not correct. QA is focused on quality-related processes while testing concentrates on demonstrating that a component or system is fit for purpose and to detect defects

Select ONE option.

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