Exam 1 – ISTQB Learning

Created on May 25, 2024 By

Admin

Exam 1

Name

1 / 40

1. Which test activity does a data preparation tool support?

a) Test monitoring and control

b) Test analysis and design

c) Test implementation and execution

d) Test completion

Select ONE option.

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2. Which of the following statements describe a valid test objective?

a) To prove that there are no unfixed defects in the system under test

b) To prove that there will be no failures after the implementation of the system into production

c) To reduce the risk level of the test object and to build confidence in the quality level

d) To verify that there are no untested combinations of inputs

Select ONE option.

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3. The following is a list of the work products produced in the SDLC.

i. Business requirements
ii. Schedule
iii. Test budget
iv. Third-party executable code
v. User stories and their acceptance criteria

Which of them can be reviewed?

a) i and iv can be reviewed

b) i, ii, iii and iv can be reviewed

c) i, ii, iii, and v can be reviewed

d) iii, iv, v can be reviewed

Select ONE option.

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4. Which of the following is a characteristic of experience-based test techniques?

a) Test cases are created based on detailed design information

b) Items tested within the interface code section are used to measure coverage

c) The techniques heavily rely on the tester’s knowledge of the software and the business domain

d) The test cases are used to identify deviations from the requirements

Select ONE option.

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5. In your project there has been a delay in the release of a brand-new application and test execution started late, but you have very detailed domain knowledge and good analytical skills. The full list of requirements has not yet been shared with the team, but management is asking for some test results to be presented.

Which test technique fits BEST in this situation?

a) Checklist-based testing

b) Error guessing

c) Exploratory testing

d) Branch testing

Select ONE option.

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6. Which of the following statements about branch testing is CORRECT?

a) If a program includes only unconditional branches, then 100% branch coverage can be achieved without executing any test cases

b) If the test cases exercise all unconditional branches in the code, then 100% branch coverage is achieved

c) If 100% statement coverage is achieved, then 100% branch coverage is also achieved

d) If 100% branch coverage is achieved, then all decision outcomes in each decision statement in the code are exercised

Select ONE option.

7 / 40

7. Which TWO of the following tasks belong MAINLY to a testing role?

a) Configure test environments

b) Maintain the product backlog

c) Design solutions to new requirements

d) Create the test plan

e) Report on achieved coverage

Select TWO options.

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8. You are testing a user story with three acceptance criteria: AC1, AC2 and AC3. AC1 is covered by test case TC1, AC2 by TC2, and AC3 by TC3. The test execution history had three test runs on three consecutive versions of the software as follows:

Tests are repeated once you are informed that all defects found in the test run are corrected and a new version of the software is available.
Which of the above tests are executed as regression tests?

a) Only 4, 7, 8, 9

b) Only 5, 7

c) Only 4, 6, 8, 9

d) Only 5, 6

Select ONE option.

9 / 40

9. Consider the following rule: “for every SDLC activity there is a corresponding test activity”. In which SDLC models does this rule hold?

a) Only in sequential SDLC models

b) Only in iterative SDLC models

c) Only in iterative and incremental SDLC models

d) In sequential, incremental, and iterative SDLC models

Select ONE option.

10 / 40

10. You need to update one of the automated test scripts to be in line with a new requirement. Which process indicates that you create a new version of the test script in the test repository?

a) Traceability management

b) Maintenance testing

c) Configuration management

d) Requirements engineering

Select ONE option.

11 / 40

11. Which of the following BEST describes the way acceptance criteria can be documented?

a) Performing retrospectives to determine the actual needs of the stakeholders regarding a given user story

b) Using the given/when/then format to describe an example test condition related to a given user story

c) Using verbal communication to reduce the risk of misunderstanding the acceptance criteria by others

d) Documenting risks related to a given user story in a test plan to facilitate the risk-based testing of a given user story

Select ONE option.

12 / 40

12. Which of the following BEST describe the collaborative approach to user story writing?

a) User stories are created by testers and developers and then accepted by business representatives

b) User stories are created by business representatives, developers, and testers together

c) User stories are created by business representatives and verified by developers and testers

d) User stories are created in a way that they are independent, negotiable, valuable, estimable, small, and testable

Select ONE option.

13 / 40

13. Which of the following are advantages of DevOps?

i. Faster product release and faster time to market
ii. Increases the need for repetitive manual testing
iii. Constant availability of executable software
iv. Reduction in the number of regression tests associated with code refactoring
v. Setting up the test automation framework is inexpensive since everything is automated

a) i, ii, iv are advantages

b) iii, v are advantages

c) i, iii are advantages

d) ii, iv, v are advantages

Select ONE option.

14 / 40

14. Consider the following testware.

Which test activity produces this testware as an output?

a) Test planning

b) Test monitoring and control

c) Test analysis

d) Test design

Select ONE option.

15 / 40

15. Decide which of the following statements (i-v) are true for static testing.

i. Abnormal external behaviors are easier to identify with this testing
ii. Discrepancies from a coding standard are easier to find with this testing
iii. It identifies failures caused by defects when the software is run
iv. Its test objective is to identify defects as early as possible
v. Missing coverage for critical security requirements is easier to find and fix

a) i, iv, v are true for static testing

b) i, iii, iv are true for static testing

c) ii, iii are true for static testing

d) ii, iv, v are true for static testing

Select ONE option.

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16. Which of the following is NOT an example of the shift left approach?

a) Reviewing the user requirements before they are formally accepted by the stakeholders

b) Writing a component test before the corresponding code is written

c) Executing a performance efficiency test for a component during component testing

d) Writing a test script before setting up the configuration management process

Select ONE option.

17 / 40

17. Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing?

a) Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past and typical errors made by developers

b) Error guessing involves using your personal experience of development and the errors you made as a developer

c) Error guessing requires you to imagine that you are the user of the test object and to guess errors the user could make interacting with it

d) Error guessing requires you to rapidly duplicate the development task to identify the sort of errors a developer might make

Select ONE option.

18 / 40

18. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the test pyramid?

a) The test pyramid emphasizes having a larger number of tests at the lower test levels

b) The closer to the top of the pyramid, the more formal your test automation should be

c) Usually, component testing and component integration testing are automated using API-based tools

d) For system testing and acceptance testing, the automated tests are typically created using GUI-based tools

Select ONE option.

19 / 40

19. Which of the following is NOT true for white-box testing?

a) During white-box testing the entire software implementation is considered

b) White-box coverage metrics can help identify additional tests to increase code coverage

c) White-box test techniques can be used in static testing

d) White-box testing can help identify gaps in requirements implementation

Select ONE option.

20 / 40

20. Which of the following is the BEST example of how traceability supports testing?

a) Performing the impact analysis of a change will give information about the completion of the tests

b) Analyzing the traceability between test cases and test results will give information about the estimated level of residual risk

c) Performing the impact analysis of a change will help selecting the right test cases for regression testing

d) Analyzing the traceability between the test basis, the test objects and the test cases will help in selecting test data to achieve the assumed coverage of the test object

Select ONE option.

21 / 40

21. A wine storage system uses a control device that measures the wine cell temperature T (measured in °C, rounded to the nearest degree) and alarms the user if it deviates from the optimal value of 12, according to the following rules:

• if T = 12, the system says, “optimal temperature”

• if T < 12, the system says, “temperature is too low!”

• if T > 12, the system says, “temperature is too high!”

You want to use the 3-point boundary value analysis (BVA) to verify the behavior of the control device. A test input is a temperature in °C provided by the device.

What is the MINIMAL set of test inputs that achieves 100% of the desired coverage?

a) 11, 12, 13

b) 10, 12, 14

c) 10, 11, 12, 13, 14

d) 10, 11, 13, 14

Select ONE option.

22 / 40

22. During risk analysis the team considered the following risk: “The system allows too high a discount for a customer”. The team estimated the risk impact to be very high.

What can one say about the risk likelihood?

a) It is also very high. High risk impact always implies high risk likelihood

b) It is very low. High risk impact always implies low risk likelihood

c) One cannot say anything about risk likelihood. Risk impact and risk likelihood are independent.

d) Risk likelihood is not important with such a high-risk impact. One does not need to define it.

Select ONE option.

23 / 40

23. You work as a tester in a project on a mobile application for food ordering for one of your clients. The client sent you a list of requirements. One of them, with high priority, says

“The order must be processed in less than 10 seconds in 95% of the cases”.

You created a set of test cases in which a number of random orders were made, the processing time measured, and the test results were checked against the requirements.

What test type did you perform?

a) Functional, because the test cases cover the user’s business requirement for the system

b) Non-functional, because the measure the system’s performance

c) Functional, because the test cases interact with the user interface

d) Structural, because we need to know the internal structure of the program to measure the order processing time

Select ONE option.

24 / 40

24. You are testing a mobile application that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. You are running a test suite that involves evaluating each screen, and each field on each screen, against a general list of user interface best practices derived from a popular book on the topic that maximizes attractiveness, ease-of-use, and accessibility for such applications. Which of the following options BEST categorizes the test technique you are using?

a) Black-box

b) Exploratory

c) Checklist-based

d) Error guessing

Select ONE option.

25 / 40

25. Which work product can be used by an agile team to show the amount of work that has been completed and the amount of total work remaining for a given iteration?

a) Acceptance criteria

b) Defect report

c) Test completion report

d) Burndown chart

Select ONE option.

26 / 40

26. Which of the following statements BEST describes the acceptance test-driven development (ATDD) approach?

a) In ATDD, acceptance criteria are typically created based on the given/when/then format

b) In ATDD, test cases are mainly created at component testing and are code-oriented

c) In ATDD, tests are created, based on acceptance criteria to drive the development of the related software

d) in ATDD, tests are based on the desired behavior of the software, which makes it easier for team members to understand them

Select ONE option.

27 / 40

27. Which of the following skills (i-v) are the MOST important skills of a tester?

i. Having domain knowledge
ii. Creating a product vision
iii. Being a good team player
iv. Planning and organizing the work of the team
v. Critical thinking

a) ii and iv are important

b) i, iii and v are important

c) i, ii and v are important

d) iii and iv are important

Select ONE option.

28 / 40

28. Which TWO of the following options are common metrics used for reporting on the quality level of the test object?

a) Number of defects found during system testing

b) Total effort on test design divided by the number of designed test cases

c) Number of executed test procedures

d) Number of defects found divided by the size of a work product

e) Time needed to repair a defect

Select TWO options.

29 / 40

29. A phone ringing in a neighboring cubicle distracts a programmer causing him to improperly program the logic that checks the upper boundary of an input variable. Later, during system testing, a tester notices that this input field accepts invalid input values.

Which of the following correctly describes an incorrectly coded upper bound?

a) The root cause

b) A failure

c) An error

d) A defect

Select ONE option.

30 / 40

30. Which TWO of the following options are the exit criteria for testing a system?

a) Test environment readiness

b) The ability to log in to the test object by the tester

c) Estimated defect density is reached

d) Requirements are translated into given/when/then format

e) Regression tests are automated

Select TWO options.

31 / 40

31. Which of the following is an example of how product risk analysis influences thoroughness and scope of testing?

a) The test manager monitors and reports the level of all known risks on a daily basis so the stakeholders can make an informed decision on the release date

b) One of the identified risks was "Lack of support of open-source databases", so the team decided to integrate the system with an open-source database

c) During the quantitative risk analysis, the team estimated the total level of all identified risks and reported it as the total residual risk before testing

d) Risk assessment revealed a very high level of performance risks, so it was decided to perform detailed performance efficiency testing early in the SDLC

Select ONE option.

32 / 40

32. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent feedback?

a) It improves the test process for future projects

b) It forces customers to prioritize their requirements based on agreed risks

c) It is the only way to measure the quality of changes

d) It helps avoid requirements misunderstandings

Select ONE option.

33 / 40

33. In many software organizations the test department is called the Quality Assurance (QA) department. Is this sentence correct or not and why?

a) It is correct. Testing and QA mean exactly the same thing

b) It is correct. These names can be used interchangeably because both testing and QA focus their activities on the same quality issues

c) It is not correct. Testing is something more; testing includes all activities with regard to quality. QA focuses on quality-related processes

d) It is not correct. QA is focused on quality-related processes while testing concentrates on demonstrating that a component or system is fit for purpose and to detect defects

Select ONE option.

34 / 40

34. Your organization’s test strategy suggests that once a system is going to be retired, data migration shall be tested. As part of what test type is this testing MOST likely to be performed?

a) Maintenance testing

b) Regression testing

c) Component testing

d) Integration testing

Select ONE option.

35 / 40

35. Consider the following user story:

As an Editor
I want to review content before it is published
so that I can assure the grammar is correct

and its acceptance criteria:

• The user can log in to the content management system with "Editor" role
• The editor can view existing content pages
• The editor can edit the page content
• The editor can add markup comments
• The editor can save changes
• The editor can reassign to the "content owner" role to make updates

Which of the following is the BEST example of an ATDD test for this user story?

a) Test if the editor can save the document after edit the page content

b) Test if the content owner can log in and make updates to the content

c) Test if the editor can schedule the edited content for publication

d) Test if the editor can reassign to another editor to make updates

Select ONE option.

36 / 40

36. Which of these statements is NOT a factor that contributes to successful reviews?

a) Participants should dedicate adequate time for the review

b) Splitting large work products into small parts to make the required effort less intense

c) Participants should avoid behaviors that might indicate boredom, exasperation, or hostility to other participants

d) Failures found should be acknowledged, appreciated, and handled objectively

Select ONE option.

37 / 40

37. Your favorite bicycle daily rental store has just introduced a new Customer Relationship Management system and asked you, one of their most loyal members, to test it.
The implemented features are as follows:

• Anyone can rent a bicycle, but members receive a 20% discount
• However, if the return deadline is missed, the discount is no longer available
• After 15 rentals, members get a gift: a T-Shirt

Decision table describing the implemented features looks as follows:

Based ONLY on the feature description of the Customer Relationship Management system, which of the above rules describes an impossible situation?

a) R4

b) R2

c) R6

d) R8

Select ONE option.

38 / 40

38. You are testing a system that calculates the final course grade for a given student.

The final grade is assigned based on the final result, according to the following rules:

• 0 – 50 points: failed
• 51 – 60 points: fair
• 61 – 70 points: satisfactory
• 71 – 80 points: good
• 81 – 90 points: very good
• 91 – 100 points: excellent

You have prepared the following set of test cases:

What is the 2-value Boundary Value Analysis (BVA) coverage for the final result that is achieved with the existing test cases?

a) 50%

b) 60%

c) 33.3%

d) 100%

Select ONE option.

39 / 40

39. Which of the following factors (i-v) have SIGNIFICANT influence on the test process?

i. The SDLC
ii. The number of defects detected in previous projects
iii. The identified product risks
iv. New regulatory requirements forcing formal white-box testing
v. The test environment setup

a) i, ii have significant influence

b) i, iii, iv have significant influence

c) ii, iv, v have significant influence

d) iii, v have significant influence

Select ONE option.

40 / 40

40. Which of the following pieces of information contained in a test progress report is the LEAST useful for business representatives?

a) Impediments to testing

b) Branch coverage achieved

c) Test progress

d) New risks within the test cycle

Select ONE option.

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