Exam 1 – ISTQB Learning

Created on May 25, 2024 By

Admin

Exam 1

Name

1 / 40

1. Which of the following BEST describes the way acceptance criteria can be documented?

a) Performing retrospectives to determine the actual needs of the stakeholders regarding a given user story

b) Using the given/when/then format to describe an example test condition related to a given user story

c) Using verbal communication to reduce the risk of misunderstanding the acceptance criteria by others

d) Documenting risks related to a given user story in a test plan to facilitate the risk-based testing of a given user story

Select ONE option.

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2. You work in a team that develops a mobile application for food ordering. In the current iteration the team decided to implement the payment functionality.

Which of the following activities is a part of test analysis?

a) Estimating that testing the integration with the payment service will take 8 person-days

b) Deciding that the team should test if it is possible to properly share payment between many users

c) Using boundary value analysis (BVA) to derive the test data for the test cases that check the correct payment processing for the minimum allowed amount to be paid

d) Analyzing the discrepancy between the actual result and expected result after executing a test case that checks the process of payment with a credit card, and reporting a defect

Select ONE option.

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3. Consider the following testware.

Which test activity produces this testware as an output?

a) Test planning

b) Test monitoring and control

c) Test analysis

d) Test design

Select ONE option.

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4. You were given a task to analyze and fix causes of failures in a new system to be released.

Which activity are you performing?

a) Debugging

b) Software testing

c) Requirement elicitation

d) Defect management

Select ONE option.

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5. You need to update one of the automated test scripts to be in line with a new requirement. Which process indicates that you create a new version of the test script in the test repository?

a) Traceability management

b) Maintenance testing

c) Configuration management

d) Requirements engineering

Select ONE option.

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6. Which of the arguments below would you use to convince your manager to organize retrospectives at the end of each release cycle?

a) Retrospectives are very popular these days and clients would appreciate it if we added them to our processes

b) Organizing retrospectives will save the organization money because without them end user representatives do not provide immediate feedback about the product

c) Process weaknesses identified during the retrospective can be analyzed and serve as a to do list for the organization’s continuous process improvement program

d) Retrospectives embrace five values including courage and respect, which are crucial to maintain continuous improvement in the organization

Select ONE option.

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7. You received the following defect report from the developers stating that the anomaly described in this test report is not reproducible.

Application hangs up
2022-May-03 – John Doe – Rejected
The application hangs up after entering “Test input: $ä” in the Name field on the new user creation screen. Tried to log off, log in with test_admin01 account, same issue. Tried with other test admin accounts, same issue. No error message received; log (see attached) contains fatal error notification. Based on the test case TC-1305, the application should accept the provided input and create the user. Please fix with high priority, this feature is related to REQ-0012, which is a critical new business requirement.

What critical information is MISSING from this test report that would have been useful for the developers?

a) Expected result and actual result

b) References and defect status

c) Test environment and test item

d) Priority and severity

Select ONE option.

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8. Which of the following statements BEST describes the acceptance test-driven development (ATDD) approach?

a) In ATDD, acceptance criteria are typically created based on the given/when/then format

b) In ATDD, test cases are mainly created at component testing and are code-oriented

c) In ATDD, tests are created, based on acceptance criteria to drive the development of the related software

d) in ATDD, tests are based on the desired behavior of the software, which makes it easier for team members to understand them

Select ONE option.

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9. Your team uses the three-point estimation technique to estimate the test effort for a new high-risk feature. The following estimates were made:

• Most optimistic estimation: 2 person-hours
• Most likely estimation: 11 person-hours
• Most pessimistic estimation: 14 person-hours

What is the final estimate?

a) 9 person-hours

b) 14 person-hours

c) 11 person-hours

d) 10 person-hours

Select ONE option.

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10. A wine storage system uses a control device that measures the wine cell temperature T (measured in °C, rounded to the nearest degree) and alarms the user if it deviates from the optimal value of 12, according to the following rules:

• if T = 12, the system says, “optimal temperature”

• if T < 12, the system says, “temperature is too low!”

• if T > 12, the system says, “temperature is too high!”

You want to use the 3-point boundary value analysis (BVA) to verify the behavior of the control device. A test input is a temperature in °C provided by the device.

What is the MINIMAL set of test inputs that achieves 100% of the desired coverage?

a) 11, 12, 13

b) 10, 12, 14

c) 10, 11, 12, 13, 14

d) 10, 11, 13, 14

Select ONE option.

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11. Your organization’s test strategy suggests that once a system is going to be retired, data migration shall be tested. As part of what test type is this testing MOST likely to be performed?

a) Maintenance testing

b) Regression testing

c) Component testing

d) Integration testing

Select ONE option.

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12. You test a system whose lifecycle is modeled by the state transition diagram shown below. The system starts in the INIT state and ends its operation in the OFF state.

What is the MINIMAL number of test cases to achieve valid transitions coverage?

a) 4

b) 2

c) 7

d) 3

Select ONE option.

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13. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independence of testing?

a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team

b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines

c) An independent test team can work separately from the developers, need not be distracted with project requirement changes, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system

d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer

Select ONE option.

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14. In your project there has been a delay in the release of a brand-new application and test execution started late, but you have very detailed domain knowledge and good analytical skills. The full list of requirements has not yet been shared with the team, but management is asking for some test results to be presented.

Which test technique fits BEST in this situation?

a) Checklist-based testing

b) Error guessing

c) Exploratory testing

d) Branch testing

Select ONE option.

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15. Which of the following pieces of information contained in a test progress report is the LEAST useful for business representatives?

a) Impediments to testing

b) Branch coverage achieved

c) Test progress

d) New risks within the test cycle

Select ONE option.

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16. You are working as a tester in the team that follows the V-model. The choice of software development lifecycle (SDLC) model impacts the timing of testing, which of the following statement is NOT true?

a) Dynamic testing can be performed early in the SDLC

b) Static testing can be performed early in the SDLC

c) Test planning can be performed early in the SDLC

d) Acceptance testing can be performed early in the SDLC

Select ONE option.

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17. Which work product can be used by an agile team to show the amount of work that has been completed and the amount of total work remaining for a given iteration?

a) Acceptance criteria

b) Defect report

c) Test completion report

d) Burndown chart

Select ONE option.

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18. A phone ringing in a neighboring cubicle distracts a programmer causing him to improperly program the logic that checks the upper boundary of an input variable. Later, during system testing, a tester notices that this input field accepts invalid input values.

Which of the following correctly describes an incorrectly coded upper bound?

a) The root cause

b) A failure

c) An error

d) A defect

Select ONE option.

19 / 40

19. Which of the following statements about formal reviews is TRUE?

a) Some reviews do not require more than one role

b) The review process has several activities

c) Documentation to be reviewed is not distributed before the review meeting, with the exception of the work product for specific review types

d) Defects found during the review are not reported since they are not found by dynamic testing

Select ONE option.

20 / 40

20. Your test suite achieved 100% statement coverage. What is the consequence of this fact?

a) Each instruction in the code that contains a defect has been executed at least once

b) Any test suite containing more test cases than your test suite will also achieve 100% statement coverage

c) Each path in the code has been executed at least once

d) Every combination of input values has been tested at least once

Select ONE option.

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21. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of static testing?

a) Having less expensive defect management due to the ease of detecting defects later in the SDLC

b) Fixing defects found during static testing is generally much less expensive than fixing defects found during dynamic testing

c) Finding coding defects that might not have been found by only performing dynamic testing

d) Detecting gaps and inconsistencies in requirements

Select ONE option.

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22. Which of the following is NOT an example of the shift left approach?

a) Reviewing the user requirements before they are formally accepted by the stakeholders

b) Writing a component test before the corresponding code is written

c) Executing a performance efficiency test for a component during component testing

d) Writing a test script before setting up the configuration management process

Select ONE option.

23 / 40

23. Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing?

a) Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past and typical errors made by developers

b) Error guessing involves using your personal experience of development and the errors you made as a developer

c) Error guessing requires you to imagine that you are the user of the test object and to guess errors the user could make interacting with it

d) Error guessing requires you to rapidly duplicate the development task to identify the sort of errors a developer might make

Select ONE option.

24 / 40

24. Which item correctly identifies a potential risk of performing test automation?

a) It may introduce unknown regressions in production

b) Sufficient efforts to maintain testware may not be properly allocated

c) Testing tools and associated testware may not be sufficiently relied upon

d) It may reduce the time allocated for manual testing

Select ONE option.

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25. Which types of failures (1-4) fit which test levels (A-D) BEST?

1. Failures in system behavior as it deviates from the user’s business needs
2. Failures in communication between components
3. Failures in logic in a module
4. Failures in not correctly implemented business rules

A. Component testing
B. Component integration testing
C. System testing
D. Acceptance testing

a) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C

b) 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A

c) 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C

d) 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D

Select ONE option.

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26. You are testing a simplified apartment search form which has only two search criteria:

• floor (with three possible options: ground floor; first floor; second or higher floor)
• garden type (with three possible options: no garden; small garden; large garden)

Only apartments on the ground floor have gardens. The form has a built-in validation mechanism that will not allow you to use the search criteria which violate this rule.

Each test has two input values: floor and garden type. You want to apply equivalence partitioning (EP) to cover each floor and each garden type in your tests.

What is the minimal number of test cases to achieve 100% EP coverage?

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

Select ONE option

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27. During risk analysis the team considered the following risk: “The system allows too high a discount for a customer”. The team estimated the risk impact to be very high.

What can one say about the risk likelihood?

a) It is also very high. High risk impact always implies high risk likelihood

b) It is very low. High risk impact always implies low risk likelihood

c) One cannot say anything about risk likelihood. Risk impact and risk likelihood are independent.

d) Risk likelihood is not important with such a high-risk impact. One does not need to define it.

Select ONE option.

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28. What task may management take on during a formal review?

a) Taking overall responsibility for the review

b) Deciding what is to be reviewed

c) Ensuring the effective running of review meetings, and mediating, if necessary

d) Recording review information such as review decisions

Select ONE option.

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29. Which of the following is a characteristic of experience-based test techniques?

a) Test cases are created based on detailed design information

b) Items tested within the interface code section are used to measure coverage

c) The techniques heavily rely on the tester’s knowledge of the software and the business domain

d) The test cases are used to identify deviations from the requirements

Select ONE option.

30 / 40

30. Consider the following test categories (1-4) and agile testing quadrants (A-D):

1. Usability testing
2. Component testing
3. Functional testing
4. Reliability testing

A. Agile testing quadrant Q1: technology facing, supporting the development team
B. Agile testing quadrant Q2: business facing, supporting the development team
C. Agile testing quadrant Q3: business facing, critique the product
D. Agile testing quadrant Q4: technology facing, critique the product

How do the following test categories map onto the agile testing quadrants?

a) 1C, 2A, 3B, 4D

b) 1D, 2A, 3C, 4B

c) 1C, 2B, 3D, 4A

d) 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A

Select ONE option.

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31. Which test activity does a data preparation tool support?

a) Test monitoring and control

b) Test analysis and design

c) Test implementation and execution

d) Test completion

Select ONE option.

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32. You are testing a user story with three acceptance criteria: AC1, AC2 and AC3. AC1 is covered by test case TC1, AC2 by TC2, and AC3 by TC3. The test execution history had three test runs on three consecutive versions of the software as follows:

Tests are repeated once you are informed that all defects found in the test run are corrected and a new version of the software is available.
Which of the above tests are executed as regression tests?

a) Only 4, 7, 8, 9

b) Only 5, 7

c) Only 4, 6, 8, 9

d) Only 5, 6

Select ONE option.

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33. The following is a list of the work products produced in the SDLC.

i. Business requirements
ii. Schedule
iii. Test budget
iv. Third-party executable code
v. User stories and their acceptance criteria

Which of them can be reviewed?

a) i and iv can be reviewed

b) i, ii, iii and iv can be reviewed

c) i, ii, iii, and v can be reviewed

d) iii, iv, v can be reviewed

Select ONE option.

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34. Consider the following rule: “for every SDLC activity there is a corresponding test activity”. In which SDLC models does this rule hold?

a) Only in sequential SDLC models

b) Only in iterative SDLC models

c) Only in iterative and incremental SDLC models

d) In sequential, incremental, and iterative SDLC models

Select ONE option.

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35. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent feedback?

a) It improves the test process for future projects

b) It forces customers to prioritize their requirements based on agreed risks

c) It is the only way to measure the quality of changes

d) It helps avoid requirements misunderstandings

Select ONE option.

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36. Which of the following skills (i-v) are the MOST important skills of a tester?

i. Having domain knowledge
ii. Creating a product vision
iii. Being a good team player
iv. Planning and organizing the work of the team
v. Critical thinking

a) ii and iv are important

b) i, iii and v are important

c) i, ii and v are important

d) iii and iv are important

Select ONE option.

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37. Which of the following factors (i-v) have SIGNIFICANT influence on the test process?

i. The SDLC
ii. The number of defects detected in previous projects
iii. The identified product risks
iv. New regulatory requirements forcing formal white-box testing
v. The test environment setup

a) i, ii have significant influence

b) i, iii, iv have significant influence

c) ii, iv, v have significant influence

d) iii, v have significant influence

Select ONE option.

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38. Which TWO of the following tasks belong MAINLY to a testing role?

a) Configure test environments

b) Maintain the product backlog

c) Design solutions to new requirements

d) Create the test plan

e) Report on achieved coverage

Select TWO options.

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39. Your team uses planning poker to estimate the test effort for a newly required feature. There is a rule in your team that if there is no time to reach full agreement and the variation in the results is small, applying rules like “accept the number with the most votes” can be applied.
After two rounds, the consensus was not reached, so the third round was initiated. You can see the test estimation results in the table below.

Which of the following is the BEST example of the next step?

a) The product owner has to step in and make a final decision

b) Accept 13 as the final test estimate as this has most of the votes

c) No further action is needed. Consensus has been reached

d) Remove the new feature from the current release because consensus has not been reached

Select ONE option.

40 / 40

40. You have been assigned as a tester to a team producing a new system incrementally. You have noticed that no changes have been made to the existing regression test cases for several iterations and no new regression defects were identified. Your manager is happy, but you are not. Which testing principle explains your skepticism?

a) Tests wear out

b) Absence-of-errors fallacy

c) Defects cluster together

d) Exhaustive testing is impossible

Select ONE option.

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