Exam 1 – ISTQB Learning

Created on May 25, 2024 By

Admin

Exam 1

Name

1 / 40

1. Which types of failures (1-4) fit which test levels (A-D) BEST?

1. Failures in system behavior as it deviates from the user’s business needs
2. Failures in communication between components
3. Failures in logic in a module
4. Failures in not correctly implemented business rules

A. Component testing
B. Component integration testing
C. System testing
D. Acceptance testing

a) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C

b) 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A

c) 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C

d) 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D

Select ONE option.

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2. Which of these statements is NOT a factor that contributes to successful reviews?

a) Participants should dedicate adequate time for the review

b) Splitting large work products into small parts to make the required effort less intense

c) Participants should avoid behaviors that might indicate boredom, exasperation, or hostility to other participants

d) Failures found should be acknowledged, appreciated, and handled objectively

Select ONE option.

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3. Which of the following is an example of how product risk analysis influences thoroughness and scope of testing?

a) The test manager monitors and reports the level of all known risks on a daily basis so the stakeholders can make an informed decision on the release date

b) One of the identified risks was "Lack of support of open-source databases", so the team decided to integrate the system with an open-source database

c) During the quantitative risk analysis, the team estimated the total level of all identified risks and reported it as the total residual risk before testing

d) Risk assessment revealed a very high level of performance risks, so it was decided to perform detailed performance efficiency testing early in the SDLC

Select ONE option.

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4. You are working as a tester in the team that follows the V-model. The choice of software development lifecycle (SDLC) model impacts the timing of testing, which of the following statement is NOT true?

a) Dynamic testing can be performed early in the SDLC

b) Static testing can be performed early in the SDLC

c) Test planning can be performed early in the SDLC

d) Acceptance testing can be performed early in the SDLC

Select ONE option.

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5. During risk analysis the team considered the following risk: “The system allows too high a discount for a customer”. The team estimated the risk impact to be very high.

What can one say about the risk likelihood?

a) It is also very high. High risk impact always implies high risk likelihood

b) It is very low. High risk impact always implies low risk likelihood

c) One cannot say anything about risk likelihood. Risk impact and risk likelihood are independent.

d) Risk likelihood is not important with such a high-risk impact. One does not need to define it.

Select ONE option.

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6. You have been assigned as a tester to a team producing a new system incrementally. You have noticed that no changes have been made to the existing regression test cases for several iterations and no new regression defects were identified. Your manager is happy, but you are not. Which testing principle explains your skepticism?

a) Tests wear out

b) Absence-of-errors fallacy

c) Defects cluster together

d) Exhaustive testing is impossible

Select ONE option.

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7. You are testing a mobile application that allows users to find a nearby restaurant based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (i.e., a smaller number means a higher priority), and dependencies:

Which of the following test cases should be executed as the third one?

a) TC 003

b) TC 005

c) TC 002

d) TC 001

Select ONE option.

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8. You work in a team that develops a mobile application for food ordering. In the current iteration the team decided to implement the payment functionality.

Which of the following activities is a part of test analysis?

a) Estimating that testing the integration with the payment service will take 8 person-days

b) Deciding that the team should test if it is possible to properly share payment between many users

c) Using boundary value analysis (BVA) to derive the test data for the test cases that check the correct payment processing for the minimum allowed amount to be paid

d) Analyzing the discrepancy between the actual result and expected result after executing a test case that checks the process of payment with a credit card, and reporting a defect

Select ONE option.

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9. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent feedback?

a) It improves the test process for future projects

b) It forces customers to prioritize their requirements based on agreed risks

c) It is the only way to measure the quality of changes

d) It helps avoid requirements misunderstandings

Select ONE option.

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10. Which of the arguments below would you use to convince your manager to organize retrospectives at the end of each release cycle?

a) Retrospectives are very popular these days and clients would appreciate it if we added them to our processes

b) Organizing retrospectives will save the organization money because without them end user representatives do not provide immediate feedback about the product

c) Process weaknesses identified during the retrospective can be analyzed and serve as a to do list for the organization’s continuous process improvement program

d) Retrospectives embrace five values including courage and respect, which are crucial to maintain continuous improvement in the organization

Select ONE option.

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11. Consider the following part of a test plan.

Testing will be performed using component testing and component integration testing. The regulations require to demonstrate that 100% branch coverage is achieved for each component classified as critical.

Which part of the test plan does this part belong to?

a) Communication

b) Risk register

c) Context of testing

d) Test approach

Select ONE option.

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12. Decide which of the following statements (i-v) are true for static testing.

i. Abnormal external behaviors are easier to identify with this testing
ii. Discrepancies from a coding standard are easier to find with this testing
iii. It identifies failures caused by defects when the software is run
iv. Its test objective is to identify defects as early as possible
v. Missing coverage for critical security requirements is easier to find and fix

a) i, iv, v are true for static testing

b) i, iii, iv are true for static testing

c) ii, iii are true for static testing

d) ii, iv, v are true for static testing

Select ONE option.

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13. Which of the following pieces of information contained in a test progress report is the LEAST useful for business representatives?

a) Impediments to testing

b) Branch coverage achieved

c) Test progress

d) New risks within the test cycle

Select ONE option.

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14. A phone ringing in a neighboring cubicle distracts a programmer causing him to improperly program the logic that checks the upper boundary of an input variable. Later, during system testing, a tester notices that this input field accepts invalid input values.

Which of the following correctly describes an incorrectly coded upper bound?

a) The root cause

b) A failure

c) An error

d) A defect

Select ONE option.

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15. You received the following defect report from the developers stating that the anomaly described in this test report is not reproducible.

Application hangs up
2022-May-03 – John Doe – Rejected
The application hangs up after entering “Test input: $ä” in the Name field on the new user creation screen. Tried to log off, log in with test_admin01 account, same issue. Tried with other test admin accounts, same issue. No error message received; log (see attached) contains fatal error notification. Based on the test case TC-1305, the application should accept the provided input and create the user. Please fix with high priority, this feature is related to REQ-0012, which is a critical new business requirement.

What critical information is MISSING from this test report that would have been useful for the developers?

a) Expected result and actual result

b) References and defect status

c) Test environment and test item

d) Priority and severity

Select ONE option.

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16. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independence of testing?

a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team

b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines

c) An independent test team can work separately from the developers, need not be distracted with project requirement changes, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system

d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer

Select ONE option.

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17. Which of the following factors (i-v) have SIGNIFICANT influence on the test process?

i. The SDLC
ii. The number of defects detected in previous projects
iii. The identified product risks
iv. New regulatory requirements forcing formal white-box testing
v. The test environment setup

a) i, ii have significant influence

b) i, iii, iv have significant influence

c) ii, iv, v have significant influence

d) iii, v have significant influence

Select ONE option.

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18. Which TWO of the following tasks belong MAINLY to a testing role?

a) Configure test environments

b) Maintain the product backlog

c) Design solutions to new requirements

d) Create the test plan

e) Report on achieved coverage

Select TWO options.

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19. Which of the following options shows an example of test activities that contribute to success?

a) Having testers involved during various software development lifecycle (SDLC) activities will help to detect defects in work products

b) Testers try not to disturb the developers while coding, so that the developers write better code

c) Testers collaborating with end users help to improve the quality of defect reports during component integration and system testing

d) Certified testers will design much better test cases than non-certified testers

Select ONE option.

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20. Which of the following is the BEST example of how traceability supports testing?

a) Performing the impact analysis of a change will give information about the completion of the tests

b) Analyzing the traceability between test cases and test results will give information about the estimated level of residual risk

c) Performing the impact analysis of a change will help selecting the right test cases for regression testing

d) Analyzing the traceability between the test basis, the test objects and the test cases will help in selecting test data to achieve the assumed coverage of the test object

Select ONE option.

21 / 40

21. Your test suite achieved 100% statement coverage. What is the consequence of this fact?

a) Each instruction in the code that contains a defect has been executed at least once

b) Any test suite containing more test cases than your test suite will also achieve 100% statement coverage

c) Each path in the code has been executed at least once

d) Every combination of input values has been tested at least once

Select ONE option.

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22. Your team uses planning poker to estimate the test effort for a newly required feature. There is a rule in your team that if there is no time to reach full agreement and the variation in the results is small, applying rules like “accept the number with the most votes” can be applied.
After two rounds, the consensus was not reached, so the third round was initiated. You can see the test estimation results in the table below.

Which of the following is the BEST example of the next step?

a) The product owner has to step in and make a final decision

b) Accept 13 as the final test estimate as this has most of the votes

c) No further action is needed. Consensus has been reached

d) Remove the new feature from the current release because consensus has not been reached

Select ONE option.

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23. How is the whole team approach present in the interactions between testers and business representatives?

a) Business representatives decide on test automation approaches

b) Testers help business representatives to define test strategy

c) Business representatives are not part of the whole team approach

d) Testers help business representatives to create suitable acceptance tests

Select ONE option.

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24. Which of the following is NOT true for white-box testing?

a) During white-box testing the entire software implementation is considered

b) White-box coverage metrics can help identify additional tests to increase code coverage

c) White-box test techniques can be used in static testing

d) White-box testing can help identify gaps in requirements implementation

Select ONE option.

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25. The following list contains risks that have been identified for a new software product to be developed:

i. Management moves two experienced testers to another project
ii. The system does not comply with functional safety standards
iii. System response time exceeds user requirements
iv. Stakeholders have inaccurate expectations
v. Disabled people have problems when using the system

Which of them are project risks?

a) i, iv are project risks

b) iv, v are project risks

c) i, iii are project risks

d) ii, v are project risks

Select ONE option.

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26. Which TWO of the following options are common metrics used for reporting on the quality level of the test object?

a) Number of defects found during system testing

b) Total effort on test design divided by the number of designed test cases

c) Number of executed test procedures

d) Number of defects found divided by the size of a work product

e) Time needed to repair a defect

Select TWO options.

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27. Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing?

a) Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past and typical errors made by developers

b) Error guessing involves using your personal experience of development and the errors you made as a developer

c) Error guessing requires you to imagine that you are the user of the test object and to guess errors the user could make interacting with it

d) Error guessing requires you to rapidly duplicate the development task to identify the sort of errors a developer might make

Select ONE option.

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28. You test a system whose lifecycle is modeled by the state transition diagram shown below. The system starts in the INIT state and ends its operation in the OFF state.

What is the MINIMAL number of test cases to achieve valid transitions coverage?

a) 4

b) 2

c) 7

d) 3

Select ONE option.

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29. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the test pyramid?

a) The test pyramid emphasizes having a larger number of tests at the lower test levels

b) The closer to the top of the pyramid, the more formal your test automation should be

c) Usually, component testing and component integration testing are automated using API-based tools

d) For system testing and acceptance testing, the automated tests are typically created using GUI-based tools

Select ONE option.

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30. What task may management take on during a formal review?

a) Taking overall responsibility for the review

b) Deciding what is to be reviewed

c) Ensuring the effective running of review meetings, and mediating, if necessary

d) Recording review information such as review decisions

Select ONE option.

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31. Your team uses the three-point estimation technique to estimate the test effort for a new high-risk feature. The following estimates were made:

• Most optimistic estimation: 2 person-hours
• Most likely estimation: 11 person-hours
• Most pessimistic estimation: 14 person-hours

What is the final estimate?

a) 9 person-hours

b) 14 person-hours

c) 11 person-hours

d) 10 person-hours

Select ONE option.

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32. How do testers add value to iteration and release planning?

a) Testers determine the priority of the user stories to be developed

b) Testers focus only on the functional aspects of the system to be tested

c) Testers participate in the detailed risk identification and risk assessment of user stories

d) Testers guarantee the release of high-quality software through early test design during the release planning

Select ONE option.

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33. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of static testing?

a) Having less expensive defect management due to the ease of detecting defects later in the SDLC

b) Fixing defects found during static testing is generally much less expensive than fixing defects found during dynamic testing

c) Finding coding defects that might not have been found by only performing dynamic testing

d) Detecting gaps and inconsistencies in requirements

Select ONE option.

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34. Which of the following is a characteristic of experience-based test techniques?

a) Test cases are created based on detailed design information

b) Items tested within the interface code section are used to measure coverage

c) The techniques heavily rely on the tester’s knowledge of the software and the business domain

d) The test cases are used to identify deviations from the requirements

Select ONE option.

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35. Which of the following statements BEST describes the acceptance test-driven development (ATDD) approach?

a) In ATDD, acceptance criteria are typically created based on the given/when/then format

b) In ATDD, test cases are mainly created at component testing and are code-oriented

c) In ATDD, tests are created, based on acceptance criteria to drive the development of the related software

d) in ATDD, tests are based on the desired behavior of the software, which makes it easier for team members to understand them

Select ONE option.

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36. Which TWO of the following options are the exit criteria for testing a system?

a) Test environment readiness

b) The ability to log in to the test object by the tester

c) Estimated defect density is reached

d) Requirements are translated into given/when/then format

e) Regression tests are automated

Select TWO options.

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37. Which of the following are advantages of DevOps?

i. Faster product release and faster time to market
ii. Increases the need for repetitive manual testing
iii. Constant availability of executable software
iv. Reduction in the number of regression tests associated with code refactoring
v. Setting up the test automation framework is inexpensive since everything is automated

a) i, ii, iv are advantages

b) iii, v are advantages

c) i, iii are advantages

d) ii, iv, v are advantages

Select ONE option.

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38. Which of the following skills (i-v) are the MOST important skills of a tester?

i. Having domain knowledge
ii. Creating a product vision
iii. Being a good team player
iv. Planning and organizing the work of the team
v. Critical thinking

a) ii and iv are important

b) i, iii and v are important

c) i, ii and v are important

d) iii and iv are important

Select ONE option.

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39. Which of the following statements describe a valid test objective?

a) To prove that there are no unfixed defects in the system under test

b) To prove that there will be no failures after the implementation of the system into production

c) To reduce the risk level of the test object and to build confidence in the quality level

d) To verify that there are no untested combinations of inputs

Select ONE option.

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40. You work as a tester in a project on a mobile application for food ordering for one of your clients. The client sent you a list of requirements. One of them, with high priority, says

“The order must be processed in less than 10 seconds in 95% of the cases”.

You created a set of test cases in which a number of random orders were made, the processing time measured, and the test results were checked against the requirements.

What test type did you perform?

a) Functional, because the test cases cover the user’s business requirement for the system

b) Non-functional, because the measure the system’s performance

c) Functional, because the test cases interact with the user interface

d) Structural, because we need to know the internal structure of the program to measure the order processing time

Select ONE option.

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