Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The combination (T, T, F) does not match any rule. This is an example of omission, not a contradiction
b) Is not correct. The combination (T, F, T) matches only one column, R2, so there is no contradiction
c) Is not correct. Both combinations (T, T, T) and (F, T, T) match only one column, R1, so there is no contradiction
d) Is correct. The combination (F, F, F) matches both R2 and R3, but R2 and R3 have different actions, so this shows a contradiction between R2 and R3.

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. This is the task of the review leader
b) Is correct. This is the task of the management in a formal review
c) Is not correct. This is the task of the moderator
d) Is not correct. This is the task of the scribe

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Although it is correct to say that in Agile software development, some of the test management tasks may be handled by the Agile team itself, the testing role is not primarily the responsibility of a single individual from outside the team. Instead the testing is more likely to be performed by various team members following the whole-team approach
b) Is not correct. The test management role primarily involves activities related to test planning, test monitoring and control, and test completion. So, although this statement is partially correct, it is wrong to say that the testing role is primarily responsible for test monitoring and control
c) Is correct. In Agile software development, some of the test management tasks may be handled by the Agile team itself. However, for test activities that span multiple teams within an organization, test managers outside of the development team may perform these tasks
d) Is not correct. The test management role primarily involves activities related to test planning, test monitoring and control, and test completion, while the testing role is primarily responsible for the technical and engineering aspects of testing, such as test analysis, test design, test implementation, and test execution. Thus the test management role is not normally responsible for test analysis and test design, although it is correct to say that the testing role is primarily responsible for test implementation and execution

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The approval of the budget is an example of an entry criterion. It would make no sense to approve the budget for some activity that has already been done
b) Is correct. Running out of budget can be viewed as a valid exit criterion
c) Is not correct. Availability of resources is an example of an entry criterion for testing
d) Correct. Coverage is a measure of thoroughness, so it is a typical exit criterion
e) Is not correct. This is an example of an entry criterion, checked before the project starts

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. One of the purposes of retrospectives is to identify potential process improvements, which, if put into practice, should result in the quality of future outputs of the development process (test objects) being higher. So, this is likely to occur as a result of a retrospective
b) Is not correct. A benefit of retrospectives for testing includes increased test efficiency through process improvements. So, this is likely to occur as a result of a retrospective
c) Is correct. Participants at retrospectives typically include testers, developers, architects, product owners, and business analysts, but end users are rarely invited or attend these meetings – and they are also unlikely to receive any reports from these meetings. So, it is very unlikely that they will learn and understand more about the development and test processes through retrospectives
d) Is not correct. A benefit of retrospectives for testing includes improved quality of testware (including automated test scripts) through joint reviews with developers. So, this is likely to occur as a result of a retrospective

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed example defects:

i. Two different parts of the design specification disagree due to the complexity of the design – this is an example of a specification defect, which includes inconsistencies, ambiguities, contradictions, omissions, inaccuracies, and duplications, which can most easily be found by static testing
ii. A response time is too long and so makes users lose patience – this is an example of a response time defect, which can only be detected in practice by executing the program and measuring the response time, which can most easily be found by dynamic testing
iii. A path in the code cannot be reached during execution - this is an example of a coding defect, which includes variables with undefined values, undeclared variables, duplicated or unreachable code, and excessive code complexity, which can most easily be found by static testing
iv. A variable is declared but never subsequently used in the program - this is an example of a coding defect, which includes variables with undefined values, undeclared variables, duplicated or unreachable code, and excessive code complexity, which can most easily be found by static testing
v. The amount of memory needed by the program to generate a report is too high – this is an example of a performance defect, which can only be detected in practice by executing the program and measuring the memory used, which can most easily be found by dynamic testing

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is correct. The correct match for static testing is i, iii, and iv

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The organization’s marketing team is unlikely to perform much testing (although in some organizations they may be involved with acceptance testing), so their average level of experience (most of which would be in marketing) is not likely to impact how testing is performed for a given test object
b) Is not correct. The level of knowledge of users that a new system is being built for them is unlikely to affect how testing is performed. Any user involvement that could affect how testing is performed is more likely to be as a result of decisions made by the testers, customer and project manager
c) Is correct. The number of years’ experience of the members of the performance testing team will help to determine the capabilities and knowledge (e.g., of different tools and defect types) that the team members will apply when they are testing
d) Is not correct. The organizational structure of the different end users (who may be varied) will change between users. So, it may not even be known when the application is being tested, and the end user’s organizational structure can thus have little effect on how the testing is performed

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Component testing (also called unit testing) involves testing individual components in isolation and is mostly verification against a specification, rather than validation against user needs. However, this testing is not normally performed by testers, as developers usually carry out this testing in their development environment
b) Is not correct. Component integration testing involves testing the interfaces and interactions between components and is mostly verification against a specification, rather than validation against user needs. However, this testing is not normally performed by testers, as developers usually carry out this testing
c) Is not correct. System integration testing examines the interfaces with other systems and external services and is mostly verification against a specification, rather than validation against user needs. This type of testing is also most often performed by testers
d) Is correct. Acceptance testing focuses on validating that the system meets the user's business needs and is ready for deployment. Ideally, this testing is carried out by the end users

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Retrospectives are more useful for identifying improvement opportunities and have little importance for clients
b) Is not correct. Business representatives are not giving feedback about the product itself. Therefore, there is no financial gain to the organization
c) Is correct. Regularly conducted retrospectives, when appropriate follow up activities occur, are critical to continual improvement of development and testing
d) Is not correct. Courage and respect are values of Extreme Programming and are not closely related to retrospectives

Explanation / Rationale

Consider:

i. Is true. Faster product release and faster time to market is an advantage of DevOps
ii. Is false. Typically, we need less effort for manual tests because of the use of test automation
iii. Is true. Constant availability of executable software is an advantage
iv. Is false. More regression tests are needed
v. Is false. Not everything is automated and setting up a test automation framework is expensive

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) It is correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The paragraph contains information on test levels and exit criteria, which are part of the test approach
b) Is not correct. The paragraph contains information on test levels and exit criteria, which are part of the test approach
c) Is not correct. The paragraph contains information on test levels and exit criteria, which are part of the test approach
d) Is correct. The paragraph contains information on test levels and exit criteria, which are part of the test approach

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. This is an example of a risk monitoring activity, not risk analysis
b) Is not correct. This is an example of an architectural decision, not related with testing
c) Is not correct. This is an example of performing a quantitative risk analysis and is not related to thoroughness or scope of testing
d) Is correct. This shows how risk analysis impacts the thoroughness of testing (i.e., the level of detail)

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Test automation can provide measures that are too complicated for humans to derive, such as white-box test coverage measures for all but the most trivial code
b) Is not correct. By using test tools the responsibility for the testing is NOT shared with the tool vendor as the vendor is not involved in the testing, and it is the tester’s responsibility. The only possible responsibility that could be assigned to the tool vendor is if the tool fails to work as expected and provides incorrect test results
c) Is not correct. Testers still need to perform critical thinking when analyzing anomalies in the test results to determine their likely cause
d) Is not correct. Neither testers nor tools can generate test cases simply from an analysis of the program code as the code is the implementation and provides no information on the expected results, which will need to come from another part of the test basis, such as the design specification

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Testers should review work products as soon as drafts are available to enable early testing as part of a shift-left approach. If they waited until the next development phase, then unnecessary development (and test) work could be started on unreviewed, flawed work products
b) Is correct. Testers should review work products as soon as drafts are available to enable early testing as part of a shift-left approach
c) Is not correct. Testers typically review work products that form the test basis as part of test analysis, not before test analysis and design
d) Is not correct. Testers should review work products as soon as drafts are available to enable early testing as part of a shift-left approach. Waiting until they are published means that any defects that could be found by tester review will be in the published document

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Decision table testing is a black-box test technique, so it is specification-based, not structure-based – the test cases are not based on the decisions in the source code. In branch testing, the test cases are derived from knowledge of the control flow of the test object
b) Is not correct. Anticipation of potential defects is used in error guessing (an experience-based test technique), not in branch testing (a structure-based technique). In decision table testing, the test cases are derived from the specification that describes the business logic
c) Is not correct. If a test case is based on the knowledge of the control flow of the test object, it is a white-box test technique. Decision table testing is typically based on an analysis of business logic, so it is a black-box test technique. In branch testing, test cases are not derived from the specification – this would make it a black-box test technique. Branch testing is a white-box test technique, where test cases are derived based on the source code structure
d) Is correct. Decision table testing is a black-box test technique, so it is based on an analysis of the specified behavior of the test object without reference to its internal structure. Therefore, the test cases are independent of how the software is implemented. Branch testing is a white-box test technique, so test cases are based on an analysis of the test object’s internal structure and processing. As the test cases are dependent on how the software is designed and coded, they can only be created after the design or implementation of the test object

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Although it is true that the tester can implement and execute detailed test cases based on the checklist, it does not explain how this would result in increased coverage
b) Is not correct. Checklist items should not be automated. But even if they are, the automated test scripts always execute the tests in the same way, which usually does not result in increased coverage
c) Is not correct. It is true that each checklist item should be tested separately and independently. But this impacts the test execution order and does not impact the achieved coverage, and so does not result in increased coverage
d) Is correct. If the checklists are high-level, some variability in the actual testing is likely to occur, resulting in potentially greater coverage but less repeatability. If two testers follow a checklist of high-level items, each of them may use different test data, test steps, etc. This way, one tester will probably cover some areas not covered by the other tester and this will result in increased coverage

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Quality should be the responsibility of everyone working on the project and not the sole responsibility of the test team
b) Is not correct. First, it is not a benefit if an external test team does not meet delivery deadlines, and second, there is no reason to believe that external test teams will feel they do not have to meet strict delivery deadlines
c) Is not correct. It is bad practice for the test team to work in complete isolation, and we would expect an external test team to be concerned with changing project requirements and communicating well with developers
d) Is correct. Specifications are never perfect, meaning that assumptions will have to be made by the developer. An independent tester is useful in that they can challenge and verify the assumptions and subsequent interpretation made by the developer

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. The ‘tests wear out’ principle is concerned with the idea that repeating identical tests on unaltered code is unlikely to uncover novel defects and therefore, modifying tests may be essential. By using high-level test conditions to generate new tests each time, the tests will not be identical and should not ‘wear out’
b) Is not correct. The ‘absence-of-defects fallacy’ principle is concerned with ensuring that users’ needs are fulfilled even if lots of testing is done and no defects are found (i.e., validation is also necessary). The use of high-level test conditions to generate test cases and execute tests does not directly address this concern
c) Is not correct. The ‘early testing saves time and money’ principle is concerned with fixing defects early on to prevent the occurrence of subsequent defects in derived work products, thereby reducing costs and the likelihood of failures. This is typically addressed by starting testing (both static and dynamic) as early as possible, but this is not addressed by using high-level test conditions to generate test cases and execute tests
d) Is not correct. The ‘Defects cluster together’ principle is concerned with the distribution of defects in a system, which typically follows a Pareto distribution. The use of high-level test conditions to generate test cases and execute tests does not address this concern, which is typically addressed by risk-based testing

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. System testing examines the behavior and capabilities of the complete system and covers non-functional testing of quality characteristics, which includes security testing. This type of testing is often performed by an independent test team based on system specifications
b) Is not correct. System integration testing examines the interfaces with other systems and external services
c) Is not correct. Beta testing is a type of acceptance testing performed at an external site by roles outside the development organization
d) Is not correct. Component integration testing involves testing the (interfaces and) interactions between components of a system, such as the user interface and database

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. When a system is retired, this can require testing of data migration, which is a form of maintenance testing
b) Is not correct. Regression testing verifies whether a fix accidentally affected the behavior of other parts of the code, but now we are talking about data migration to a new system
c) Is not correct. Component testing focuses on individual hardware or software components, not on data migration
d) Is not correct. Integration testing focuses on interactions between components and/or systems, not on data migration

Explanation / Rationale

Only third-party executable code cannot be reviewed.
Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) It is correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

Risk assessment can use a quantitative or qualitative approach, or a mix of them. In the quantitative approach the risk level is calculated as the multiplication of risk likelihood and risk impact. So, Risk level = Risk likelihood * Risk impact
Then, Risk impact = Risk level / Risk likelihood.
In our case, Risk impact = $1,000 / 50% = $1,000 / 0.5 = $2,000.
Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed benefits and drawbacks of the independence of testing:

i. Ideally, we want close collaboration between testers and developers, which is not increased by isolation. Thus, this is a disadvantage
ii. Testers and developers have varied backgrounds, technical viewpoints, and potential biases, allowing testers to usefully challenge assumptions made by stakeholders during system specification and implementation. Thus, this is an advantage
iii. The main disadvantage of independence in testing is that testers may become isolated from the development team, leading to communication problems, a lack of collaboration, and potentially an adversarial relationship, with testers being blamed for delays and bottlenecks in the release process. Thus, this is a disadvantage
iv. One of the disadvantages of independence in testing is that testers may become isolated from the development team, leading to developers feeling less accountable for quality. Thus, this is a disadvantage
v. The primary benefit of independence in testing is that testers are more likely to identify different types of failures and defects compared to developers, due to their varied backgrounds, technical viewpoints, and potential biases, including cognitive bias

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct. The list entries showing benefits are ii and v
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed review types:

1. Technical review - This type of review is performed by technically qualified reviewers and led by a moderator. The objectives are to gain consensus and make decisions on technical problems while also evaluating quality and building confidence in the work product, generating new ideas, motivating and enabling authors to improve, and detecting anomalies
2. Informal review - The main objective is to detect anomalies. The process is not defined and does not require formal documented output
3. Inspection - This is the most formal review type, and it follows the complete generic review process. The primary objective is to find the most anomalies, and other objectives include evaluating quality and building confidence in the work product, motivating and enabling authors to improve, and collecting metrics that can be used to enhance the software development life cycle (SDLC), including the inspection process. The author cannot act as the review leader or scribe
4. Walkthrough - Led by the author, this type of review serves various objectives such as evaluating quality and building confidence in the work product, educating reviewers, gaining consensus, generating new ideas, motivating and enabling authors to improve, and detecting anomalies. Reviewers might perform an individual review before the walkthrough, but this is not mandatory

A. Includes objectives such as gaining consensus, generating new ideas, and motivating authors to improve (A)
B. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it generates no formal documented output (D)
C. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it requires metrics collection to support process improvement (C)
D. Includes objectives such as educating reviewers, gaining consensus, generating new ideas and detecting potential defects (B)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct. The correct match is: 1A, 2D, 3C, 4B
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. While the sentence is true, it does not provide much value for the developer
b) Is correct. From the test results it seems that the system ignores duplicates and sorts the list disregarding the repetitions. This is probably the cause of failures in TC3, TC4, TC5. Such information may help the developer to find the defect and fix it more efficiently
c) Is not correct. The system does not fail in sorting negative numbers. The problem is rather in disregarding duplicates
d) Is not correct. The test cases TC3, TC4 and TC5 fail, but we aren’t aware that the test cases have any defects

Explanation / Rationale

In the three-point estimation technique:

E = (optimistic + 4*most likely + pessimistic)/6

E = (2+(4*11)+14)/6 = 10

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. 19 covers the “no discount” partition, 20 covers the “50% discount” partition, and 30 covers the “10% discount” partition. These three values cover all three of the valid equivalence partitions
b) Is not correct. 11 and 12 cover the “no discount” partition, while 20 covers the “50% discount” partition, so covering two of the three valid equivalence partitions
c) Is not correct. 1 covers the “no discount” partition, while 10 and 50 cover the “10% discount” partition. The “50% discount” partition is not covered, so overall two of the three valid equivalence partitions are covered
d) Is not correct. 29 and 31 cover the “no discount” partition, while 10 and 30 cover the “10% discount” partition. The “50% discount” partition is not covered, so overall two of the three valid equivalence partitions are covered

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Behavior-Driven Development (BDD) is a well-known example of a test-first approach to development
b) Is not correct. Test Level Driven Development is not a correct example of a test-first approach to development
c) Is not correct. Function-Driven Development is not a correct example of a test-first approach to development
d) Is not correct. Performance-Driven Development is not a correct example of a test-first approach to development

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Debugging is the process of finding, analyzing, and removing the causes of failures in a component or system
b) Is not correct. Testing is the process concerned with planning, preparation and evaluation of a component or system and related work products to determine that they satisfy specified requirements, to demonstrate that they are fit for purpose and to detect defects. It is not related to fixing causes of failures
c) Is not correct. Requirement elicitation is the process of gathering, capturing, and consolidating requirements from available sources. It is not related to fixing causes of failures
d) Is not correct. Defect management is the process of recognizing, recording, classifying, investigating, resolving, and disposing of defects. It is not related to fixing causes of failures

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The test automation approach is defined by testers with the help of developers and business representatives
b) Is not correct. The test strategy is decided in collaboration with the developers
c) Is not correct. Testers, developers, and business representatives are part of the whole team approach
d) Is correct. Testers will work closely with business representatives to ensure that the desired quality levels are achieved. This includes supporting and collaborating with them to help them create suitable acceptance tests

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Checking that the sort function puts the elements of the list or array in ascending order is evaluating the functional correctness of the sort function, which is part of functional testing
b) Is not correct. Assessing whether the sort function meets its non-functional requirement to complete within one second is part of testing its performance efficiency, which is part of non-functional testing
c) Is not correct. Evaluating the ease with which the sort function can be modified from sorting ascending to sorting descending is testing its modifiability, a form of non-functional maintainability testing, which is part of non-functional testing
d) Is not correct. Assessing that the sort function still functions correctly when moved from a 32-bit to a 64-bit architecture is testing its adaptability, a form of portability testing, which is part of non-functional testing

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed tool categories:

i. Collaboration tools – facilitate communication. Communication does not include the facilitation of test execution
ii. DevOps tools - support the DevOps delivery pipeline, workflow tracking, automated build process(es) and CI/CD. The delivery pipeline and CI/CD both include the facilitation of test execution, such as component testing for CI
iii. Management tools – increase the test process efficiency by facilitating management of the SDLC, requirements, tests, defects and configuration. The management of these items does not include the facilitation of test execution
iv. Non-functional testing tools – allow the tester to perform non-functional testing that is difficult or impossible to perform manually. Non-functional testing can include both static testing and dynamic testing, including test execution
v. Test design and implementation tools – facilitate generation of test cases, test data and test procedures. The generation of this testware does not include the facilitation of test execution

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct. Both DevOps tools (ii) and Non-functional testing tools (iv) facilitate test execution
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed roles:

1. Scribe (or Recorder) - responsible for gathering feedback from reviewers and documenting review information, such as decisions made, and any new anomalies identified during the review meeting. (Records review information, such as decisions and new anomalies found during the review meeting - B)
2. Review Leader - responsible for overseeing the review process, such as selecting the review team members, scheduling review meetings, and ensuring that the review is completed successfully.
(Takes overall responsibility for the review such as organizing when and where the review will take place - D)
3. Facilitator (or Moderator) - responsible for ensuring that the review meetings run effectively, including managing time, mediating discussions, and creating a safe environment where everyone can voice their opinions freely. (Ensures the effective running of review meetings and the setting up of a safe review environment - A)
4. Manager - responsible for deciding what needs to be reviewed and allocating resources, such as staff and time, for the review. (Decides what is to be reviewed and provides resources, such as staff and time for the review - C)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is correct. The correct match is: 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C
d) Is not correc

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. This test covers two acceptance criteria: one about editing the document and one about saving changes
b) Is not correct. Acceptance criteria cover the editor activities, not the content owner activities
c) Is not correct. Scheduling the edited content for publication may be a nice feature, but it is not covered by the acceptance criteria
d) Is not correct. Acceptance criteria state about reassigning from an editor to the content owner, not to another editor

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Test monitoring involves the ongoing checking of all activities and comparison of actual progress against the test plan. Test control involves taking the actions necessary to meet the test objectives of the test plan. No test data are prepared during these activities
b) Is not correct. Test analysis includes analyzing the test basis to identify test conditions and prioritize them. Test design includes elaborating the test conditions into test cases and other testware. Test data are not prepared during these activities
c) Is correct. Test implementation includes creating or acquiring the testware necessary for test execution (e.g., test data)
d) Is not correct. Test completion activities occur at project milestones (e.g., release, end of iteration, test level completion), so it is too late for preparing test data

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed test activities and their output testware:

A. Test analysis - prioritized test conditions (4) (e.g., acceptance criteria), and defect reports for defects identified in the test basis
B. Test design - prioritized test cases, test charters, coverage items (1), test data requirements, and test environment requirements
C. Test implementation - test procedures, automated test scripts, test suites, test data, test execution schedule (3), and test environment elements such as stubs, drivers, simulators, and service virtualizations
D. Test completion - test completion report, documented lessons learned, action items for improvement, and change requests (2) (as product backlog items)

Thus:
a) Is correct. The correct match is: 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Test progress reports are mostly used during test monitoring and control, and test completion, not during test design
b) Is correct. A test completion report is prepared during test completion, when a project, test level, or test type is complete and when, ideally, its exit criteria have been met. This report uses information from test progress reports and other data
c) Is not correct. Test progress reports are mostly used during test monitoring and control, and test completion, not during test analysis
d) Is not correct. Test progress reports are most used during test monitoring and control, and test completion, not during test planning

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Test design involves using test conditions to create test cases and other necessary testware, such as test data requirements and test charters for exploratory testing. Test environment requirements are also specified, including the necessary infrastructure and tools
b) Is not correct. Test execution involves executing test cases (as part of test procedures), however it does not directly cover the other testware mentioned in the question, such as test data requirements, test environment requirements and test conditions
c) Is not correct. Test analysis is used to identify the features that require testing. The test basis is analyzed and defined as test conditions, which are then prioritized along with related risks. While this activity involves working with test conditions, it does not cover the other testware mentioned in the question, such as test data requirements, test environment requirements and test cases
d) Is not correct. Test implementation includes the generation of test procedures, such as manual and automated test scripts, which are created from test cases and may be assembled into test suites. Test procedures are prioritized and arranged in a test execution schedule. Test data is created, and the test environment built, and its set up verified. While this activity involves explicitly working with test cases, and may use test data requirements and test environment requirements to create test data and the test environment, it does not cover test conditions

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. This should be a team activity and not overruled by one team member
b) Is correct. If test estimates are not the same, but the variation in the results is small, applying rules like “accept the number with the most votes” can be applied
c) Is not correct. There is no consensus yet as some say 13, others say 8
d) Is not correct. A feature should not be removed only because the team cannot agree on the test estimates

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The test case is related to viewing previous orders in the order history
b) Is not correct. The test case is related to viewing previous orders
c) Is not correct. The test case is related to viewing previous orders in the order history
d) Is correct. The test case is related to the registration process, which is not discussed in the user story. The user story is about viewing previous orders