Exam 5 – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 03, 2024 By

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Exam 5

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1 / 40

1. Which item correctly identifies a potential risk of performing test automation?

a) It may introduce unknown regressions in production

b) Sufficient efforts to maintain testware may not be properly allocated

c) Testing tools and associated testware may not be sufficiently relied upon

d) It may reduce the time allocated for manual testing

Select ONE option.

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2. What task may management take on during a formal review?

a) Taking overall responsibility for the review

b) Deciding what is to be reviewed

c) Ensuring the effective running of review meetings, and mediating, if necessary

d) Recording review information such as review decisions

Select ONE option.

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3. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a risk of test automation?

a) The detection of additional high-severity defects

b) Providing measures that are too complicated for humans to derive

c) Incompatibility with the development platform

d) Substantially reduced test execution times

Select ONE options.

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4. Let the branch coverage metric be defined as BCov = (X / Y) * 100%.

What do X and Y represent in this formula?

a) X = number of decision outcomes exercised by the test cases Y = total number of decision outcomes in the code

b) X = number of conditional branches exercised by the test cases Y = total number of branches in the code

c) X = number of branches exercised by the test cases Y = total number of branches in the code

d) X = number of conditional branches exercised by the test cases Y = total number of decision outcomes in the code

Select ONE option.

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5. Tools from which of the following categories help with the organization of test cases, detected defects and configuration management?

a) Test execution and coverage tools

b) Test design and implementation tools

c) Defect management tools

d) Test management tools

Select ONE option.

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6. Consider the following part of a test plan.

Testing will be performed using component testing and component integration testing. The regulations require to demonstrate that 100% branch coverage is achieved for each component classified as critical.

Which part of the test plan does this part belong to?

a) Communication

b) Risk register

c) Context of testing

d) Test approach

Select ONE option.

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7. Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur as a result of a retrospective?

a) The quality of future test objects improves by identifying improvements in development practices

b) Test efficiency improves by speeding up the configuration of test environments through automation

c) End users’ understanding of the development and test processes is improved

d) Automated test scripts are enhanced through feedback from developers

Select ONE option.

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8. Consider the following defect report for a Book Lending System.

Which of the following is MOST likely to help the developer reproduce the failure quickly?

a) Adding information about which users and which books the issue affects to the “Description” section

b) Filling in the missing value for the “Priority” field

c) Adding memory dumps and database snapshots taken after each step described in the “Steps to Reproduce” section to the “Attachments” section.

d) Repeating the same test case for different environments and writing defect reports for each of them separately

Select ONE options.

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9. Which of the following is NOT an example of the shift left approach?

a) Reviewing the user requirements before they are formally accepted by the stakeholders

b) Writing a component test before the corresponding code is written

c) Executing a performance efficiency test for a component during component testing

d) Writing a test script before setting up the configuration management process

Select ONE option.

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10. How can white-box testing be useful in support of black-box testing?

a) White-box coverage measures can help testers evaluate black-box tests in terms of the code coverage achieved by these black-box tests

b) White-box coverage analysis can help testers identify unreachable fragments of the source code

c) Branch testing subsumes black-box test techniques, so achieving full branch coverage guarantees achieving full coverage of any black-box technique

d) White-box test techniques can provide coverage items for black-box techniques

Select ONE option.

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11. Which of the following statements about DevOps is CORRECT?

a) To speed up releases, continuous integration is used to encourage developers to submit code quickly without the need to complete component testing

b) To be able to update and release systems on a more frequent basis, many automated regression tests are required to reduce the danger of regression

c) To treat both developers and operations equally, the testers will allocate more effort to release testing by operations using a shift-right approach

d) To create increased synergy between testers, developers and operations, the testing must become fully automated with no manual testing

Select ONE option.

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12. Which of the following is true about exploratory testing?

a) Test cases are designed before the exploratory testing session starts

b) The tester can perform test execution, but cannot perform test design

c) Exploratory testing results are good predictors of the number of remaining defects

d) During exploratory testing the tester may use black-box test techniques

Select ONE option.

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13. What is the relationship between the testing quadrants, test levels and test types?

a) Testing quadrants represent particular combinations of test levels and test types, defining their location in the software development lifecycle

b) Testing quadrants describe the degree of granularity of individual test types performed at each test level

c) Testing quadrants assign the test types that can be performed to the test levels

d) Testing quadrants group test levels and test types by several criteria such as targeting specific stakeholders

Select ONE option.

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14. According to the testing quadrants model, which of the following falls into quadrant Q1 (“technology facing” and “support the team”)?

a) Usability testing

b) Functional testing

c) User acceptance testing

d) Component integration testing

Select ONE option.

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15. Consider the following rule: “for every SDLC activity there is a corresponding test activity”. In which SDLC models does this rule hold?

a) Only in sequential SDLC models

b) Only in iterative SDLC models

c) Only in iterative and incremental SDLC models

d) In sequential, incremental, and iterative SDLC models

Select ONE option.

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16. You are testing a sort function that gets a set of numbers as input and returns the same set of numbers sorted in ascending order. The log from the test execution looks as follows.

Which of the following provides the BEST description of the failure that can be used in a defect report?

a) The system fails to sort several sets of numbers. Reference: TC3, TC4, TC5.

b) The system seems to disregard duplicates while sorting. Reference: TC3, TC4, TC5.

c) The system fails to sort negative numbers. Reference: TC4, TC5.

d) TC3, TC4 and TC5 have defects (duplicate input data) and should be corrected.

Select ONE option.

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17. Which of the following is an advantage of the whole team approach?

a) Improved communication between team members

b) Decreased individual accountability for quality

c) Faster deployment of deliverables to the end users

d) Reduced collaboration with external business users

Select ONE option.

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18. You are testing a mobile application that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. You are running a test suite that involves evaluating each screen, and each field on each screen, against a general list of user interface best practices derived from a popular book on the topic that maximizes attractiveness, ease-of-use, and accessibility for such applications. Which of the following options BEST categorizes the test technique you are using?

a) Black-box

b) Exploratory

c) Checklist-based

d) Error guessing

Select ONE option.

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19. Which of the following is a typical test objective?

a) Validating that documented requirements are met

b) Causing failures and identifying defects

c) Initiating errors and identifying root causes

d) Verifying the test object meets user expectations

Select ONE option.

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20. What does the test pyramid model show?

a) That tests may have different priorities

b) That tests may have different granularity

c) That tests may require different coverage criteria

d) That tests may depend on other tests

Select ONE option.

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21. The table shows the traceability matrix from test cases to requirements. “X” means that a given test case covers the corresponding requirement.

You want to prioritize the test cases following the additional coverage prioritization technique.

You execute all four test cases.

Which test case should be executed as the LAST one?

a) TC1

b) TC2

c) TC3

d) TC4

Select ONE options.

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22. You have been assigned as a tester to a team producing a new system incrementally. You have noticed that no changes have been made to the existing regression test cases for several iterations and no new regression defects were identified. Your manager is happy, but you are not. Which testing principle explains your skepticism?

a) Tests wear out

b) Absence-of-errors fallacy

c) Defects cluster together

d) Exhaustive testing is impossible

Select ONE option.

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23. You are testing a PIN validator, which accepts valid PINs and rejects invalid PINs. A PIN is a sequence of digits. A PIN is valid if it consists of four digits, at least two of which are different. You have identified the following valid equivalence partitions:

Variable: PIN code length

• The partition “length correct” - four-digit PINs
• The partition “length incorrect” - PINs with length other than 4

Variable: Number of different digits

• The partition “number of different digits correct” - PINs with at least two different digits
• The partition “number of different digits incorrect” - PINs with all digits being the same

Which of the following is a MINIMUM set of input test data that covers all identified equivalence partitions?

a) 1, 1111, 1234

b) 111, 1111, 1112

c) 1, 12345

d) 12345, 1234

Select ONE option.

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24. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independence of testing?

a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team

b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines

c) An independent test team can work separately from the developers, need not be distracted with project requirement changes, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system

d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer

Select ONE option.

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25. A designer documents a design for a user interface that does not suitably address disabled users because the designer is tired. The programmer implements the user interface in line with the design but as they are working under severe time pressure, they do not include suitable exception handling in their program code for bonus calculations. When the operational system is used, complaints are made by some disabled users about the interface and the company is subsequently fined by the relevant regulatory authority. No one notices that bonus calculations are sometimes incorrect.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a) The miscalculation of bonuses is a defect that occasionally occurs

b) The fine received for failing to address some disabled users is a failure

c) The programmer working under severe time pressure is a root cause

d) The design of the user interface includes a designer error

Select ONE option.

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26. Which of the following BEST describes how using checklist-based testing can result in increased coverage?

a) Checklist items can be defined at a sufficiently low level of detail, so the tester can implement and execute detailed test cases based on these items

b) Checklists can be automated, so each time an automated test execution covers the checklist items, it results in additional coverage

c) Each checklist item should be tested separately and independently, so the elements cover different areas of the software

d) Two testers designing and executing tests based on the same high-level checklist items will typically perform the testing in slightly different ways

Select ONE option.

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27. Which TWO of the following options are common metrics used for reporting on the quality level of the test object?

a) Number of defects found during system testing

b) Total effort on test design divided by the number of designed test cases

c) Number of executed test procedures

d) Number of defects found divided by the size of a work product

e) Time needed to repair a defect

Select TWO options.

28 / 40

28. Given the following test tasks:

1. Derive test cases from test conditions
2. Identify reusable testware
3. Organize test cases into test procedures
4. Evaluate test basis and test object

And the following test activities:

A. Test analysis
B. Test design
C. Test implementation
D. Test completion

Which of the following BEST matches the tasks with the activities?

a) 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C

b) 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A

c) 1C, 2A, 3B, 4D

d) 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B

Select ONE option.

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29. Your test suite achieved 100% statement coverage. What is the consequence of this fact?

a) Each instruction in the code that contains a defect has been executed at least once

b) Any test suite containing more test cases than your test suite will also achieve 100% statement coverage

c) Each path in the code has been executed at least once

d) Every combination of input values has been tested at least once

Select ONE option.

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30. Which of the following is NOT a valid purpose for a test report?

a) Tracking test progress and identifying areas that require further attention

b) Providing information on the tests executed, their results, and any issues or defects found

c) Providing information about each defect, such as the steps to reproduce it

d) Providing information on testing planned for the next period

Select ONE options.

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31. You are testing a mobile application that allows users to find a nearby restaurant based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (i.e., a smaller number means a higher priority), and dependencies:

Which of the following test cases should be executed as the third one?

a) TC 003

b) TC 005

c) TC 002

d) TC 001

Select ONE option.

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32. The navigation system software has been updated due to it suggesting routes that break traffic laws, such as driving the wrong way down one-way streets. Which of the following BEST describes the testing that will be performed?

a) Only confirmation testing

b) Confirmation testing then regression testing

c) Only regression testing

d) Regression testing then confirmation testing

Select ONE option.

33 / 40

33. Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between decision table testing and branch testing?

a) In decision table testing, the test cases are derived from the decision statements in the code. In branch testing, the test cases are derived from knowledge of the control flow of the test object.

b) In decision table testing, the test cases are derived from the specification that describes the business logic. In branch testing the test cases are based on anticipation of potential defects in the source code.

c) In decision table testing, the test cases are derived from knowledge of the control flow of the test object. In branch testing, test cases are derived from the specification that describes the business logic.

d) In decision table testing, the test cases are independent of how the software is implemented. In branch testing, test cases can be created only after the design or implementation of the code.

Select ONE option.

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34. Which of the following skills (i-v) are the MOST important skills of a tester?

i. Having domain knowledge
ii. Creating a product vision
iii. Being a good team player
iv. Planning and organizing the work of the team
v. Critical thinking

a) ii and iv are important

b) i, iii and v are important

c) i, ii and v are important

d) iii and iv are important

Select ONE option.

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35. How do testers add value to iteration and release planning?

a) Testers determine the priority of the user stories to be developed

b) Testers focus only on the functional aspects of the system to be tested

c) Testers participate in the detailed risk identification and risk assessment of user stories

d) Testers guarantee the release of high-quality software through early test design during the release planning

Select ONE option.

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36. Which of the following is MOST likely to be performed as part of system testing?

a) Security testing of a credit management system by an independent test team

b) Testing the interface of a currency exchange system with an external banking system

c) Beta testing of a remote learning system by courseware developers

d) Testing interactions between the user interface and database of a human resources system

Select ONE option.

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37. Which of the following BEST describes retrospectives?

a) Retrospectives allow team members to identify other team members who did not fully contribute to achieving quality as required by the whole-team approach

b) Retrospectives give testers an opportunity to identify activities that were successful so that these are retained when potential improvements are made in the future

c) Retrospectives are where agile team members are allowed to voice their concerns about management and customers in a blame-free environment

d) Retrospectives give agile team members a forum where they focus on discussing the plan and technical decisions for the next iteration

Select ONE option.

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38. Given the following review types:

1. Technical review
2. Informal review
3. Inspection
4. Walkthrough

And the following descriptions:

A. Includes objectives such as gaining consensus, generating new ideas, and motivating authors to improve
B. Includes objectives such as educating reviewers, gaining consensus, generating new ideas and detecting potential defects
C. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it requires metrics collection to support process improvement
D. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it generates no formal documented output

Which of the following BEST matches the review types and the descriptions?

a) 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D

b) 1A, 2D, 3C, 4B

c) 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A

d) 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B

Select ONE option.

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed review types:

1. Technical review - This type of review is performed by technically qualified reviewers and led by a moderator. The objectives are to gain consensus and make decisions on technical problems while also evaluating quality and building confidence in the work product, generating new ideas, motivating and enabling authors to improve, and detecting anomalies
2. Informal review - The main objective is to detect anomalies. The process is not defined and does not require formal documented output
3. Inspection - This is the most formal review type, and it follows the complete generic review process. The primary objective is to find the most anomalies, and other objectives include evaluating quality and building confidence in the work product, motivating and enabling authors to improve, and collecting metrics that can be used to enhance the software development life cycle (SDLC), including the inspection process. The author cannot act as the review leader or scribe
4. Walkthrough - Led by the author, this type of review serves various objectives such as evaluating quality and building confidence in the work product, educating reviewers, gaining consensus, generating new ideas, motivating and enabling authors to improve, and detecting anomalies. Reviewers might perform an individual review before the walkthrough, but this is not mandatory

A. Includes objectives such as gaining consensus, generating new ideas, and motivating authors to improve (A)
B. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it generates no formal documented output (D)
C. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it requires metrics collection to support process improvement (C)
D. Includes objectives such as educating reviewers, gaining consensus, generating new ideas and detecting potential defects (B)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct. The correct match is: 1A, 2D, 3C, 4B
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

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39. Which of the following is an example of how product risk analysis influences thoroughness and scope of testing?

a) The test manager monitors and reports the level of all known risks on a daily basis so the stakeholders can make an informed decision on the release date

b) One of the identified risks was "Lack of support of open-source databases", so the team decided to integrate the system with an open-source database

c) During the quantitative risk analysis, the team estimated the total level of all identified risks and reported it as the total residual risk before testing

d) Risk assessment revealed a very high level of performance risks, so it was decided to perform detailed performance efficiency testing early in the SDLC

Select ONE option.

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40. During risk analysis the team considered the following risk: “The system allows too high a discount for a customer”. The team estimated the risk impact to be very high.

What can one say about the risk likelihood?

a) It is also very high. High risk impact always implies high risk likelihood

b) It is very low. High risk impact always implies low risk likelihood

c) One cannot say anything about risk likelihood. Risk impact and risk likelihood are independent.

d) Risk likelihood is not important with such a high-risk impact. One does not need to define it.

Select ONE option.

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