Exam 5 – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 03, 2024 By

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Exam 5

Name

1 / 40

1. For a given risk, its risk level is $1,000 and its risk likelihood is estimated as 50%.

What is the risk impact?

a) $500

b) $2,000

c) $50,000

d) $200

Select ONE options.

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2. You are designing test cases based on the following decision table.

So far you have designed the following test cases:

• TC1: 19-year-old, unregistered man with no experience; expected result: category A
• TC2: 65-year-old, unregistered woman with 5 years of experience; expected result: category B
• TC3: 66-year-old, registered man with no experience; expected result: category C
• TC4: 65-year-old, registered woman with 4 years of experience; expected result:
category D

Which of the following test cases, when added to the existing set of test cases, will increase the decision table coverage?

a) 66-year-old, unregistered man with no experience; expected result: category B

b) 55-year-old, unregistered woman with 2 years of experience; expected result: category A

c) 19-year-old, registered woman with 5 years of experience; expected result: category D

d) No additional test case can increase the already achieved decision table coverage

Select ONE option.

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3. The following is a list of the work products produced in the SDLC.

i. Business requirements
ii. Schedule
iii. Test budget
iv. Third-party executable code
v. User stories and their acceptance criteria

Which of them can be reviewed?

a) i and iv can be reviewed

b) i, ii, iii and iv can be reviewed

c) i, ii, iii, and v can be reviewed

d) iii, iv, v can be reviewed

Select ONE option.

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4. Which of the following BEST fits as an element of the checklist used in checklist-based testing?

a) “The developer made an error when implementing the code”

b) “The achieved statement coverage exceeds 85%”

c) “The program works correctly regarding functional and non-functional requirements”

d) “The error messages are written in language that the user can understand”

Select ONE option.

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5. Your organization’s test strategy suggests that once a system is going to be retired, data migration shall be tested. As part of what test type is this testing MOST likely to be performed?

a) Maintenance testing

b) Regression testing

c) Component testing

d) Integration testing

Select ONE option.

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6. You perform system testing of an e-commerce web application and are provided with the following requirement:

REQ 05-017. If the total cost of purchases exceeds $100, the customer gets a 5% discount on subsequent purchases. Otherwise, the customer does not receive a discount.

Which test techniques will be MOST helpful in designing test cases based on this requirement?

a) White-box test techniques

b) Black-box test techniques

c) Experience-based test techniques

d) Risk-based test techniques

Select ONE option.

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7. During a risk analysis the following risk was identified and assessed:

• Risk: Response time is too long to generate a report
• Risk likelihood: medium; risk impact: high
• Response to risk:

o An independent test team performs performance testing during system testing
o A selected sample of end users performs alpha and beta acceptance testing before the release

What measure is proposed to be taken in response to this analyzed risk?

a) Risk acceptance

b) Contingency plan

c) Risk mitigation

d) Risk transfer

Select ONE option.

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8. Which of the following skills (i-v) are the MOST important skills of a tester?

i. Having domain knowledge
ii. Creating a product vision
iii. Being a good team player
iv. Planning and organizing the work of the team
v. Critical thinking

a) ii and iv are important

b) i, iii and v are important

c) i, ii and v are important

d) iii and iv are important

Select ONE option.

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9. Which of the following BEST describes retrospectives?

a) Retrospectives allow team members to identify other team members who did not fully contribute to achieving quality as required by the whole-team approach

b) Retrospectives give testers an opportunity to identify activities that were successful so that these are retained when potential improvements are made in the future

c) Retrospectives are where agile team members are allowed to voice their concerns about management and customers in a blame-free environment

d) Retrospectives give agile team members a forum where they focus on discussing the plan and technical decisions for the next iteration

Select ONE option.

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10. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a) Regression tests increase in number as the project progresses, whereas the number of confirmation tests decreases as the project progresses

b) Regression tests are created and run when the test object is fixed, whereas confirmation tests are run whenever the test object is enhanced

c) Regression testing is concerned with checking that the operational environment remains unchanged, whereas confirmation testing is concerned with testing changes to the test object

d) Regression testing is concerned with adverse effects in unchanged code, whereas confirmation testing is concerned with testing changed code

Select ONE option.

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11. Your test suite achieved 100% statement coverage. What is the consequence of this fact?

a) Each instruction in the code that contains a defect has been executed at least once

b) Any test suite containing more test cases than your test suite will also achieve 100% statement coverage

c) Each path in the code has been executed at least once

d) Every combination of input values has been tested at least once

Select ONE option.

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12. Your team follows the process that uses the DevOps delivery pipeline. The first three steps of this process are:

(1) Code development
(2) Submit code into a version control system and merge it into the “test” branch
(3) Perform component testing for the submitted code

Which of the following is BEST suited to be the entry criterion for step (2) of this pipeline?

a) Static analysis returns no high severity warnings for the submitted code

b) System version control reports no conflicts when merging code into the “test” branch

c) Component tests are compiled and ready to be executed

d) Statement coverage is at least 80%

Select ONE option.

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13. Which of the arguments below would you use to convince your manager to organize retrospectives at the end of each release cycle?

a) Retrospectives are very popular these days and clients would appreciate it if we added them to our processes

b) Organizing retrospectives will save the organization money because without them end user representatives do not provide immediate feedback about the product

c) Process weaknesses identified during the retrospective can be analyzed and serve as a to do list for the organization’s continuous process improvement program

d) Retrospectives embrace five values including courage and respect, which are crucial to maintain continuous improvement in the organization

Select ONE option.

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14. W A developer was asked to implement the following business rule:

You design the test cases using 2-value boundary value analysis.

Which of the following sets of test inputs achieves the greatest coverage?

a) 100, 150, 200, 201

b) 99, 100, 200, 201

c) 98, 99, 100, 101

d) 101, 150, 199, 200

Select ONE option.

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15. Your team uses planning poker to estimate the test effort for a newly required feature. There is a rule in your team that if there is no time to reach full agreement and the variation in the results is small, applying rules like “accept the number with the most votes” can be applied.
After two rounds, the consensus was not reached, so the third round was initiated. You can see the test estimation results in the table below.

Which of the following is the BEST example of the next step?

a) The product owner has to step in and make a final decision

b) Accept 13 as the final test estimate as this has most of the votes

c) No further action is needed. Consensus has been reached

d) Remove the new feature from the current release because consensus has not been reached

Select ONE option.

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16. Which of the following is NOT an example of how configuration management supports testing?

a) All commits to the repository are uniquely identified and version controlled

b) All changes in the test environment elements are tracked

c) All requirement specifications are referenced unambiguously in test plans

d) All identified defects have an assigned status

Select ONE option.

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17. Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?

a) Behavior-Driven Development

b) Test Level Driven Development

c) Function-Driven Development

d) Performance-Driven Development

Select ONE option.

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18. Let the branch coverage metric be defined as BCov = (X / Y) * 100%.

What do X and Y represent in this formula?

a) X = number of decision outcomes exercised by the test cases Y = total number of decision outcomes in the code

b) X = number of conditional branches exercised by the test cases Y = total number of branches in the code

c) X = number of branches exercised by the test cases Y = total number of branches in the code

d) X = number of conditional branches exercised by the test cases Y = total number of decision outcomes in the code

Select ONE option.

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19. You are testing a simplified apartment search form which has only two search criteria:

• floor (with three possible options: ground floor; first floor; second or higher floor)
• garden type (with three possible options: no garden; small garden; large garden)

Only apartments on the ground floor have gardens. The form has a built-in validation mechanism that will not allow you to use the search criteria which violate this rule.

Each test has two input values: floor and garden type. You want to apply equivalence partitioning (EP) to cover each floor and each garden type in your tests.

What is the minimal number of test cases to achieve 100% EP coverage?

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

Select ONE option

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20. Which of the following statements about branch testing is CORRECT?

a) If a program includes only unconditional branches, then 100% branch coverage can be achieved without executing any test cases

b) If the test cases exercise all unconditional branches in the code, then 100% branch coverage is achieved

c) If 100% statement coverage is achieved, then 100% branch coverage is also achieved

d) If 100% branch coverage is achieved, then all decision outcomes in each decision statement in the code are exercised

Select ONE option.

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21. Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and debugging?

a) Testing causes failures while debugging fixes failures

b) Testing is a negative activity while debugging is a positive activity

c) Testing determines that defects exist while debugging removes defects

d) Testing finds the cause of defects while debugging fixes the cause of defects

Select ONE option.

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22. Your test suite S for a program P achieves 100% statement coverage. It consists of three test cases, each of which achieves 50% statement coverage.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a) Executing S will cause all possible failures in P

b) S achieves 100% branch coverage for P

c) Every executable statement in P containing a defect has been run at least once during the execution of S

d) After removing one test case from S, the remaining two test cases will still achieve 100% statement coverage

Select ONE option.

23 / 40

23. Which of these statements is NOT a factor that contributes to successful reviews?

a) Participants should dedicate adequate time for the review

b) Splitting large work products into small parts to make the required effort less intense

c) Participants should avoid behaviors that might indicate boredom, exasperation, or hostility to other participants

d) Failures found should be acknowledged, appreciated, and handled objectively

Select ONE option.

24 / 40

24. Given the following descriptions:

1. Support workflow tracking
2. Facilitate communication
3. Virtual machines
4. Support reviews

And the following test tool categories:

A. Static testing tools
B. Tools supporting scalability and deployment standardization
C. DevOps tools
D. Collaboration tools

Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions and categories?

a) 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D

b) 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A

c) 1C, 2D, 3B, 4A

d) 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B

Explanation / Rationale

25 / 40

25. Which of the following are product risks?

a) Scope creep

b) Poor architecture

c) Cost-cutting

d) Poor tool support

e) Response time too long

Select TWO options.

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26. What is the relationship between the testing quadrants, test levels and test types?

a) Testing quadrants represent particular combinations of test levels and test types, defining their location in the software development lifecycle

b) Testing quadrants describe the degree of granularity of individual test types performed at each test level

c) Testing quadrants assign the test types that can be performed to the test levels

d) Testing quadrants group test levels and test types by several criteria such as targeting specific stakeholders

Select ONE option.

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27. Which TWO of the following tasks belong MAINLY to a testing role?

a) Configure test environments

b) Maintain the product backlog

c) Design solutions to new requirements

d) Create the test plan

e) Report on achieved coverage

Select TWO options.

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28. Which of the following statements describe a valid test objective?

a) To prove that there are no unfixed defects in the system under test

b) To prove that there will be no failures after the implementation of the system into production

c) To reduce the risk level of the test object and to build confidence in the quality level

d) To verify that there are no untested combinations of inputs

Select ONE option.

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29. Which collaborative user story writing practice enables the team to achieve a collective understanding of what needs to be delivered?

a) Planning poker, so that a team can achieve consensus on the effort needed to implement a user story

b) Reviews, so that a team can detect inconsistencies and contradictions in a user story

c) Iteration planning, so that user stories with the highest business value for a customer can be prioritized for implementation

d) Conversation, so that team members can understand how the software will be used

Select ONE option.

30 / 40

30. You are working on a project to develop a system to analyze driving test results. You have been asked to design test cases based on the following decision table.

What test data will show that there are contradictory rules in the decision table?

a) C1 = T, C2 = T, C3 = F

b) C1 = T, C2 = F, C3 = T

c) C1 = T, C2 = T, C3 = T and C1 = F, C2 = T, C3 = T

d) C1 = F, C2 = F, C3 = F

Select ONE option.

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31. Which of the following is true about exploratory testing?

a) Test cases are designed before the exploratory testing session starts

b) The tester can perform test execution, but cannot perform test design

c) Exploratory testing results are good predictors of the number of remaining defects

d) During exploratory testing the tester may use black-box test techniques

Select ONE option.

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32. You are testing a PIN validator, which accepts valid PINs and rejects invalid PINs. A PIN is a sequence of digits. A PIN is valid if it consists of four digits, at least two of which are different. You have identified the following valid equivalence partitions:

Variable: PIN code length

• The partition “length correct” - four-digit PINs
• The partition “length incorrect” - PINs with length other than 4

Variable: Number of different digits

• The partition “number of different digits correct” - PINs with at least two different digits
• The partition “number of different digits incorrect” - PINs with all digits being the same

Which of the following is a MINIMUM set of input test data that covers all identified equivalence partitions?

a) 1, 1111, 1234

b) 111, 1111, 1112

c) 1, 12345

d) 12345, 1234

Select ONE option.

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33. Which of the following statements about quality assurance (QA) and/or quality control (QC) is correct?

a) QA is performed as part of testing

b) Testing is performed as part of QC

c) Testing is another term for QC

d) Testing is performed as part of QA

Select ONE option.

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34. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes:

• There is the role of a scribe
• The main purpose is to evaluate quality
• The meeting is led by the author of the work product
• There is individual preparation
• A review report is produced

Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used?

a) Informal review

b) Walkthrough

c) Technical review

d) Inspection

Select ONE option.

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35. Which of the following is an advantage of the whole-team approach?

a) Teams with no testers

b) Improved team dynamics

c) Specialist team members

d) Larger team sizes

Select ONE option.

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36. Given the following benefits and drawbacks of the independence of testing:

i. The testers work in a different location from the developers
ii. Testers question the assumptions programmers make while writing code
iii. A confrontational dynamic has been established between testers and developers
iv. Developers have convinced themselves that testers are mostly accountable for quality
v. Testers have different biases than those held by the developers

Which are MOST likely to be considered benefits?

a) i, iv

b) ii, v

c) i, iii, iv

d) ii, iii, v

Select ONE option.

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37. Which of the following is MOST likely to impact how testing is performed for a given test object?

a) The average level of experience of the organization’s marketing team

b) The knowledge of users that a new system is being developed for them

c) The number of years’ experience of the members of the test team

d) The end user’s organizational structure for a commercial music streaming application

Select ONE option.

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38. Which of the following statements about DevOps is CORRECT?

a) To speed up releases, continuous integration is used to encourage developers to submit code quickly without the need to complete component testing

b) To be able to update and release systems on a more frequent basis, many automated regression tests are required to reduce the danger of regression

c) To treat both developers and operations equally, the testers will allocate more effort to release testing by operations using a shift-right approach

d) To create increased synergy between testers, developers and operations, the testing must become fully automated with no manual testing

Select ONE option.

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39. You want to estimate the test effort for the new project using estimation based on ratios. You calculate the test-to-development effort ratio using averaged data for both development effort and test effort from four historical projects similar to the new one. The table shows this historical data.

The estimated development effort for the new project is $800,000. What is your estimate of the test effort in this project?

a) $40,000

b) $80,000

c) $81,250

d) $82,500

Select ONE option.

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40. Which of the following is an example of how product risk analysis influences thoroughness and scope of testing?

a) The test manager monitors and reports the level of all known risks on a daily basis so the stakeholders can make an informed decision on the release date

b) One of the identified risks was "Lack of support of open-source databases", so the team decided to integrate the system with an open-source database

c) During the quantitative risk analysis, the team estimated the total level of all identified risks and reported it as the total residual risk before testing

d) Risk assessment revealed a very high level of performance risks, so it was decided to perform detailed performance efficiency testing early in the SDLC

Select ONE option.

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