Exam 5 – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 03, 2024 By

Admin

Exam 5

Name

1 / 40

1. You are testing a form that verifies the correctness of the length of the password given as input. The form accepts a password with the correct length and rejects a password that is too short or too long. The password length is correct if it has between 6 and 12 characters inclusive. Otherwise, it is considered incorrect.

At first, the form is empty (password length = 0). You apply boundary value analysis to the “password length” variable.

Your set of test cases achieves 100% 2-value boundary value coverage. The team decided that due to the high risk of this component, test cases should be added to ensure 100% 3-value boundary value coverage.

Which additional password lengths should be tested to achieve this?

a) 4, 5, 13, 14

b) 7, 11

c) 1, 5, 13

d) 1, 4, 7, 11, 14

Select ONE option.

2 / 40

2. Which of the following is an example of a defect that can be found by static testing but NOT by dynamic testing?

a) Lack of usability provided through the user interface

b) Code with no path that reaches it

c) Poor response times for most of the expected users

d) Required features that are not implemented in the code

Select ONE option.

3 / 40

3. For a given risk, its risk level is $1,000 and its risk likelihood is estimated as 50%.

What is the risk impact?

a) $500

b) $2,000

c) $50,000

d) $200

Select ONE options.

4 / 40

4. Which of the following is a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

a) For each test level, there is a corresponding development level

b) For each test objective, there is a corresponding development objective

c) For every software test activity, there is a corresponding user activity

d) For every software development activity, there is a corresponding test activity

Select ONE option.

5 / 40

5. At the beginning of each iteration, the team estimates the amount of work (in person-days) they will need to complete during the iteration. Let E(n) be the estimated amount of work for iteration n, and let A(n) be the actual amount of work done in iteration n. From the third iteration, the team uses the following estimation model based on extrapolation:

The graph shows the estimated and actual amount of work for the first four iterations.

What is the estimated amount of work for iteration #5?

a) 10.5 person-days

b) 8.25 person-days

c) 6.5 person-days

d) 9.4 person-days

Select ONE option.

6 / 40

6. Which of the following BEST describes the way acceptance criteria can be documented?

a) Performing retrospectives to determine the actual needs of the stakeholders regarding a given user story

b) Using the given/when/then format to describe an example test condition related to a given user story

c) Using verbal communication to reduce the risk of misunderstanding the acceptance criteria by others

d) Documenting risks related to a given user story in a test plan to facilitate the risk-based testing of a given user story

Select ONE option.

7 / 40

7. Which test activity involves working with test data requirements, test conditions, test environment requirements and test cases?

a) Test design

b) Test execution

c) Test analysis

d) Test implementation

Select ONE option.

8 / 40

8. Which of the following is the BEST example of how traceability supports testing?

a) Performing the impact analysis of a change will give information about the completion of the tests

b) Analyzing the traceability between test cases and test results will give information about the estimated level of residual risk

c) Performing the impact analysis of a change will help selecting the right test cases for regression testing

d) Analyzing the traceability between the test basis, the test objects and the test cases will help in selecting test data to achieve the assumed coverage of the test object

Select ONE option.

9 / 40

9. Which of the following statements is a CORRECT example of the value of traceability?

a) Traceability between the mitigated risks and passing test cases provides a means of determining the level of residual risk

b) Traceability between user requirements and test execution results provides a means of measuring project progress against business goals

c) Traceability between testers and failing test cases provides a means of determining the skill level of the testers

d) Traceability between the identified risks and written test conditions provides a means of determining which risks are worth testing

Select ONE option.

10 / 40

10. Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and debugging?

a) Testing causes failures while debugging fixes failures

b) Testing is a negative activity while debugging is a positive activity

c) Testing determines that defects exist while debugging removes defects

d) Testing finds the cause of defects while debugging fixes the cause of defects

Select ONE option.

11 / 40

11. Which of the following is NOT an example of how configuration management supports testing?

a) All commits to the repository are uniquely identified and version controlled

b) All changes in the test environment elements are tracked

c) All requirement specifications are referenced unambiguously in test plans

d) All identified defects have an assigned status

Select ONE option.

12 / 40

12. Consider the following defect report for a web-based shopping application:

What is the MOST important information that is missing from this report?

a) Name of the tester and date of the report

b) Test environment elements and their version numbers

c) Identification of the test object

d) Impact on the interests of stakeholders

Select ONE option.

13 / 40

13. Which of the following statements about the chosen software development lifecycle is CORRECT?

a) If agile software development is used, system test automation replaces the need for regression testing

b) If a sequential development model is used, then the dynamic testing is typically restricted to later in the lifecycle

c) If an iterative development model is used, then component testing is typically performed manually by developers

d) If an incremental development model is used, then static testing is done in early increments and dynamic testing in later increments

Select ONE option.

14 / 40

14. Which of the following BEST describes an example of how configuration management (CM) supports testing?

a) Having the version number of the environment, the CM tool can retrieve the version numbers of libraries, stubs and drivers used in that environment

b) Having a record of the values of the test inputs, the CM tool can execute the test cases for these configurations and calculate test coverage

c) Having data about the date of purchase of a software license, the CM tool automatically generates information about the fact that the product license is coming to an end

d) Having the version number of the test case, the CM tool can automatically generate test data for this test case

Select ONE option.

15 / 40

15. Which of the following BEST define EXIT criteria in a testing project?

a) The budget is approved

b) Budget runs out

c) Test basis is available

d) Test cases achieved at least 80% statement coverage

e) All test analysts are ISTQB certified at the Foundation Level

Select TWO options.

16 / 40

16. The following list contains risks that have been identified for a new software product to be developed:

i. Management moves two experienced testers to another project
ii. The system does not comply with functional safety standards
iii. System response time exceeds user requirements
iv. Stakeholders have inaccurate expectations
v. Disabled people have problems when using the system

Which of them are project risks?

a) i, iv are project risks

b) iv, v are project risks

c) i, iii are project risks

d) ii, v are project risks

Select ONE option.

17 / 40

17. Which of the following BEST describes retrospectives?

a) Retrospectives allow team members to identify other team members who did not fully contribute to achieving quality as required by the whole-team approach

b) Retrospectives give testers an opportunity to identify activities that were successful so that these are retained when potential improvements are made in the future

c) Retrospectives are where agile team members are allowed to voice their concerns about management and customers in a blame-free environment

d) Retrospectives give agile team members a forum where they focus on discussing the plan and technical decisions for the next iteration

Select ONE option.

18 / 40

18. During a risk analysis the following risk was identified and assessed:

• Risk: Response time is too long to generate a report
• Risk likelihood: medium; risk impact: high
• Response to risk:

o An independent test team performs performance testing during system testing
o A selected sample of end users performs alpha and beta acceptance testing before the release

What measure is proposed to be taken in response to this analyzed risk?

a) Risk acceptance

b) Contingency plan

c) Risk mitigation

d) Risk transfer

Select ONE option.

19 / 40

19. Which of the following options shows an example of test activities that contribute to success?

a) Having testers involved during various software development lifecycle (SDLC) activities will help to detect defects in work products

b) Testers try not to disturb the developers while coding, so that the developers write better code

c) Testers collaborating with end users help to improve the quality of defect reports during component integration and system testing

d) Certified testers will design much better test cases than non-certified testers

Select ONE option.

20 / 40

20. Consider the following part of a test plan.

Testing will be performed using component testing and component integration testing. The regulations require to demonstrate that 100% branch coverage is achieved for each component classified as critical.

Which part of the test plan does this part belong to?

a) Communication

b) Risk register

c) Context of testing

d) Test approach

Select ONE option.

21 / 40

21. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent feedback?

a) It improves the test process for future projects

b) It forces customers to prioritize their requirements based on agreed risks

c) It is the only way to measure the quality of changes

d) It helps avoid requirements misunderstandings

Select ONE option.

22 / 40

22. Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?

a) Component Test-Driven Development

b) Integration Test-Driven Development

c) System Test-Driven Development

d) Acceptance Test-Driven Development

Select ONE option.

23 / 40

23. Given the following descriptions:

1. Support workflow tracking
2. Facilitate communication
3. Virtual machines
4. Support reviews

And the following test tool categories:

A. Static testing tools
B. Tools supporting scalability and deployment standardization
C. DevOps tools
D. Collaboration tools

Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions and categories?

a) 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D

b) 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A

c) 1C, 2D, 3B, 4A

d) 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B

Explanation / Rationale

24 / 40

24. Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing?

a) Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past and typical errors made by developers

b) Error guessing involves using your personal experience of development and the errors you made as a developer

c) Error guessing requires you to imagine that you are the user of the test object and to guess errors the user could make interacting with it

d) Error guessing requires you to rapidly duplicate the development task to identify the sort of errors a developer might make

Select ONE option.

25 / 40

25. Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?

a) Ensure management participate as reviewers

b) Split large work products into smaller parts

c) Set reviewer evaluation as an objective

d) Plan to cover one document per review

Select ONE option.

26 / 40

26. A wine storage system uses a control device that measures the wine cell temperature T (measured in °C, rounded to the nearest degree) and alarms the user if it deviates from the optimal value of 12, according to the following rules:

• if T = 12, the system says, “optimal temperature”

• if T < 12, the system says, “temperature is too low!”

• if T > 12, the system says, “temperature is too high!”

You want to use the 3-point boundary value analysis (BVA) to verify the behavior of the control device. A test input is a temperature in °C provided by the device.

What is the MINIMAL set of test inputs that achieves 100% of the desired coverage?

a) 11, 12, 13

b) 10, 12, 14

c) 10, 11, 12, 13, 14

d) 10, 11, 13, 14

Select ONE option.

27 / 40

27. The following is a list of the work products produced in the SDLC.

i. Business requirements
ii. Schedule
iii. Test budget
iv. Third-party executable code
v. User stories and their acceptance criteria

Which of them can be reviewed?

a) i and iv can be reviewed

b) i, ii, iii and iv can be reviewed

c) i, ii, iii, and v can be reviewed

d) iii, iv, v can be reviewed

Select ONE option.

28 / 40

28. Which of the following statements about the value of static testing is CORRECT?

a) The defect types found by static testing are different from the defect types that can be found by dynamic testing

b) Dynamic testing can detect the defect types that can be found by static testing plus some additional defect types

c) Dynamic testing can identify some of the defects that can be found by static testing but not all of them

d) Static testing can identify the defect types that can be found by dynamic testing as well as some extra defect types

Select ONE option.

29 / 40

29. Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed if the testing is focused on validation and is not being performed by testers?

a) Component testing

b) Component integration testing

c) System integration testing

d) Acceptance testing

Select ONE option.

30 / 40

30. You are testing a web application that allows users to SEARCH for products, VIEW product details, ADD products to a shopping cart, and place an ORDER.
You have prepared the following five test cases, which you want to execute according to their priorities:

TC1: SEARCH product A Priority: medium

TC2: VIEW product A details Priority: low

TC3: ADD product B to a shopping cart Priority: medium

TC4: ADD product C to a shopping cart Priority: high

TC5: place an ORDER Priority: high

You also identified the following logical dependencies between test cases:

• SEARCH functionality must be tested before VIEW functionality can be tested, as product details rely on search functionality.
• VIEW functionality must be tested before ADD functionality, as adding products relies on the availability of accurate product details.
• ADD functionality must be tested before ORDER functionality, as placing an order relies on the availability of accurate shopping cart information.

Which test case should be executed as the fourth one?

a) TC3

b) TC1

c) TC2

d) TC4

Select ONE option.

31 / 40

31. Which of the following is MOST likely to describe a task performed by someone in a test management role?

a) Evaluate test basis and test object

b) Define test environment requirements

c) Assess testability of test object

d) Create test completion report

Select ONE option.

32 / 40

32. You are designing test cases based on the following state transition diagram:

What is the MINIMUM number of test cases required to achieve 100% valid transitions coverage?

a) 3

b) 2

c) 5

d) 6

Select ONE option.

33 / 40

33. One of the ‘principles of testing’ states that exhaustive testing is impossible. Which of the following is an example of addressing this principle in practice?

a) Creating test cases that cover every possible specified output

b) Documenting all possible test input variations and prioritizing these based on importance

c) Starting testing as early as possible with reviews and other static testing approaches

d) Using equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to generate test cases

Select ONE option.

Explanation / Rationale

The ‘exhaustive testing is impossible’ principle is concerned with the fact that it is not feasible to test every possible variation of test inputs in all different circumstances, except in trivial cases. Instead, testing utilizes test techniques, test case prioritization, and risk-based testing to sample from the set of possibilities and focus testing efforts.
a) Is not correct. The principle states that it is not feasible to test everything except in trivial cases. Testing everything would require testing every possible variation of test inputs in all different circumstances, which is generally infeasible as there will be a practically infinite number. Testing every possible specified output will not address this problem as the relationship between inputs and specified outputs can be different for each test object. Sometimes there may be a practically infinite number of possible specified outputs (e.g., when there are several variables representing real numbers), whereas at other times there may be just two specified outputs, such as with a single variable that can be either true or false
b) Is not correct. The principle states that it is not feasible to test every possible variation of test inputs in all different circumstances. This is because for non-trivial systems there is a practically infinite number. Therefore, in practice, documenting all possible test input variations would be impractical as it would take an infinite length of time
c) Is not correct. Starting testing as early as possible with reviews and other static testing approaches will not address the problem of there being too many possible test cases. The ‘early testing saves time and money’ principle is concerned with fixing defects early on to prevent the occurrence of subsequent defects in derived work products, thereby reducing costs and the likelihood of failures
d) Is correct. The use of equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to generate test cases is one way to address the principle as these test techniques provide a systematic way to derive a finite subset of all possible test cases

34 / 40

34. Given the following test tool categories:

i. Collaboration tools
ii. DevOps tools
iii. Management tools
iv. Non-functional testing tools
v. Test design and implementation tools

Tools from which of the categories are MOST likely to facilitate test execution?

a) i, v

b) ii, iv

c) i, iii, v

d) ii, iii, iv

Select ONE options.

35 / 40

35. Your organization’s test strategy suggests that once a system is going to be retired, data migration shall be tested. As part of what test type is this testing MOST likely to be performed?

a) Maintenance testing

b) Regression testing

c) Component testing

d) Integration testing

Select ONE option.

36 / 40

36. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent stakeholder feedback?

a) Managers are aware of which developers are less productive

b) It allows project managers to prioritize their stakeholder interactions

c) It facilitates early communication of potential quality issues

d) End users better understand why the delivery of the work product is delayed

Select ONE option.

37 / 40

37. You work as a tester in a project on a mobile application for food ordering for one of your clients. The client sent you a list of requirements. One of them, with high priority, says

“The order must be processed in less than 10 seconds in 95% of the cases”.

You created a set of test cases in which a number of random orders were made, the processing time measured, and the test results were checked against the requirements.

What test type did you perform?

a) Functional, because the test cases cover the user’s business requirement for the system

b) Non-functional, because the measure the system’s performance

c) Functional, because the test cases interact with the user interface

d) Structural, because we need to know the internal structure of the program to measure the order processing time

Select ONE option.

38 / 40

38. You are testing a sort function that gets a set of numbers as input and returns the same set of numbers sorted in ascending order. The log from the test execution looks as follows.

Which of the following provides the BEST description of the failure that can be used in a defect report?

a) The system fails to sort several sets of numbers. Reference: TC3, TC4, TC5.

b) The system seems to disregard duplicates while sorting. Reference: TC3, TC4, TC5.

c) The system fails to sort negative numbers. Reference: TC4, TC5.

d) TC3, TC4 and TC5 have defects (duplicate input data) and should be corrected.

Select ONE option.

39 / 40

39. Which of the following BEST fits as an element of the checklist used in checklist-based testing?

a) “The developer made an error when implementing the code”

b) “The achieved statement coverage exceeds 85%”

c) “The program works correctly regarding functional and non-functional requirements”

d) “The error messages are written in language that the user can understand”

Select ONE option.

40 / 40

40. You are testing a simplified apartment search form which has only two search criteria:

• floor (with three possible options: ground floor; first floor; second or higher floor)
• garden type (with three possible options: no garden; small garden; large garden)

Only apartments on the ground floor have gardens. The form has a built-in validation mechanism that will not allow you to use the search criteria which violate this rule.

Each test has two input values: floor and garden type. You want to apply equivalence partitioning (EP) to cover each floor and each garden type in your tests.

What is the minimal number of test cases to achieve 100% EP coverage?

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

Select ONE option

0%