Exam 5 – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 03, 2024 By

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Exam 5

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1 / 40

1. Which of the following statements about DevOps is CORRECT?

a) To speed up releases, continuous integration is used to encourage developers to submit code quickly without the need to complete component testing

b) To be able to update and release systems on a more frequent basis, many automated regression tests are required to reduce the danger of regression

c) To treat both developers and operations equally, the testers will allocate more effort to release testing by operations using a shift-right approach

d) To create increased synergy between testers, developers and operations, the testing must become fully automated with no manual testing

Select ONE option.

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2. The system for selling cinema tickets calculates the discount type based on the client’s birth year (BY) and on the current year (CY) as follows:

Let D be the difference between CY and BY, that is, D = CY – BY

• If D < 0 then print the error message “birth year cannot be greater than current year”

• If 0 ≤ D < 18 then apply the student discount

• If 18 ≤ D < 65 then apply no discount • If D ≥ 65 then apply the pensioner discount

Your test suite already contains two test cases:

• BY = 1990, CY = 2020, expected result: no discount
• BY = 2030, CY = 2029, expected result: print the error message

Which of the following test data sets should be added to achieve full valid equivalence partitioning coverage for the discount type?

a) BY = 2001, CY = 2065

b) BY = 1900, CY = 1965

c) BY = 1965, CY = 1900

d) BY = 2011, CY = 2029

e) BY = 2000, CY = 2000

Select TWO options.

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3. Which of the following pieces of information contained in a test progress report is the LEAST useful for business representatives?

a) Impediments to testing

b) Branch coverage achieved

c) Test progress

d) New risks within the test cycle

Select ONE option.

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4. Given the following descriptions of review activities:

1. Detected anomalies are deliberated upon, and determinations are reached regarding their status, ownership, and any further steps needed
2. Issues are recorded, and any needed updates are addressed prior to the acceptance of the work product
3. Reviewers employ techniques to come up with suggestions and questions about the work product and to spot anomalies
4. The objective of the review and its schedule are established to ensure a focused and efficient review
5. Participants are provided with access to the item being reviewed

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence in the review process of the activities that correspond to the descriptions?

a) 4 – 3 – 5 – 2 – 1

b) 4 – 5 – 3 – 1 – 2

c) 5 – 4 – 1 – 3 – 2

d) 5 – 4 – 3 – 2 – 1

Select ONE option.

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5. Which collaborative user story writing practice enables the team to achieve a collective understanding of what needs to be delivered?

a) Planning poker, so that a team can achieve consensus on the effort needed to implement a user story

b) Reviews, so that a team can detect inconsistencies and contradictions in a user story

c) Iteration planning, so that user stories with the highest business value for a customer can be prioritized for implementation

d) Conversation, so that team members can understand how the software will be used

Select ONE option.

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6. Which of the following statements BEST describes the acceptance test-driven development (ATDD) approach?

a) In ATDD, acceptance criteria are typically created based on the given/when/then format

b) In ATDD, test cases are mainly created at component testing and are code-oriented

c) In ATDD, tests are created, based on acceptance criteria to drive the development of the related software

d) in ATDD, tests are based on the desired behavior of the software, which makes it easier for team members to understand them

Select ONE option.

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7. How can the testing quadrants be beneficial for testing?

a) They help in test planning by dividing the test process into four stages, corresponding to the four basic test levels: component, integration, system, and acceptance testing

b) They help in assessing the high-level coverage (e.g., requirements coverage) based on low-level coverage (e.g., code coverage)

c) They help non-technical stakeholders to understand the different types of tests and that some test types are more relevant to certain test levels than others

d) They help agile teams to develop a communication strategy based on classifying people according to four basic psychological types, and on modelling the relations between them

Select ONE options.

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8. Which of the following is NOT an example of how configuration management supports testing?

a) All commits to the repository are uniquely identified and version controlled

b) All changes in the test environment elements are tracked

c) All requirement specifications are referenced unambiguously in test plans

d) All identified defects have an assigned status

Select ONE option.

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9. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a) Regression tests increase in number as the project progresses, whereas the number of confirmation tests decreases as the project progresses

b) Regression tests are created and run when the test object is fixed, whereas confirmation tests are run whenever the test object is enhanced

c) Regression testing is concerned with checking that the operational environment remains unchanged, whereas confirmation testing is concerned with testing changes to the test object

d) Regression testing is concerned with adverse effects in unchanged code, whereas confirmation testing is concerned with testing changed code

Select ONE option.

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10. You have just started designing test cases for the following user story.

In all test cases the precondition is as follows: there are only two products available, products A and B. Product A costs $100 and product B costs $110.

Which of the following is the BEST example of a test case for this user story?

a) Enter webpage and set filter to show prices between $90 and $100. Expected result: results show product A only. Set maximum price to $110. Expected result: results now include both products A and B

b) Enter webpage. Expected result: the default minimum and maximum prices are $100 and $110 respectively. Add product C to stock, with price $120. Refresh the client’s webpage. Expected result: the default maximum price changes to $120

c) Enter webpage and set filter to show prices between $90 and $115. Expected result: results show both products A and B. Change currency from USD to EUR. Expected result: the filter range changes correctly to EUR values, according to the current exchange rate

d) Enter webpage with three different browsers: Edge, Chrome and Opera. In each browser set filter between $90 and $110. Expected result: results include both products A and B and the results layout is the same in all three browsers

Select ONE option.

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11. How is the whole team approach present in the interactions between testers and business representatives?

a) Business representatives decide on test automation approaches

b) Testers help business representatives to define test strategy

c) Business representatives are not part of the whole team approach

d) Testers help business representatives to create suitable acceptance tests

Select ONE option.

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12. Which of the following tests is MOST likely to be performed as part of functional testing?

a) The test checks that the sort function puts the elements of the list or array in ascending order

b) The test checks whether the sort function completes sorting within one second of starting

c) The test checks how easily the sort function can be changed from sorting ascending to sorting descending

d) The test checks that the sort function still functions correctly when moved from a 32-bit to a 64-bit architecture

Select ONE option.

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13. Which of these statements is NOT a factor that contributes to successful reviews?

a) Participants should dedicate adequate time for the review

b) Splitting large work products into small parts to make the required effort less intense

c) Participants should avoid behaviors that might indicate boredom, exasperation, or hostility to other participants

d) Failures found should be acknowledged, appreciated, and handled objectively

Select ONE option.

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14. Which of the following CANNOT be examined by static testing?

a) Contract

b) Test plan

c) Encrypted code

d) Test charter

Select ONE option.

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15. Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed if the testing is focused on validation and is not being performed by testers?

a) Component testing

b) Component integration testing

c) System integration testing

d) Acceptance testing

Select ONE option.

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16. Which of the following activities in the test process makes the MOST use of test progress reports?

a) Test design

b) Test completion

c) Test analysis

d) Test planning

Select ONE option.

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17. Which of the following is true about exploratory testing?

a) Test cases are designed before the exploratory testing session starts

b) The tester can perform test execution, but cannot perform test design

c) Exploratory testing results are good predictors of the number of remaining defects

d) During exploratory testing the tester may use black-box test techniques

Select ONE option.

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18. Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing?

a) Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past and typical errors made by developers

b) Error guessing involves using your personal experience of development and the errors you made as a developer

c) Error guessing requires you to imagine that you are the user of the test object and to guess errors the user could make interacting with it

d) Error guessing requires you to rapidly duplicate the development task to identify the sort of errors a developer might make

Select ONE option.

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19. Which of the following BEST define EXIT criteria in a testing project?

a) The budget is approved

b) Budget runs out

c) Test basis is available

d) Test cases achieved at least 80% statement coverage

e) All test analysts are ISTQB certified at the Foundation Level

Select TWO options.

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20. Which of the following is a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

a) Testers should review work products as part of the next development phase

b) Testers should review work products as soon as drafts are available

c) Testers should review work products before test analysis and design begins

d) Testers should review work products immediately after they are published

Select ONE option.

21 / 40

21. Which of the following is an example of how product risk analysis influences thoroughness and scope of testing?

a) The test manager monitors and reports the level of all known risks on a daily basis so the stakeholders can make an informed decision on the release date

b) One of the identified risks was "Lack of support of open-source databases", so the team decided to integrate the system with an open-source database

c) During the quantitative risk analysis, the team estimated the total level of all identified risks and reported it as the total residual risk before testing

d) Risk assessment revealed a very high level of performance risks, so it was decided to perform detailed performance efficiency testing early in the SDLC

Select ONE option.

22 / 40

22. You are working as a tester in the team that follows the V-model. The choice of software development lifecycle (SDLC) model impacts the timing of testing, which of the following statement is NOT true?

a) Dynamic testing can be performed early in the SDLC

b) Static testing can be performed early in the SDLC

c) Test planning can be performed early in the SDLC

d) Acceptance testing can be performed early in the SDLC

Select ONE option.

23 / 40

23. What is the MAIN difference between black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques?

a) The test object

b) The test level at which the test technique is used

c) The test basis

d) The software development lifecycle (SDLC) in which the test technique can be used

Select ONE option.

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24. You are using acceptance test-driven development and designing test cases based on the following user story:

Which test case is the MOST reasonable one to test AC3?

a) Check that a Regular user can access floors 1 and 3

b) Check that a Regular user cannot access floor 4

c) Check that a Special user can access floor 5

d) Check that a Special user can access floors 1, 2 and 3

Select ONE option.

25 / 40

25. Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur as a result of a retrospective?

a) The quality of future test objects improves by identifying improvements in development practices

b) Test efficiency improves by speeding up the configuration of test environments through automation

c) End users’ understanding of the development and test processes is improved

d) Automated test scripts are enhanced through feedback from developers

Select ONE option.

26 / 40

26. You are testing a PIN validator, which accepts valid PINs and rejects invalid PINs. A PIN is a sequence of digits. A PIN is valid if it consists of four digits, at least two of which are different. You have identified the following valid equivalence partitions:

Variable: PIN code length

• The partition “length correct” - four-digit PINs
• The partition “length incorrect” - PINs with length other than 4

Variable: Number of different digits

• The partition “number of different digits correct” - PINs with at least two different digits
• The partition “number of different digits incorrect” - PINs with all digits being the same

Which of the following is a MINIMUM set of input test data that covers all identified equivalence partitions?

a) 1, 1111, 1234

b) 111, 1111, 1112

c) 1, 12345

d) 12345, 1234

Select ONE option.

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27. Which of the following is a product quality metric?

a) Mean time to failure

b) Number of defects found

c) Requirements coverage

d) Defect detection percentage

Select ONE option.

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28. Your team uses planning poker to estimate the test effort for a newly required feature. There is a rule in your team that if there is no time to reach full agreement and the variation in the results is small, applying rules like “accept the number with the most votes” can be applied.
After two rounds, the consensus was not reached, so the third round was initiated. You can see the test estimation results in the table below.

Which of the following is the BEST example of the next step?

a) The product owner has to step in and make a final decision

b) Accept 13 as the final test estimate as this has most of the votes

c) No further action is needed. Consensus has been reached

d) Remove the new feature from the current release because consensus has not been reached

Select ONE option.

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29. What is the relationship between the testing quadrants, test levels and test types?

a) Testing quadrants represent particular combinations of test levels and test types, defining their location in the software development lifecycle

b) Testing quadrants describe the degree of granularity of individual test types performed at each test level

c) Testing quadrants assign the test types that can be performed to the test levels

d) Testing quadrants group test levels and test types by several criteria such as targeting specific stakeholders

Select ONE option.

30 / 40

30. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independence of testing?

a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team

b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines

c) An independent test team can work separately from the developers, need not be distracted with project requirement changes, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system

d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer

Select ONE option.

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31. You want to estimate the test effort for the new project using estimation based on ratios. You calculate the test-to-development effort ratio using averaged data for both development effort and test effort from four historical projects similar to the new one. The table shows this historical data.

The estimated development effort for the new project is $800,000. What is your estimate of the test effort in this project?

a) $40,000

b) $80,000

c) $81,250

d) $82,500

Select ONE option.

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32. You work as a tester in a project on a mobile application for food ordering for one of your clients. The client sent you a list of requirements. One of them, with high priority, says

“The order must be processed in less than 10 seconds in 95% of the cases”.

You created a set of test cases in which a number of random orders were made, the processing time measured, and the test results were checked against the requirements.

What test type did you perform?

a) Functional, because the test cases cover the user’s business requirement for the system

b) Non-functional, because the measure the system’s performance

c) Functional, because the test cases interact with the user interface

d) Structural, because we need to know the internal structure of the program to measure the order processing time

Select ONE option.

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33. You have been assigned as a tester to a team producing a new system incrementally. You have noticed that no changes have been made to the existing regression test cases for several iterations and no new regression defects were identified. Your manager is happy, but you are not. Which testing principle explains your skepticism?

a) Tests wear out

b) Absence-of-errors fallacy

c) Defects cluster together

d) Exhaustive testing is impossible

Select ONE option.

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34. You are testing a simplified apartment search form which has only two search criteria:

• floor (with three possible options: ground floor; first floor; second or higher floor)
• garden type (with three possible options: no garden; small garden; large garden)

Only apartments on the ground floor have gardens. The form has a built-in validation mechanism that will not allow you to use the search criteria which violate this rule.

Each test has two input values: floor and garden type. You want to apply equivalence partitioning (EP) to cover each floor and each garden type in your tests.

What is the minimal number of test cases to achieve 100% EP coverage?

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

Select ONE option

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35. Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?

a) Test-Driven Development

b) Coverage-Driven Development

c) Quality-Driven Development

d) Feature-Driven Development

Select ONE option.

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36. You are testing a sort function that gets a set of numbers as input and returns the same set of numbers sorted in ascending order. The log from the test execution looks as follows.

Which of the following provides the BEST description of the failure that can be used in a defect report?

a) The system fails to sort several sets of numbers. Reference: TC3, TC4, TC5.

b) The system seems to disregard duplicates while sorting. Reference: TC3, TC4, TC5.

c) The system fails to sort negative numbers. Reference: TC4, TC5.

d) TC3, TC4 and TC5 have defects (duplicate input data) and should be corrected.

Select ONE option.

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37. You work in a team that develops a mobile application for food ordering. In the current iteration the team decided to implement the payment functionality.

Which of the following activities is a part of test analysis?

a) Estimating that testing the integration with the payment service will take 8 person-days

b) Deciding that the team should test if it is possible to properly share payment between many users

c) Using boundary value analysis (BVA) to derive the test data for the test cases that check the correct payment processing for the minimum allowed amount to be paid

d) Analyzing the discrepancy between the actual result and expected result after executing a test case that checks the process of payment with a credit card, and reporting a defect

Select ONE option.

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38. Which test activity involves working with test data requirements, test conditions, test environment requirements and test cases?

a) Test design

b) Test execution

c) Test analysis

d) Test implementation

Select ONE option.

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39. In many software organizations the test department is called the Quality Assurance (QA) department. Is this sentence correct or not and why?

a) It is correct. Testing and QA mean exactly the same thing

b) It is correct. These names can be used interchangeably because both testing and QA focus their activities on the same quality issues

c) It is not correct. Testing is something more; testing includes all activities with regard to quality. QA focuses on quality-related processes

d) It is not correct. QA is focused on quality-related processes while testing concentrates on demonstrating that a component or system is fit for purpose and to detect defects

Select ONE option.

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40. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the test pyramid?

a) The test pyramid emphasizes having a larger number of tests at the lower test levels

b) The closer to the top of the pyramid, the more formal your test automation should be

c) Usually, component testing and component integration testing are automated using API-based tools

d) For system testing and acceptance testing, the automated tests are typically created using GUI-based tools

Select ONE option.

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