Exam 5 – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 03, 2024 By

Admin

Exam 5

Name

1 / 40

1. Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur as a result of a retrospective?

a) The quality of future test objects improves by identifying improvements in development practices

b) Test efficiency improves by speeding up the configuration of test environments through automation

c) End users’ understanding of the development and test processes is improved

d) Automated test scripts are enhanced through feedback from developers

Select ONE option.

2 / 40

2. During risk analysis the team considered the following risk: “The system allows too high a discount for a customer”. The team estimated the risk impact to be very high.

What can one say about the risk likelihood?

a) It is also very high. High risk impact always implies high risk likelihood

b) It is very low. High risk impact always implies low risk likelihood

c) One cannot say anything about risk likelihood. Risk impact and risk likelihood are independent.

d) Risk likelihood is not important with such a high-risk impact. One does not need to define it.

Select ONE option.

3 / 40

3. The following is a list of the work products produced in the SDLC.

i. Business requirements
ii. Schedule
iii. Test budget
iv. Third-party executable code
v. User stories and their acceptance criteria

Which of them can be reviewed?

a) i and iv can be reviewed

b) i, ii, iii and iv can be reviewed

c) i, ii, iii, and v can be reviewed

d) iii, iv, v can be reviewed

Select ONE option.

4 / 40

4. Which of the following provides the BEST description of the shift-left approach?

a) When agreed by the developers, manual activities on the left-hand side of the test process are automated to support the principle of ‘early testing saves time and money’

b) Where cost-effective, test activities are moved to be performed earlier in the software development lifecycle (SDLC) to reduce the total cost of quality by reducing the number of defects found later in the SDLC

c) When they have spare time available, testers are required to automate tests for regression testing, starting with component tests and component integration tests

d) When available, testers are trained to perform tasks early in the SDLC to allow more test activities to be automated later in the SDLC

Select ONE option.

5 / 40

5. Which of the following statements is a CORRECT example of the value of traceability?

a) Traceability between the mitigated risks and passing test cases provides a means of determining the level of residual risk

b) Traceability between user requirements and test execution results provides a means of measuring project progress against business goals

c) Traceability between testers and failing test cases provides a means of determining the skill level of the testers

d) Traceability between the identified risks and written test conditions provides a means of determining which risks are worth testing

Select ONE option.

6 / 40

6. Which of the following is an example of why testing is necessary?

a) Dynamic testing increases quality by causing test objects to fail in ways that could never be achieved by the users

b) Static testing is used by developers to identify failures in their program code earlier than can be achieved through dynamic testing

c) Static analysis provides evidence to customers that the elements of the system that provide no outputs are fit for release

d) Reviews increase the quality of requirements specifications and lead to fewer changes being needed in derived work products

Select ONE option.

7 / 40

7. Consider the following defect report for a Book Lending System.

Which of the following is MOST likely to help the developer reproduce the failure quickly?

a) Adding information about which users and which books the issue affects to the “Description” section

b) Filling in the missing value for the “Priority” field

c) Adding memory dumps and database snapshots taken after each step described in the “Steps to Reproduce” section to the “Attachments” section.

d) Repeating the same test case for different environments and writing defect reports for each of them separately

Select ONE options.

8 / 40

8. Tools from which of the following categories help with the organization of test cases, detected defects and configuration management?

a) Test execution and coverage tools

b) Test design and implementation tools

c) Defect management tools

d) Test management tools

Select ONE option.

9 / 40

9. Which of the following is an example of how product risk analysis may influence the thoroughness and scope of testing?

a) Continuous risk monitoring allows us to identify emerging risk as soon as possible

b) Risk identification allows us to implement risk mitigation activities and reduce the risk level

c) The assessed risk level helps us to select the rigor of testing

d) Risk analysis allows us to derive coverage items

Select ONE option.

10 / 40

10. Which of the following statements about DevOps is CORRECT?

a) To speed up releases, continuous integration is used to encourage developers to submit code quickly without the need to complete component testing

b) To be able to update and release systems on a more frequent basis, many automated regression tests are required to reduce the danger of regression

c) To treat both developers and operations equally, the testers will allocate more effort to release testing by operations using a shift-right approach

d) To create increased synergy between testers, developers and operations, the testing must become fully automated with no manual testing

Select ONE option.

11 / 40

11. A storage system can store up to three elements and is modeled by the following state transition diagram. The variable N represents the number of currently stored elements.

Which of the following test cases, represented as sequences of events, achieves the highest level of valid transitions coverage?

a) Add, Remove, Add, Add, Add

b) Add, Add, Add, Add, Remove, Remove

c) Add, Add, Add, Remove, Remove

d) Add, Add, Add, Remove, Add

Select ONE option.

12 / 40

12. You are testing a simplified apartment search form which has only two search criteria:

• floor (with three possible options: ground floor; first floor; second or higher floor)
• garden type (with three possible options: no garden; small garden; large garden)

Only apartments on the ground floor have gardens. The form has a built-in validation mechanism that will not allow you to use the search criteria which violate this rule.

Each test has two input values: floor and garden type. You want to apply equivalence partitioning (EP) to cover each floor and each garden type in your tests.

What is the minimal number of test cases to achieve 100% EP coverage?

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

Select ONE option

13 / 40

13. Which of the following BEST describes how using checklist-based testing can result in increased coverage?

a) Checklist items can be defined at a sufficiently low level of detail, so the tester can implement and execute detailed test cases based on these items

b) Checklists can be automated, so each time an automated test execution covers the checklist items, it results in additional coverage

c) Each checklist item should be tested separately and independently, so the elements cover different areas of the software

d) Two testers designing and executing tests based on the same high-level checklist items will typically perform the testing in slightly different ways

Select ONE option.

14 / 40

14. Which of the following is an example of how product risk analysis influences thoroughness and scope of testing?

a) The test manager monitors and reports the level of all known risks on a daily basis so the stakeholders can make an informed decision on the release date

b) One of the identified risks was "Lack of support of open-source databases", so the team decided to integrate the system with an open-source database

c) During the quantitative risk analysis, the team estimated the total level of all identified risks and reported it as the total residual risk before testing

d) Risk assessment revealed a very high level of performance risks, so it was decided to perform detailed performance efficiency testing early in the SDLC

Select ONE option.

15 / 40

15. You received the following defect report from the developers stating that the anomaly described in this test report is not reproducible.

Application hangs up
2022-May-03 – John Doe – Rejected
The application hangs up after entering “Test input: $ä” in the Name field on the new user creation screen. Tried to log off, log in with test_admin01 account, same issue. Tried with other test admin accounts, same issue. No error message received; log (see attached) contains fatal error notification. Based on the test case TC-1305, the application should accept the provided input and create the user. Please fix with high priority, this feature is related to REQ-0012, which is a critical new business requirement.

What critical information is MISSING from this test report that would have been useful for the developers?

a) Expected result and actual result

b) References and defect status

c) Test environment and test item

d) Priority and severity

Select ONE option.

16 / 40

16. You are testing a PIN validator, which accepts valid PINs and rejects invalid PINs. A PIN is a sequence of digits. A PIN is valid if it consists of four digits, at least two of which are different. You have identified the following valid equivalence partitions:

Variable: PIN code length

• The partition “length correct” - four-digit PINs
• The partition “length incorrect” - PINs with length other than 4

Variable: Number of different digits

• The partition “number of different digits correct” - PINs with at least two different digits
• The partition “number of different digits incorrect” - PINs with all digits being the same

Which of the following is a MINIMUM set of input test data that covers all identified equivalence partitions?

a) 1, 1111, 1234

b) 111, 1111, 1112

c) 1, 12345

d) 12345, 1234

Select ONE option.

17 / 40

17. Consider the following defect report for a web-based shopping application:

What is the MOST important information that is missing from this report?

a) Name of the tester and date of the report

b) Test environment elements and their version numbers

c) Identification of the test object

d) Impact on the interests of stakeholders

Select ONE option.

18 / 40

18. Which of the following pieces of information contained in a test progress report is the LEAST useful for business representatives?

a) Impediments to testing

b) Branch coverage achieved

c) Test progress

d) New risks within the test cycle

Select ONE option.

19 / 40

19. Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing?

a) Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past and typical errors made by developers

b) Error guessing involves using your personal experience of development and the errors you made as a developer

c) Error guessing requires you to imagine that you are the user of the test object and to guess errors the user could make interacting with it

d) Error guessing requires you to rapidly duplicate the development task to identify the sort of errors a developer might make

Select ONE option.

20 / 40

20. What is the MAIN difference between black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques?

a) The test object

b) The test level at which the test technique is used

c) The test basis

d) The software development lifecycle (SDLC) in which the test technique can be used

Select ONE option.

21 / 40

21. Which TWO of the following options are common metrics used for reporting on the quality level of the test object?

a) Number of defects found during system testing

b) Total effort on test design divided by the number of designed test cases

c) Number of executed test procedures

d) Number of defects found divided by the size of a work product

e) Time needed to repair a defect

Select TWO options.

22 / 40

22. Which of the following is NOT an example of how configuration management supports testing?

a) All commits to the repository are uniquely identified and version controlled

b) All changes in the test environment elements are tracked

c) All requirement specifications are referenced unambiguously in test plans

d) All identified defects have an assigned status

Select ONE option.

23 / 40

23. You run two test cases, T1 and T2, on the same code. Test T1 achieved 40% statement coverage and test T2 achieved 65% statement coverage.

Which of the following sentences must be necessarily true?

a) The test suite composed with tests T1 and T2 achieves 105% statement coverage

b) There exists at least one statement that must have been executed by both T1 and T2

c) At least 5% of the statements in the code under test are non-executable

d) The test suite composed of tests T1 and T2 achieves full branch coverage

Select ONE option.

24 / 40

24. How can white-box testing be useful in support of black-box testing?

a) White-box coverage measures can help testers evaluate black-box tests in terms of the code coverage achieved by these black-box tests

b) White-box coverage analysis can help testers identify unreachable fragments of the source code

c) Branch testing subsumes black-box test techniques, so achieving full branch coverage guarantees achieving full coverage of any black-box technique

d) White-box test techniques can provide coverage items for black-box techniques

Select ONE option.

25 / 40

25. Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and debugging?

a) Testing causes failures while debugging fixes failures

b) Testing is a negative activity while debugging is a positive activity

c) Testing determines that defects exist while debugging removes defects

d) Testing finds the cause of defects while debugging fixes the cause of defects

Select ONE option.

26 / 40

26. Which of the following statements describe a valid test objective?

a) To prove that there are no unfixed defects in the system under test

b) To prove that there will be no failures after the implementation of the system into production

c) To reduce the risk level of the test object and to build confidence in the quality level

d) To verify that there are no untested combinations of inputs

Select ONE option.

27 / 40

27. Which of the following BEST fits as an element of the checklist used in checklist-based testing?

a) “The developer made an error when implementing the code”

b) “The achieved statement coverage exceeds 85%”

c) “The program works correctly regarding functional and non-functional requirements”

d) “The error messages are written in language that the user can understand”

Select ONE option.

28 / 40

28. The table shows the traceability matrix from test cases to requirements. “X” means that a given test case covers the corresponding requirement.

You want to prioritize the test cases following the additional coverage prioritization technique.

You execute all four test cases.

Which test case should be executed as the LAST one?

a) TC1

b) TC2

c) TC3

d) TC4

Select ONE options.

29 / 40

29. You work in a team that develops a mobile application for food ordering. In the current iteration the team decided to implement the payment functionality.

Which of the following activities is a part of test analysis?

a) Estimating that testing the integration with the payment service will take 8 person-days

b) Deciding that the team should test if it is possible to properly share payment between many users

c) Using boundary value analysis (BVA) to derive the test data for the test cases that check the correct payment processing for the minimum allowed amount to be paid

d) Analyzing the discrepancy between the actual result and expected result after executing a test case that checks the process of payment with a credit card, and reporting a defect

Select ONE option.

30 / 40

30. Your team uses the three-point estimation technique to estimate the test effort for a new high-risk feature. The following estimates were made:

• Most optimistic estimation: 2 person-hours
• Most likely estimation: 11 person-hours
• Most pessimistic estimation: 14 person-hours

What is the final estimate?

a) 9 person-hours

b) 14 person-hours

c) 11 person-hours

d) 10 person-hours

Select ONE option.

31 / 40

31. Which of the following statements about the value of static testing is CORRECT?

a) The defect types found by static testing are different from the defect types that can be found by dynamic testing

b) Dynamic testing can detect the defect types that can be found by static testing plus some additional defect types

c) Dynamic testing can identify some of the defects that can be found by static testing but not all of them

d) Static testing can identify the defect types that can be found by dynamic testing as well as some extra defect types

Select ONE option.

32 / 40

32. You perform system testing of an e-commerce web application and are provided with the following requirement:

REQ 05-017. If the total cost of purchases exceeds $100, the customer gets a 5% discount on subsequent purchases. Otherwise, the customer does not receive a discount.

Which test techniques will be MOST helpful in designing test cases based on this requirement?

a) White-box test techniques

b) Black-box test techniques

c) Experience-based test techniques

d) Risk-based test techniques

Select ONE option.

33 / 40

33. Which TWO of the following options are the exit criteria for testing a system?

a) Test environment readiness

b) The ability to log in to the test object by the tester

c) Estimated defect density is reached

d) Requirements are translated into given/when/then format

e) Regression tests are automated

Select TWO options.

34 / 40

34. Which of the following statements about the different testing roles is MOST likely to be CORRECT?

a) In Agile software development, the test management role is the primary responsibility of the team, while the testing role is primarily the responsibility of a single individual from outside the team

b) The testing role is primarily responsible for test monitoring and control, while the test management role is primarily responsible for test planning and test completion

c) In Agile software development, test management activities that span multiple teams are handled by a test manager outside the team, while some test management tasks are handled by the team itself

d) The test management role is primarily responsible for test analysis and test design, while the testing role is primarily responsible for test implementation and execution

Select ONE option.

35 / 40

35. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of static testing?

a) Having less expensive defect management due to the ease of detecting defects later in the SDLC

b) Fixing defects found during static testing is generally much less expensive than fixing defects found during dynamic testing

c) Finding coding defects that might not have been found by only performing dynamic testing

d) Detecting gaps and inconsistencies in requirements

Select ONE option.

36 / 40

36. Which of the following is a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

a) For each test level, there is a corresponding development level

b) For each test objective, there is a corresponding development objective

c) For every software test activity, there is a corresponding user activity

d) For every software development activity, there is a corresponding test activity

Select ONE option.

37 / 40

37. You want to apply branch testing to the code represented by the following control flow graph.

How many coverage items do you need to test?

a) 2

b) 4

c) 8

d) 7

Select ONE option.

38 / 40

38. You were given a task to analyze and fix causes of failures in a new system to be released.

Which activity are you performing?

a) Debugging

b) Software testing

c) Requirement elicitation

d) Defect management

Select ONE option.

39 / 40

39. You want to estimate the test effort for the new project using estimation based on ratios. You calculate the test-to-development effort ratio using averaged data for both development effort and test effort from four historical projects similar to the new one. The table shows this historical data.

The estimated development effort for the new project is $800,000. What is your estimate of the test effort in this project?

a) $40,000

b) $80,000

c) $81,250

d) $82,500

Select ONE option.

40 / 40

40. The following decision table contains the rules for determining the risk of atherosclerosis.

You designed the test cases with the following test input data:

TC1: Cholesterol = 125 mg/dl Blood pressure = 141 mm Hg
TC2: Cholesterol = 200 mg/dl Blood pressure = 201 mm Hg
TC3: Cholesterol = 124 mg/dl Blood pressure = 201 mm Hg
TC4: Cholesterol = 109 mg/dl Blood pressure = 200 mm Hg
TC5: Cholesterol = 201 mg/dl Blood pressure = 140 mm Hg

What is the decision table coverage achieved by these test cases?

a) 40%

b) 60%

c) 80%

d) 100%

Select ONE option.

0%