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Exam 5

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1. The following decision table contains the rules for determining the risk of atherosclerosis.

You designed the test cases with the following test input data:

TC1: Cholesterol = 125 mg/dl Blood pressure = 141 mm Hg
TC2: Cholesterol = 200 mg/dl Blood pressure = 201 mm Hg
TC3: Cholesterol = 124 mg/dl Blood pressure = 201 mm Hg
TC4: Cholesterol = 109 mg/dl Blood pressure = 200 mm Hg
TC5: Cholesterol = 201 mg/dl Blood pressure = 140 mm Hg

What is the decision table coverage achieved by these test cases?

Select ONE option.

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2. You are testing a system that calculates the final course grade for a given student.

The final grade is assigned based on the final result, according to the following rules:

• 0 – 50 points: failed
• 51 – 60 points: fair
• 61 – 70 points: satisfactory
• 71 – 80 points: good
• 81 – 90 points: very good
• 91 – 100 points: excellent

You have prepared the following set of test cases:

What is the 2-value Boundary Value Analysis (BVA) coverage for the final result that is achieved with the existing test cases?

Select ONE option.

3 / 40

3. You test a system whose lifecycle is modeled by the state transition diagram shown below. The system starts in the INIT state and ends its operation in the OFF state.

What is the MINIMAL number of test cases to achieve valid transitions coverage?

Select ONE option.

4 / 40

4. The following is a list of the work products produced in the SDLC.

i. Business requirements
ii. Schedule
iii. Test budget
iv. Third-party executable code
v. User stories and their acceptance criteria

Which of them can be reviewed?

Select ONE option.

5 / 40

5. Which of the following statements about the different testing roles is MOST likely to be CORRECT?

Select ONE option.

6 / 40

6. What does the test pyramid model show?

Select ONE option.

7 / 40

7. Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between decision table testing and branch testing?

Select ONE option.

8 / 40

8. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent stakeholder feedback?

Select ONE option.

9 / 40

9. Which of the following is a typical test objective?

Select ONE option.

10 / 40

10. Which of the following BEST define EXIT criteria in a testing project?

Select TWO options.

11 / 40

11. How can white-box testing be useful in support of black-box testing?

Select ONE option.

12 / 40

12. Which of the following tests is MOST likely to be performed as part of functional testing?

Select ONE option.

13 / 40

13. Which of the following are advantages of DevOps?

i. Faster product release and faster time to market
ii. Increases the need for repetitive manual testing
iii. Constant availability of executable software
iv. Reduction in the number of regression tests associated with code refactoring
v. Setting up the test automation framework is inexpensive since everything is automated

Select ONE option.

14 / 40

14. Which of the following BEST describes retrospectives?

Select ONE option.

15 / 40

15. Your team uses planning poker to estimate the test effort for a newly required feature. There is a rule in your team that if there is no time to reach full agreement and the variation in the results is small, applying rules like “accept the number with the most votes” can be applied.
After two rounds, the consensus was not reached, so the third round was initiated. You can see the test estimation results in the table below.

Which of the following is the BEST example of the next step?

Select ONE option.

16 / 40

16. Your team analyzes the following user story in order to define the acceptance criteria:

As a registered customer, I want to be able to view my previous orders on the company's website, so that I can keep track of my purchases.

Which of the following test cases will NOT be relevant for this user story?

Select ONE option.

17 / 40

17. Which of the following is MOST likely to describe a task performed by someone in a test management role?

Select ONE option.

18 / 40

18. How do testers add value to iteration and release planning?

Select ONE option.

19 / 40

19. Given the following task descriptions:

1. The quality characteristics to be evaluated and the exit criteria are selected
2. Everyone has access to the work product
3. Anomalies are identified in the work product
4. Anomalies are discussed

And the following review activities

A. Individual review
B. Review initiation
C. Planning
D. Communication and analysis

Which of the following BEST matches the task descriptions and activities?

Select ONE option.

20 / 40

20. Your test suite achieved 100% statement coverage. What is the consequence of this fact?

Select ONE option.

21 / 40

21. Which of the following statements about branch testing is CORRECT?

Select ONE option.

22 / 40

22. A phone ringing in a neighboring cubicle distracts a programmer causing him to improperly program the logic that checks the upper boundary of an input variable. Later, during system testing, a tester notices that this input field accepts invalid input values.

Which of the following correctly describes an incorrectly coded upper bound?

Select ONE option.

23 / 40

23. You are testing a web application that allows users to SEARCH for products, VIEW product details, ADD products to a shopping cart, and place an ORDER.
You have prepared the following five test cases, which you want to execute according to their priorities:

TC1: SEARCH product A Priority: medium

TC2: VIEW product A details Priority: low

TC3: ADD product B to a shopping cart Priority: medium

TC4: ADD product C to a shopping cart Priority: high

TC5: place an ORDER Priority: high

You also identified the following logical dependencies between test cases:

• SEARCH functionality must be tested before VIEW functionality can be tested, as product details rely on search functionality.
• VIEW functionality must be tested before ADD functionality, as adding products relies on the availability of accurate product details.
• ADD functionality must be tested before ORDER functionality, as placing an order relies on the availability of accurate shopping cart information.

Which test case should be executed as the fourth one?

Select ONE option.

24 / 40

24. Which of the following statements BEST describes the acceptance test-driven development (ATDD) approach?

Select ONE option.

25 / 40

25. Decide which of the following statements (i-v) are true for static testing.

i. Abnormal external behaviors are easier to identify with this testing
ii. Discrepancies from a coding standard are easier to find with this testing
iii. It identifies failures caused by defects when the software is run
iv. Its test objective is to identify defects as early as possible
v. Missing coverage for critical security requirements is easier to find and fix

Select ONE option.

26 / 40

26. Which participant in the review process is responsible for ensuring that the review meetings run effectively and that everyone at the meetings can voice their opinions freely?

Select ONE option.

27 / 40

27. Given the following benefits and drawbacks of the independence of testing:

i. The testers work in a different location from the developers
ii. Testers question the assumptions programmers make while writing code
iii. A confrontational dynamic has been established between testers and developers
iv. Developers have convinced themselves that testers are mostly accountable for quality
v. Testers have different biases than those held by the developers

Which are MOST likely to be considered benefits?

Select ONE option.

28 / 40

28. In many software organizations the test department is called the Quality Assurance (QA) department. Is this sentence correct or not and why?

Select ONE option.

29 / 40

29. Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing?

Select ONE option.

30 / 40

30. Your organization’s test strategy suggests that once a system is going to be retired, data migration shall be tested. As part of what test type is this testing MOST likely to be performed?

Select ONE option.

31 / 40

31. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of static testing?

Select ONE option.

32 / 40

32. Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?

Select ONE option.

33 / 40

33. Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?

Select ONE option.

34 / 40

34. Which of the following activities in the test process makes the MOST use of test progress reports?

Select ONE option.

35 / 40

35. Given the following review types:

1. Technical review
2. Informal review
3. Inspection
4. Walkthrough

And the following descriptions:

A. Includes objectives such as gaining consensus, generating new ideas, and motivating authors to improve
B. Includes objectives such as educating reviewers, gaining consensus, generating new ideas and detecting potential defects
C. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it requires metrics collection to support process improvement
D. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it generates no formal documented output

Which of the following BEST matches the review types and the descriptions?

Select ONE option.

36 / 40

36. Given the following descriptions:

1. Support workflow tracking
2. Facilitate communication
3. Virtual machines
4. Support reviews

And the following test tool categories:

A. Static testing tools
B. Tools supporting scalability and deployment standardization
C. DevOps tools
D. Collaboration tools

Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions and categories?

Explanation / Rationale

37 / 40

37. What is the relationship between the testing quadrants, test levels and test types?

Select ONE option.

38 / 40

38. Consider the following list:

• Correct input not accepted
• Incorrect input accepted
• Wrong output format
• Division by zero

What test technique is MOST PROBABLY used by the tester who uses this list when performing testing?

Select ONE option.

39 / 40

39. Which of the following statements about the independence of testing is CORRECT?

Select ONE option.

40 / 40

40. Which of the following CANNOT be examined by static testing?

Select ONE option.

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