Exam 5 – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 03, 2024 By

Admin

Exam 5

Name

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1. At the beginning of each iteration, the team estimates the amount of work (in person-days) they will need to complete during the iteration. Let E(n) be the estimated amount of work for iteration n, and let A(n) be the actual amount of work done in iteration n. From the third iteration, the team uses the following estimation model based on extrapolation:

The graph shows the estimated and actual amount of work for the first four iterations.

What is the estimated amount of work for iteration #5?

a) 10.5 person-days

b) 8.25 person-days

c) 6.5 person-days

d) 9.4 person-days

Select ONE option.

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2. Which of the arguments below would you use to convince your manager to organize retrospectives at the end of each release cycle?

a) Retrospectives are very popular these days and clients would appreciate it if we added them to our processes

b) Organizing retrospectives will save the organization money because without them end user representatives do not provide immediate feedback about the product

c) Process weaknesses identified during the retrospective can be analyzed and serve as a to do list for the organization’s continuous process improvement program

d) Retrospectives embrace five values including courage and respect, which are crucial to maintain continuous improvement in the organization

Select ONE option.

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3. Tools from which of the following categories help with the organization of test cases, detected defects and configuration management?

a) Test execution and coverage tools

b) Test design and implementation tools

c) Defect management tools

d) Test management tools

Select ONE option.

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4. You were given a task to analyze and fix causes of failures in a new system to be released.

Which activity are you performing?

a) Debugging

b) Software testing

c) Requirement elicitation

d) Defect management

Select ONE option.

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5. Which of the following BEST define EXIT criteria in a testing project?

a) The budget is approved

b) Budget runs out

c) Test basis is available

d) Test cases achieved at least 80% statement coverage

e) All test analysts are ISTQB certified at the Foundation Level

Select TWO options.

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6. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independence of testing?

a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team

b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines

c) An independent test team can work separately from the developers, need not be distracted with project requirement changes, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system

d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer

Select ONE option.

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7. Consider the following part of a test plan.

Testing will be performed using component testing and component integration testing. The regulations require to demonstrate that 100% branch coverage is achieved for each component classified as critical.

Which part of the test plan does this part belong to?

a) Communication

b) Risk register

c) Context of testing

d) Test approach

Select ONE option.

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8. Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and debugging?

a) Testing causes failures while debugging fixes failures

b) Testing is a negative activity while debugging is a positive activity

c) Testing determines that defects exist while debugging removes defects

d) Testing finds the cause of defects while debugging fixes the cause of defects

Select ONE option.

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9. Which of the following is an advantage of the whole-team approach?

a) Teams with no testers

b) Improved team dynamics

c) Specialist team members

d) Larger team sizes

Select ONE option.

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10. The following is a list of the work products produced in the SDLC.

i. Business requirements
ii. Schedule
iii. Test budget
iv. Third-party executable code
v. User stories and their acceptance criteria

Which of them can be reviewed?

a) i and iv can be reviewed

b) i, ii, iii and iv can be reviewed

c) i, ii, iii, and v can be reviewed

d) iii, iv, v can be reviewed

Select ONE option.

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11. Which of the following is NOT anticipated by the tester while applying error guessing?

a) The developer misunderstood the formula in the user story for calculating the interest

b) The developer wrote “FA = A*(1+IR^N)” instead of “FA = A*(1+IR)^N” in the source code

c) The developer missed the seminar on new compound interest rate legislation

d) The accuracy of the interest calculated by the system is not precise enough

Select ONE option.

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12. Which types of failures (1-4) fit which test levels (A-D) BEST?

1. Failures in system behavior as it deviates from the user’s business needs
2. Failures in communication between components
3. Failures in logic in a module
4. Failures in not correctly implemented business rules

A. Component testing
B. Component integration testing
C. System testing
D. Acceptance testing

a) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C

b) 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A

c) 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C

d) 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D

Select ONE option.

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13. Which of the following statements about formal reviews is TRUE?

a) Some reviews do not require more than one role

b) The review process has several activities

c) Documentation to be reviewed is not distributed before the review meeting, with the exception of the work product for specific review types

d) Defects found during the review are not reported since they are not found by dynamic testing

Select ONE option.

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14. Which of the following is a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

a) Testers should review work products as part of the next development phase

b) Testers should review work products as soon as drafts are available

c) Testers should review work products before test analysis and design begins

d) Testers should review work products immediately after they are published

Select ONE option.

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15. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the test pyramid?

a) The test pyramid emphasizes having a larger number of tests at the lower test levels

b) The closer to the top of the pyramid, the more formal your test automation should be

c) Usually, component testing and component integration testing are automated using API-based tools

d) For system testing and acceptance testing, the automated tests are typically created using GUI-based tools

Select ONE option.

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16. Which of the following are product risks?

a) Scope creep

b) Poor architecture

c) Cost-cutting

d) Poor tool support

e) Response time too long

Select TWO options.

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17. Which TWO of the following options are the exit criteria for testing a system?

a) Test environment readiness

b) The ability to log in to the test object by the tester

c) Estimated defect density is reached

d) Requirements are translated into given/when/then format

e) Regression tests are automated

Select TWO options.

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18. How can white-box testing be useful in support of black-box testing?

a) White-box coverage measures can help testers evaluate black-box tests in terms of the code coverage achieved by these black-box tests

b) White-box coverage analysis can help testers identify unreachable fragments of the source code

c) Branch testing subsumes black-box test techniques, so achieving full branch coverage guarantees achieving full coverage of any black-box technique

d) White-box test techniques can provide coverage items for black-box techniques

Select ONE option.

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19. Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?

a) Test-Driven Development

b) Coverage-Driven Development

c) Quality-Driven Development

d) Feature-Driven Development

Select ONE option.

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20. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test automation?

a) It provides coverage measures that are too complicated for humans to derive

b) It shares responsibility for the testing with the tool vendor

c) It removes the need for critical thinking when analyzing test results

d) It generates test cases from an analysis of the program code

Select ONE option.

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21. Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between decision table testing and branch testing?

a) In decision table testing, the test cases are derived from the decision statements in the code. In branch testing, the test cases are derived from knowledge of the control flow of the test object.

b) In decision table testing, the test cases are derived from the specification that describes the business logic. In branch testing the test cases are based on anticipation of potential defects in the source code.

c) In decision table testing, the test cases are derived from knowledge of the control flow of the test object. In branch testing, test cases are derived from the specification that describes the business logic.

d) In decision table testing, the test cases are independent of how the software is implemented. In branch testing, test cases can be created only after the design or implementation of the code.

Select ONE option.

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22. You are working on a project to develop a system to analyze driving test results. You have been asked to design test cases based on the following decision table.

What test data will show that there are contradictory rules in the decision table?

a) C1 = T, C2 = T, C3 = F

b) C1 = T, C2 = F, C3 = T

c) C1 = T, C2 = T, C3 = T and C1 = F, C2 = T, C3 = T

d) C1 = F, C2 = F, C3 = F

Select ONE option.

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23. A wine storage system uses a control device that measures the wine cell temperature T (measured in °C, rounded to the nearest degree) and alarms the user if it deviates from the optimal value of 12, according to the following rules:

• if T = 12, the system says, “optimal temperature”

• if T < 12, the system says, “temperature is too low!”

• if T > 12, the system says, “temperature is too high!”

You want to use the 3-point boundary value analysis (BVA) to verify the behavior of the control device. A test input is a temperature in °C provided by the device.

What is the MINIMAL set of test inputs that achieves 100% of the desired coverage?

a) 11, 12, 13

b) 10, 12, 14

c) 10, 11, 12, 13, 14

d) 10, 11, 13, 14

Select ONE option.

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24. The system for selling cinema tickets calculates the discount type based on the client’s birth year (BY) and on the current year (CY) as follows:

Let D be the difference between CY and BY, that is, D = CY – BY

• If D < 0 then print the error message “birth year cannot be greater than current year”

• If 0 ≤ D < 18 then apply the student discount

• If 18 ≤ D < 65 then apply no discount • If D ≥ 65 then apply the pensioner discount

Your test suite already contains two test cases:

• BY = 1990, CY = 2020, expected result: no discount
• BY = 2030, CY = 2029, expected result: print the error message

Which of the following test data sets should be added to achieve full valid equivalence partitioning coverage for the discount type?

a) BY = 2001, CY = 2065

b) BY = 1900, CY = 1965

c) BY = 1965, CY = 1900

d) BY = 2011, CY = 2029

e) BY = 2000, CY = 2000

Select TWO options.

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25. Given the following test tool categories:

i. Collaboration tools
ii. DevOps tools
iii. Management tools
iv. Non-functional testing tools
v. Test design and implementation tools

Tools from which of the categories are MOST likely to facilitate test execution?

a) i, v

b) ii, iv

c) i, iii, v

d) ii, iii, iv

Select ONE options.

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26. The navigation system software has been updated due to it suggesting routes that break traffic laws, such as driving the wrong way down one-way streets. Which of the following BEST describes the testing that will be performed?

a) Only confirmation testing

b) Confirmation testing then regression testing

c) Only regression testing

d) Regression testing then confirmation testing

Select ONE option.

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27. Which of the following provides the BEST example of a scenario-oriented acceptance criterion?

a) The application must allow users to delete their account and all associated data upon request

b) When a customer adds an item to their cart and proceeds to checkout, they should be prompted to log in or create an account if they haven’t already done so

c) IF (contain(product(23).Name, cart.products())) THEN return FALSE

d) The website must comply with the ICT Accessibility 508 Standards and ensure that all content is accessible to users with disabilities

Select ONE option.

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28. You are testing a PIN validator, which accepts valid PINs and rejects invalid PINs. A PIN is a sequence of digits. A PIN is valid if it consists of four digits, at least two of which are different. You have identified the following valid equivalence partitions:

Variable: PIN code length

• The partition “length correct” - four-digit PINs
• The partition “length incorrect” - PINs with length other than 4

Variable: Number of different digits

• The partition “number of different digits correct” - PINs with at least two different digits
• The partition “number of different digits incorrect” - PINs with all digits being the same

Which of the following is a MINIMUM set of input test data that covers all identified equivalence partitions?

a) 1, 1111, 1234

b) 111, 1111, 1112

c) 1, 12345

d) 12345, 1234

Select ONE option.

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29. You are testing a user story with three acceptance criteria: AC1, AC2 and AC3. AC1 is covered by test case TC1, AC2 by TC2, and AC3 by TC3. The test execution history had three test runs on three consecutive versions of the software as follows:

Tests are repeated once you are informed that all defects found in the test run are corrected and a new version of the software is available.
Which of the above tests are executed as regression tests?

a) Only 4, 7, 8, 9

b) Only 5, 7

c) Only 4, 6, 8, 9

d) Only 5, 6

Select ONE option.

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30. Which of the following is MOST likely to impact how testing is performed for a given test object?

a) The average level of experience of the organization’s marketing team

b) The knowledge of users that a new system is being developed for them

c) The number of years’ experience of the members of the test team

d) The end user’s organizational structure for a commercial music streaming application

Select ONE option.

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31. Given the following test tasks:

1. Derive test cases from test conditions
2. Identify reusable testware
3. Organize test cases into test procedures
4. Evaluate test basis and test object

And the following test activities:

A. Test analysis
B. Test design
C. Test implementation
D. Test completion

Which of the following BEST matches the tasks with the activities?

a) 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C

b) 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A

c) 1C, 2A, 3B, 4D

d) 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B

Select ONE option.

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32. Your test suite S for a program P achieves 100% statement coverage. It consists of three test cases, each of which achieves 50% statement coverage.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a) Executing S will cause all possible failures in P

b) S achieves 100% branch coverage for P

c) Every executable statement in P containing a defect has been run at least once during the execution of S

d) After removing one test case from S, the remaining two test cases will still achieve 100% statement coverage

Select ONE option.

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33. Which of the following is a characteristic of experience-based test techniques?

a) Test cases are created based on detailed design information

b) Items tested within the interface code section are used to measure coverage

c) The techniques heavily rely on the tester’s knowledge of the software and the business domain

d) The test cases are used to identify deviations from the requirements

Select ONE option.

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34. For a given risk, its risk level is $1,000 and its risk likelihood is estimated as 50%.

What is the risk impact?

a) $500

b) $2,000

c) $50,000

d) $200

Select ONE options.

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35. Which of the following is NOT true for white-box testing?

a) During white-box testing the entire software implementation is considered

b) White-box coverage metrics can help identify additional tests to increase code coverage

c) White-box test techniques can be used in static testing

d) White-box testing can help identify gaps in requirements implementation

Select ONE option.

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36. You test a system whose lifecycle is modeled by the state transition diagram shown below. The system starts in the INIT state and ends its operation in the OFF state.

What is the MINIMAL number of test cases to achieve valid transitions coverage?

a) 4

b) 2

c) 7

d) 3

Select ONE option.

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37. Given the following roles in reviews:

1. Scribe
2. Review leader
3. Facilitator
4. Manager

And the following responsibilities in reviews:

A. Ensures the effective running of review meetings and the setting up a safe review environment
B. Records review information, such as decisions and new anomalies found during the review meeting
C. Decides what is to be reviewed and provides resources, such as staff and time for the review
D. Takes overall responsibility for the review such as organizing when and where the review will take place

Which of the following BEST matches the roles and responsibilities?

a) 1A, 2B, 3D, 4C

b) 1A, 2C, 3B, 4D

c) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C

d) 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A

Select ONE option.

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38. The following list contains risks that have been identified for a new software product to be developed:

i. Management moves two experienced testers to another project
ii. The system does not comply with functional safety standards
iii. System response time exceeds user requirements
iv. Stakeholders have inaccurate expectations
v. Disabled people have problems when using the system

Which of them are project risks?

a) i, iv are project risks

b) iv, v are project risks

c) i, iii are project risks

d) ii, v are project risks

Select ONE option.

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39. Which of the following is a typical test objective?

a) Finding and fixing defects in the test object

b) Maintaining effective communications with developers

c) Validating that legal requirements have been met

d) Building confidence in the quality of the test object

Select ONE option.

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40. Which of the following is the BEST example of how traceability supports testing?

a) Performing the impact analysis of a change will give information about the completion of the tests

b) Analyzing the traceability between test cases and test results will give information about the estimated level of residual risk

c) Performing the impact analysis of a change will help selecting the right test cases for regression testing

d) Analyzing the traceability between the test basis, the test objects and the test cases will help in selecting test data to achieve the assumed coverage of the test object

Select ONE option.

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