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Exam 5

1 / 40

1. Decide which of the following statements (i-v) are true for static testing.

i. Abnormal external behaviors are easier to identify with this testing
ii. Discrepancies from a coding standard are easier to find with this testing
iii. It identifies failures caused by defects when the software is run
iv. Its test objective is to identify defects as early as possible
v. Missing coverage for critical security requirements is easier to find and fix

Select ONE option.

2 / 40

2. For a given risk, its risk level is $1,000 and its risk likelihood is estimated as 50%.

What is the risk impact?

Select ONE options.

3 / 40

3. You perform system testing of an e-commerce web application and are provided with the following requirement:

REQ 05-017. If the total cost of purchases exceeds $100, the customer gets a 5% discount on subsequent purchases. Otherwise, the customer does not receive a discount.

Which test techniques will be MOST helpful in designing test cases based on this requirement?

Select ONE option.

4 / 40

4. Which of the following statements about formal reviews is TRUE?

Select ONE option.

5 / 40

5. Which of the following BEST define EXIT criteria in a testing project?

Select TWO options.

6 / 40

6. Given the following testware:

1. Coverage items
2. Change requests
3. Test execution schedule
4. Prioritized test conditions

And the following test activities

A. Test analysis
B. Test design
C. Test implementation
D. Test completion

Which of the following BEST shows the testware produced by the activities?

Select ONE option.

7 / 40

7. Which of the following is an example of why testing is necessary?

Select ONE option.

8 / 40

8. Which of the following BEST describes retrospectives?

Select ONE option.

9 / 40

9. Given the following task descriptions:

1. The quality characteristics to be evaluated and the exit criteria are selected
2. Everyone has access to the work product
3. Anomalies are identified in the work product
4. Anomalies are discussed

And the following review activities

A. Individual review
B. Review initiation
C. Planning
D. Communication and analysis

Which of the following BEST matches the task descriptions and activities?

Select ONE option.

10 / 40

10. Which item correctly identifies a potential risk of performing test automation?

Select ONE option.

11 / 40

11. You are designing test cases based on the following state transition diagram:

What is the MINIMUM number of test cases required to achieve 100% valid transitions coverage?

Select ONE option.

12 / 40

12. Which of the following options shows an example of test activities that contribute to success?

Select ONE option.

13 / 40

13. Consider the following defect report for a web-based shopping application:

What is the MOST important information that is missing from this report?

Select ONE option.

14 / 40

14. Which of the following is an advantage of the whole-team approach?

Select ONE option.

15 / 40

15. You are testing a user story with three acceptance criteria: AC1, AC2 and AC3. AC1 is covered by test case TC1, AC2 by TC2, and AC3 by TC3. The test execution history had three test runs on three consecutive versions of the software as follows:

Tests are repeated once you are informed that all defects found in the test run are corrected and a new version of the software is available.
Which of the above tests are executed as regression tests?

Select ONE option.

16 / 40

16. Which of the following is a characteristic of experience-based test techniques?

Select ONE option.

17 / 40

17. In many software organizations the test department is called the Quality Assurance (QA) department. Is this sentence correct or not and why?

Select ONE option.

18 / 40

18. Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between decision table testing and branch testing?

Select ONE option.

19 / 40

19. Which of the following tests is MOST likely to be performed as part of functional testing?

Select ONE option.

20 / 40

20. One of the ‘principles of testing’ states that exhaustive testing is impossible. Which of the following is an example of addressing this principle in practice?

Select ONE option.

21 / 40

21. You test a system whose lifecycle is modeled by the state transition diagram shown below. The system starts in the INIT state and ends its operation in the OFF state.

What is the MINIMAL number of test cases to achieve valid transitions coverage?

Select ONE option.

22 / 40

22. Which of the following provides the BEST example of a scenario-oriented acceptance criterion?

Select ONE option.

23 / 40

23. You are testing a PIN validator, which accepts valid PINs and rejects invalid PINs. A PIN is a sequence of digits. A PIN is valid if it consists of four digits, at least two of which are different. You have identified the following valid equivalence partitions:

Variable: PIN code length

• The partition “length correct” - four-digit PINs
• The partition “length incorrect” - PINs with length other than 4

Variable: Number of different digits

• The partition “number of different digits correct” - PINs with at least two different digits
• The partition “number of different digits incorrect” - PINs with all digits being the same

Which of the following is a MINIMUM set of input test data that covers all identified equivalence partitions?

Select ONE option.

24 / 40

24. You want to apply branch testing to the code represented by the following control flow graph.

How many coverage items do you need to test?

Select ONE option.

25 / 40

25. Which types of failures (1-4) fit which test levels (A-D) BEST?

1. Failures in system behavior as it deviates from the user’s business needs
2. Failures in communication between components
3. Failures in logic in a module
4. Failures in not correctly implemented business rules

A. Component testing
B. Component integration testing
C. System testing
D. Acceptance testing

Select ONE option.

26 / 40

26. Which of the following is NOT true for white-box testing?

Select ONE option.

27 / 40

27. Which of the following are product risks?

Select TWO options.

28 / 40

28. Consider the following test categories (1-4) and agile testing quadrants (A-D):

1. Usability testing
2. Component testing
3. Functional testing
4. Reliability testing

A. Agile testing quadrant Q1: technology facing, supporting the development team
B. Agile testing quadrant Q2: business facing, supporting the development team
C. Agile testing quadrant Q3: business facing, critique the product
D. Agile testing quadrant Q4: technology facing, critique the product

How do the following test categories map onto the agile testing quadrants?

Select ONE option.

29 / 40

29. A wine storage system uses a control device that measures the wine cell temperature T (measured in °C, rounded to the nearest degree) and alarms the user if it deviates from the optimal value of 12, according to the following rules:

• if T = 12, the system says, “optimal temperature”

• if T < 12, the system says, “temperature is too low!”

• if T > 12, the system says, “temperature is too high!”

You want to use the 3-point boundary value analysis (BVA) to verify the behavior of the control device. A test input is a temperature in °C provided by the device.

What is the MINIMAL set of test inputs that achieves 100% of the desired coverage?

Select ONE option.

30 / 40

30. A phone ringing in a neighboring cubicle distracts a programmer causing him to improperly program the logic that checks the upper boundary of an input variable. Later, during system testing, a tester notices that this input field accepts invalid input values.

Which of the following correctly describes an incorrectly coded upper bound?

Select ONE option.

31 / 40

31. How is the whole team approach present in the interactions between testers and business representatives?

Select ONE option.

32 / 40

32. Given the following test tool categories:

i. Collaboration tools
ii. DevOps tools
iii. Management tools
iv. Non-functional testing tools
v. Test design and implementation tools

Tools from which of the categories are MOST likely to facilitate test execution?

Select ONE options.

33 / 40

33. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent stakeholder feedback?

Select ONE option.

34 / 40

34. Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?

Select ONE option.

35 / 40

35. Given the following roles in reviews:

1. Scribe
2. Review leader
3. Facilitator
4. Manager

And the following responsibilities in reviews:

A. Ensures the effective running of review meetings and the setting up a safe review environment
B. Records review information, such as decisions and new anomalies found during the review meeting
C. Decides what is to be reviewed and provides resources, such as staff and time for the review
D. Takes overall responsibility for the review such as organizing when and where the review will take place

Which of the following BEST matches the roles and responsibilities?

Select ONE option.

36 / 40

36. Which of the following statements describe a valid test objective?

Select ONE option.

37 / 40

37. Which of the following is NOT an example of the shift left approach?

Select ONE option.

38 / 40

38. Which work product can be used by an agile team to show the amount of work that has been completed and the amount of total work remaining for a given iteration?

Select ONE option.

39 / 40

39. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a challenge encountered when implementing DevOps?

Select ONE option.

40 / 40

40. Which of the following statements about the independence of testing is CORRECT?

Select ONE option.

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