Exam 5 – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 03, 2024 By

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Exam 5

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1 / 40

1. What does the test pyramid model show?

a) That tests may have different priorities

b) That tests may have different granularity

c) That tests may require different coverage criteria

d) That tests may depend on other tests

Select ONE option.

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2. For a given risk, its risk level is $1,000 and its risk likelihood is estimated as 50%.

What is the risk impact?

a) $500

b) $2,000

c) $50,000

d) $200

Select ONE options.

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3. Which of these statements is NOT a factor that contributes to successful reviews?

a) Participants should dedicate adequate time for the review

b) Splitting large work products into small parts to make the required effort less intense

c) Participants should avoid behaviors that might indicate boredom, exasperation, or hostility to other participants

d) Failures found should be acknowledged, appreciated, and handled objectively

Select ONE option.

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4. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a test plan?

a) To define test data and expected results for component tests and component integration tests

b) To define as exit criteria from the component test level that “100% statement coverage and 100% branch coverage must be achieved”

c) To describe what fields the test progress report shall contain and what should be the form of this report

d) To explain why system integration testing will be excluded from testing, although the test strategy requires this test level

Select ONE option.

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5. Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?

a) Behavior-Driven Development

b) Test Level Driven Development

c) Function-Driven Development

d) Performance-Driven Development

Select ONE option.

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6. Which of the following BEST describes retrospectives?

a) Retrospectives allow team members to identify other team members who did not fully contribute to achieving quality as required by the whole-team approach

b) Retrospectives give testers an opportunity to identify activities that were successful so that these are retained when potential improvements are made in the future

c) Retrospectives are where agile team members are allowed to voice their concerns about management and customers in a blame-free environment

d) Retrospectives give agile team members a forum where they focus on discussing the plan and technical decisions for the next iteration

Select ONE option.

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7. Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed if the testing is focused on validation and is not being performed by testers?

a) Component testing

b) Component integration testing

c) System integration testing

d) Acceptance testing

Select ONE option.

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8. Which of the following statements is a CORRECT example of the value of traceability?

a) Traceability between the mitigated risks and passing test cases provides a means of determining the level of residual risk

b) Traceability between user requirements and test execution results provides a means of measuring project progress against business goals

c) Traceability between testers and failing test cases provides a means of determining the skill level of the testers

d) Traceability between the identified risks and written test conditions provides a means of determining which risks are worth testing

Select ONE option.

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9. The following is a list of the work products produced in the SDLC.

i. Business requirements
ii. Schedule
iii. Test budget
iv. Third-party executable code
v. User stories and their acceptance criteria

Which of them can be reviewed?

a) i and iv can be reviewed

b) i, ii, iii and iv can be reviewed

c) i, ii, iii, and v can be reviewed

d) iii, iv, v can be reviewed

Select ONE option.

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10. Which of the following statements about quality assurance (QA) and/or quality control (QC) is correct?

a) QA is performed as part of testing

b) Testing is performed as part of QC

c) Testing is another term for QC

d) Testing is performed as part of QA

Select ONE option.

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11. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a risk of test automation?

a) The detection of additional high-severity defects

b) Providing measures that are too complicated for humans to derive

c) Incompatibility with the development platform

d) Substantially reduced test execution times

Select ONE options.

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12. Consider the following defect report for a Book Lending System.

Which of the following is MOST likely to help the developer reproduce the failure quickly?

a) Adding information about which users and which books the issue affects to the “Description” section

b) Filling in the missing value for the “Priority” field

c) Adding memory dumps and database snapshots taken after each step described in the “Steps to Reproduce” section to the “Attachments” section.

d) Repeating the same test case for different environments and writing defect reports for each of them separately

Select ONE options.

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13. Which of the following BEST define EXIT criteria in a testing project?

a) The budget is approved

b) Budget runs out

c) Test basis is available

d) Test cases achieved at least 80% statement coverage

e) All test analysts are ISTQB certified at the Foundation Level

Select TWO options.

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14. Which of the following factors (i-v) have SIGNIFICANT influence on the test process?

i. The SDLC
ii. The number of defects detected in previous projects
iii. The identified product risks
iv. New regulatory requirements forcing formal white-box testing
v. The test environment setup

a) i, ii have significant influence

b) i, iii, iv have significant influence

c) ii, iv, v have significant influence

d) iii, v have significant influence

Select ONE option.

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15. You work as a tester in a project on a mobile application for food ordering for one of your clients. The client sent you a list of requirements. One of them, with high priority, says

“The order must be processed in less than 10 seconds in 95% of the cases”.

You created a set of test cases in which a number of random orders were made, the processing time measured, and the test results were checked against the requirements.

What test type did you perform?

a) Functional, because the test cases cover the user’s business requirement for the system

b) Non-functional, because the measure the system’s performance

c) Functional, because the test cases interact with the user interface

d) Structural, because we need to know the internal structure of the program to measure the order processing time

Select ONE option.

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16. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent stakeholder feedback?

a) Changes to requirements are understood and implemented earlier

b) It ensures business stakeholders understand user requirements

c) It allows product owners to change their requirements as often as they want

d) End users are told which requirements will not be implemented prior to release

Select ONE option.

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17. Which of the following BEST describe the collaborative approach to user story writing?

a) User stories are created by testers and developers and then accepted by business representatives

b) User stories are created by business representatives, developers, and testers together

c) User stories are created by business representatives and verified by developers and testers

d) User stories are created in a way that they are independent, negotiable, valuable, estimable, small, and testable

Select ONE option.

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18. You are working on a project to develop a system to analyze driving test results. You have been asked to design test cases based on the following decision table.

What test data will show that there are contradictory rules in the decision table?

a) C1 = T, C2 = T, C3 = F

b) C1 = T, C2 = F, C3 = T

c) C1 = T, C2 = T, C3 = T and C1 = F, C2 = T, C3 = T

d) C1 = F, C2 = F, C3 = F

Select ONE option.

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19. How is the whole team approach present in the interactions between testers and business representatives?

a) Business representatives decide on test automation approaches

b) Testers help business representatives to define test strategy

c) Business representatives are not part of the whole team approach

d) Testers help business representatives to create suitable acceptance tests

Select ONE option.

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20. Given the following descriptions of review activities:

1. Detected anomalies are deliberated upon, and determinations are reached regarding their status, ownership, and any further steps needed
2. Issues are recorded, and any needed updates are addressed prior to the acceptance of the work product
3. Reviewers employ techniques to come up with suggestions and questions about the work product and to spot anomalies
4. The objective of the review and its schedule are established to ensure a focused and efficient review
5. Participants are provided with access to the item being reviewed

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence in the review process of the activities that correspond to the descriptions?

a) 4 – 3 – 5 – 2 – 1

b) 4 – 5 – 3 – 1 – 2

c) 5 – 4 – 1 – 3 – 2

d) 5 – 4 – 3 – 2 – 1

Select ONE option.

21 / 40

21. You are working as a tester in the team that follows the V-model. The choice of software development lifecycle (SDLC) model impacts the timing of testing, which of the following statement is NOT true?

a) Dynamic testing can be performed early in the SDLC

b) Static testing can be performed early in the SDLC

c) Test planning can be performed early in the SDLC

d) Acceptance testing can be performed early in the SDLC

Select ONE option.

22 / 40

22. Which of the following is an example of how product risk analysis influences thoroughness and scope of testing?

a) The test manager monitors and reports the level of all known risks on a daily basis so the stakeholders can make an informed decision on the release date

b) One of the identified risks was "Lack of support of open-source databases", so the team decided to integrate the system with an open-source database

c) During the quantitative risk analysis, the team estimated the total level of all identified risks and reported it as the total residual risk before testing

d) Risk assessment revealed a very high level of performance risks, so it was decided to perform detailed performance efficiency testing early in the SDLC

Select ONE option.

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23. Which of the following tests is MOST likely to be performed as part of functional testing?

a) The test checks that the sort function puts the elements of the list or array in ascending order

b) The test checks whether the sort function completes sorting within one second of starting

c) The test checks how easily the sort function can be changed from sorting ascending to sorting descending

d) The test checks that the sort function still functions correctly when moved from a 32-bit to a 64-bit architecture

Select ONE option.

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24. Decide which of the following statements (i-v) are true for static testing.

i. Abnormal external behaviors are easier to identify with this testing
ii. Discrepancies from a coding standard are easier to find with this testing
iii. It identifies failures caused by defects when the software is run
iv. Its test objective is to identify defects as early as possible
v. Missing coverage for critical security requirements is easier to find and fix

a) i, iv, v are true for static testing

b) i, iii, iv are true for static testing

c) ii, iii are true for static testing

d) ii, iv, v are true for static testing

Select ONE option.

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25. You work in a team that develops a mobile application for food ordering. In the current iteration the team decided to implement the payment functionality.

Which of the following activities is a part of test analysis?

a) Estimating that testing the integration with the payment service will take 8 person-days

b) Deciding that the team should test if it is possible to properly share payment between many users

c) Using boundary value analysis (BVA) to derive the test data for the test cases that check the correct payment processing for the minimum allowed amount to be paid

d) Analyzing the discrepancy between the actual result and expected result after executing a test case that checks the process of payment with a credit card, and reporting a defect

Select ONE option.

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26. Your team analyzes the following user story in order to define the acceptance criteria:

As a registered customer, I want to be able to view my previous orders on the company's website, so that I can keep track of my purchases.

Which of the following test cases will NOT be relevant for this user story?

a) Input: the customer logs into their account on the website and clicks the “see order history” button Expected output: the system shows a list of all the customer’s previous orders, including the date, order number, and total cost

b) Input: the customer clicks on an order from the order list Expected output: the system displays the individual items purchased, along with their prices and quantities

c) Input: the customer clicks “Sort ascending” button on the order history screen Expected output: the system shows the order history sorted by order number in ascending order

d) Input: an unregistered customer registers as a new customer with a valid e-mail address that does not already exist in the customer database Expected output: the system accepts the registration and creates the account

Select ONE option.

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27. The following decision table contains the rules for determining the risk of atherosclerosis.

You designed the test cases with the following test input data:

TC1: Cholesterol = 125 mg/dl Blood pressure = 141 mm Hg
TC2: Cholesterol = 200 mg/dl Blood pressure = 201 mm Hg
TC3: Cholesterol = 124 mg/dl Blood pressure = 201 mm Hg
TC4: Cholesterol = 109 mg/dl Blood pressure = 200 mm Hg
TC5: Cholesterol = 201 mg/dl Blood pressure = 140 mm Hg

What is the decision table coverage achieved by these test cases?

a) 40%

b) 60%

c) 80%

d) 100%

Select ONE option.

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28. Which of the following BEST describes an example of how configuration management (CM) supports testing?

a) Having the version number of the environment, the CM tool can retrieve the version numbers of libraries, stubs and drivers used in that environment

b) Having a record of the values of the test inputs, the CM tool can execute the test cases for these configurations and calculate test coverage

c) Having data about the date of purchase of a software license, the CM tool automatically generates information about the fact that the product license is coming to an end

d) Having the version number of the test case, the CM tool can automatically generate test data for this test case

Select ONE option.

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29. Which TWO of the following options are the exit criteria for testing a system?

a) Test environment readiness

b) The ability to log in to the test object by the tester

c) Estimated defect density is reached

d) Requirements are translated into given/when/then format

e) Regression tests are automated

Select TWO options.

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30. You were given a task to analyze and fix causes of failures in a new system to be released.

Which activity are you performing?

a) Debugging

b) Software testing

c) Requirement elicitation

d) Defect management

Select ONE option.

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31. You are using acceptance test-driven development and designing test cases based on the following user story:

Which test case is the MOST reasonable one to test AC3?

a) Check that a Regular user can access floors 1 and 3

b) Check that a Regular user cannot access floor 4

c) Check that a Special user can access floor 5

d) Check that a Special user can access floors 1, 2 and 3

Select ONE option.

32 / 40

32. Which of the following statements about branch testing is CORRECT?

a) If a program includes only unconditional branches, then 100% branch coverage can be achieved without executing any test cases

b) If the test cases exercise all unconditional branches in the code, then 100% branch coverage is achieved

c) If 100% statement coverage is achieved, then 100% branch coverage is also achieved

d) If 100% branch coverage is achieved, then all decision outcomes in each decision statement in the code are exercised

Select ONE option.

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33. Which of the following is a typical test objective?

a) Finding and fixing defects in the test object

b) Maintaining effective communications with developers

c) Validating that legal requirements have been met

d) Building confidence in the quality of the test object

Select ONE option.

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34. How can white-box testing be useful in support of black-box testing?

a) White-box coverage measures can help testers evaluate black-box tests in terms of the code coverage achieved by these black-box tests

b) White-box coverage analysis can help testers identify unreachable fragments of the source code

c) Branch testing subsumes black-box test techniques, so achieving full branch coverage guarantees achieving full coverage of any black-box technique

d) White-box test techniques can provide coverage items for black-box techniques

Select ONE option.

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35. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a trigger that leads to maintenance testing of a currency exchange system?

a) The developers reported that changing the currency exchange system was difficult and the testers decided to check if this was true

b) The refund option of the currency exchange system was removed as it did not always repay the correct amount to customers

c) The agile team has started developing a user story that adds a new customer loyalty feature to the currency exchange system

d) The currency exchange system was reconfigured to support both English and local language currency transactions

Select ONE option.

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36. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test automation?

a) It provides coverage measures that are too complicated for humans to derive

b) It shares responsibility for the testing with the tool vendor

c) It removes the need for critical thinking when analyzing test results

d) It generates test cases from an analysis of the program code

Select ONE option.

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37. You are testing a PIN validator, which accepts valid PINs and rejects invalid PINs. A PIN is a sequence of digits. A PIN is valid if it consists of four digits, at least two of which are different. You have identified the following valid equivalence partitions:

Variable: PIN code length

• The partition “length correct” - four-digit PINs
• The partition “length incorrect” - PINs with length other than 4

Variable: Number of different digits

• The partition “number of different digits correct” - PINs with at least two different digits
• The partition “number of different digits incorrect” - PINs with all digits being the same

Which of the following is a MINIMUM set of input test data that covers all identified equivalence partitions?

a) 1, 1111, 1234

b) 111, 1111, 1112

c) 1, 12345

d) 12345, 1234

Select ONE option.

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38. Which of the following CANNOT be examined by static testing?

a) Contract

b) Test plan

c) Encrypted code

d) Test charter

Select ONE option.

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39. In many software organizations the test department is called the Quality Assurance (QA) department. Is this sentence correct or not and why?

a) It is correct. Testing and QA mean exactly the same thing

b) It is correct. These names can be used interchangeably because both testing and QA focus their activities on the same quality issues

c) It is not correct. Testing is something more; testing includes all activities with regard to quality. QA focuses on quality-related processes

d) It is not correct. QA is focused on quality-related processes while testing concentrates on demonstrating that a component or system is fit for purpose and to detect defects

Select ONE option.

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40. Which of the following pieces of information contained in a test progress report is the LEAST useful for business representatives?

a) Impediments to testing

b) Branch coverage achieved

c) Test progress

d) New risks within the test cycle

Select ONE option.

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