Exam 5 – 75 minutes – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 23, 2024 By

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Exam 5 - 75 minutes

Name

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1. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a challenge encountered when implementing DevOps?

a) Making sure that non-functional quality characteristics are not overlooked

b) Managing continuously changing test environments

c) The need for more manual testers with suitable experience

d) Setting up the test automation as part of the delivery pipeline

Select ONE option.

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2. You run two test cases, T1 and T2, on the same code. Test T1 achieved 40% statement coverage and test T2 achieved 65% statement coverage.

Which of the following sentences must be necessarily true?

a) The test suite composed with tests T1 and T2 achieves 105% statement coverage

b) There exists at least one statement that must have been executed by both T1 and T2

c) At least 5% of the statements in the code under test are non-executable

d) The test suite composed of tests T1 and T2 achieves full branch coverage

Select ONE option.

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3. Which of the following is a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

a) Each test level has specific and distinct test objectives

b) Test implementation and execution for a given test level should start during the corresponding development phase

c) Testers should start test design as soon as drafts of the relevant work products become available

d) Every dynamic testing activity has a corresponding static testing activity

Select ONE option.

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4. Given the following test tool categories:

i. Collaboration tools
ii. DevOps tools
iii. Management tools
iv. Non-functional testing tools
v. Test design and implementation tools

Tools from which of the categories are MOST likely to facilitate test execution?

a) i, v

b) ii, iv

c) i, iii, v

d) ii, iii, iv

Select ONE options.

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5. Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?

a) Component Test-Driven Development

b) Integration Test-Driven Development

c) System Test-Driven Development

d) Acceptance Test-Driven Development

Select ONE option.

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6. Which of the following is an example of why testing is necessary?

a) Dynamic testing increases quality by causing test objects to fail in ways that could never be achieved by the users

b) Static testing is used by developers to identify failures in their program code earlier than can be achieved through dynamic testing

c) Static analysis provides evidence to customers that the elements of the system that provide no outputs are fit for release

d) Reviews increase the quality of requirements specifications and lead to fewer changes being needed in derived work products

Select ONE option.

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7. Which of the following is an example of a defect that can be found by static testing but NOT by dynamic testing?

a) Lack of usability provided through the user interface

b) Code with no path that reaches it

c) Poor response times for most of the expected users

d) Required features that are not implemented in the code

Select ONE option.

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8. Which of the following is NOT an example of how configuration management supports testing?

a) All commits to the repository are uniquely identified and version controlled

b) All changes in the test environment elements are tracked

c) All requirement specifications are referenced unambiguously in test plans

d) All identified defects have an assigned status

Select ONE option.

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9. You are testing a mobile application that allows users to find a nearby restaurant based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (i.e., a smaller number means a higher priority), and dependencies:

Which of the following test cases should be executed as the third one?

a) TC 003

b) TC 005

c) TC 002

d) TC 001

Select ONE option.

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10. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent feedback?

a) It improves the test process for future projects

b) It forces customers to prioritize their requirements based on agreed risks

c) It is the only way to measure the quality of changes

d) It helps avoid requirements misunderstandings

Select ONE option.

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11. Which of the following statements about the value of static testing is CORRECT?

a) The defect types found by static testing are different from the defect types that can be found by dynamic testing

b) Dynamic testing can detect the defect types that can be found by static testing plus some additional defect types

c) Dynamic testing can identify some of the defects that can be found by static testing but not all of them

d) Static testing can identify the defect types that can be found by dynamic testing as well as some extra defect types

Select ONE option.

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12. Which TWO of the following options are common metrics used for reporting on the quality level of the test object?

a) Number of defects found during system testing

b) Total effort on test design divided by the number of designed test cases

c) Number of executed test procedures

d) Number of defects found divided by the size of a work product

e) Time needed to repair a defect

Select TWO options.

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13. The system for selling cinema tickets calculates the discount type based on the client’s birth year (BY) and on the current year (CY) as follows:

Let D be the difference between CY and BY, that is, D = CY – BY

• If D < 0 then print the error message “birth year cannot be greater than current year”

• If 0 ≤ D < 18 then apply the student discount

• If 18 ≤ D < 65 then apply no discount • If D ≥ 65 then apply the pensioner discount

Your test suite already contains two test cases:

• BY = 1990, CY = 2020, expected result: no discount
• BY = 2030, CY = 2029, expected result: print the error message

Which of the following test data sets should be added to achieve full valid equivalence partitioning coverage for the discount type?

a) BY = 2001, CY = 2065

b) BY = 1900, CY = 1965

c) BY = 1965, CY = 1900

d) BY = 2011, CY = 2029

e) BY = 2000, CY = 2000

Select TWO options.

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14. Which of the following test activities are MOST likely to involve the application of boundary value analysis and equivalence partitioning?

a) Test implementation

b) Test design

c) Test execution

d) Test monitoring

e) Test analysis

Select TWO options.

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15. Consider the following testware.

Which test activity produces this testware as an output?

a) Test planning

b) Test monitoring and control

c) Test analysis

d) Test design

Select ONE option.

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16. Which of the following provides the BEST description of the shift-left approach?

a) When agreed by the developers, manual activities on the left-hand side of the test process are automated to support the principle of ‘early testing saves time and money’

b) Where cost-effective, test activities are moved to be performed earlier in the software development lifecycle (SDLC) to reduce the total cost of quality by reducing the number of defects found later in the SDLC

c) When they have spare time available, testers are required to automate tests for regression testing, starting with component tests and component integration tests

d) When available, testers are trained to perform tasks early in the SDLC to allow more test activities to be automated later in the SDLC

Select ONE option.

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17. You are working on a project to develop a system to analyze driving test results. You have been asked to design test cases based on the following decision table.

What test data will show that there are contradictory rules in the decision table?

a) C1 = T, C2 = T, C3 = F

b) C1 = T, C2 = F, C3 = T

c) C1 = T, C2 = T, C3 = T and C1 = F, C2 = T, C3 = T

d) C1 = F, C2 = F, C3 = F

Select ONE option.

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18. You were given a task to analyze and fix causes of failures in a new system to be released.

Which activity are you performing?

a) Debugging

b) Software testing

c) Requirement elicitation

d) Defect management

Select ONE option.

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19. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the test pyramid?

a) The test pyramid emphasizes having a larger number of tests at the lower test levels

b) The closer to the top of the pyramid, the more formal your test automation should be

c) Usually, component testing and component integration testing are automated using API-based tools

d) For system testing and acceptance testing, the automated tests are typically created using GUI-based tools

Select ONE option.

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20. Which participant in the review process is responsible for ensuring that the review meetings run effectively and that everyone at the meetings can voice their opinions freely?

a) Manager

b) Moderator

c) Chairperson

d) Review Leader

Select ONE option.

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21. You are working as a tester in the team that follows the V-model. The choice of software development lifecycle (SDLC) model impacts the timing of testing, which of the following statement is NOT true?

a) Dynamic testing can be performed early in the SDLC

b) Static testing can be performed early in the SDLC

c) Test planning can be performed early in the SDLC

d) Acceptance testing can be performed early in the SDLC

Select ONE option.

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22. Which of the following statements describe a valid test objective?

a) To prove that there are no unfixed defects in the system under test

b) To prove that there will be no failures after the implementation of the system into production

c) To reduce the risk level of the test object and to build confidence in the quality level

d) To verify that there are no untested combinations of inputs

Select ONE option.

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23. The navigation system software has been updated due to it suggesting routes that break traffic laws, such as driving the wrong way down one-way streets. Which of the following BEST describes the testing that will be performed?

a) Only confirmation testing

b) Confirmation testing then regression testing

c) Only regression testing

d) Regression testing then confirmation testing

Select ONE option.

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24. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes:

• There is the role of a scribe
• The main purpose is to evaluate quality
• The meeting is led by the author of the work product
• There is individual preparation
• A review report is produced

Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used?

a) Informal review

b) Walkthrough

c) Technical review

d) Inspection

Select ONE option.

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25. Which of the following statements about DevOps is CORRECT?

a) To speed up releases, continuous integration is used to encourage developers to submit code quickly without the need to complete component testing

b) To be able to update and release systems on a more frequent basis, many automated regression tests are required to reduce the danger of regression

c) To treat both developers and operations equally, the testers will allocate more effort to release testing by operations using a shift-right approach

d) To create increased synergy between testers, developers and operations, the testing must become fully automated with no manual testing

Select ONE option.

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26. According to the testing quadrants model, which of the following falls into quadrant Q1 (“technology facing” and “support the team”)?

a) Usability testing

b) Functional testing

c) User acceptance testing

d) Component integration testing

Select ONE option.

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27. Which of the following factors (i-v) have SIGNIFICANT influence on the test process?

i. The SDLC
ii. The number of defects detected in previous projects
iii. The identified product risks
iv. New regulatory requirements forcing formal white-box testing
v. The test environment setup

a) i, ii have significant influence

b) i, iii, iv have significant influence

c) ii, iv, v have significant influence

d) iii, v have significant influence

Select ONE option.

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28. Your team follows the process that uses the DevOps delivery pipeline. The first three steps of this process are:

(1) Code development
(2) Submit code into a version control system and merge it into the “test” branch
(3) Perform component testing for the submitted code

Which of the following is BEST suited to be the entry criterion for step (2) of this pipeline?

a) Static analysis returns no high severity warnings for the submitted code

b) System version control reports no conflicts when merging code into the “test” branch

c) Component tests are compiled and ready to be executed

d) Statement coverage is at least 80%

Select ONE option.

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29. How do testers add value to iteration and release planning?

a) Testers determine the priority of the user stories to be developed

b) Testers focus only on the functional aspects of the system to be tested

c) Testers participate in the detailed risk identification and risk assessment of user stories

d) Testers guarantee the release of high-quality software through early test design during the release planning

Select ONE option.

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30. How can white-box testing be useful in support of black-box testing?

a) White-box coverage measures can help testers evaluate black-box tests in terms of the code coverage achieved by these black-box tests

b) White-box coverage analysis can help testers identify unreachable fragments of the source code

c) Branch testing subsumes black-box test techniques, so achieving full branch coverage guarantees achieving full coverage of any black-box technique

d) White-box test techniques can provide coverage items for black-box techniques

Select ONE option.

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31. In many software organizations the test department is called the Quality Assurance (QA) department. Is this sentence correct or not and why?

a) It is correct. Testing and QA mean exactly the same thing

b) It is correct. These names can be used interchangeably because both testing and QA focus their activities on the same quality issues

c) It is not correct. Testing is something more; testing includes all activities with regard to quality. QA focuses on quality-related processes

d) It is not correct. QA is focused on quality-related processes while testing concentrates on demonstrating that a component or system is fit for purpose and to detect defects

Select ONE option.

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32. Which of the following pieces of information contained in a test progress report is the LEAST useful for business representatives?

a) Impediments to testing

b) Branch coverage achieved

c) Test progress

d) New risks within the test cycle

Select ONE option.

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33. Which of the following BEST describes retrospectives?

a) Retrospectives allow team members to identify other team members who did not fully contribute to achieving quality as required by the whole-team approach

b) Retrospectives give testers an opportunity to identify activities that were successful so that these are retained when potential improvements are made in the future

c) Retrospectives are where agile team members are allowed to voice their concerns about management and customers in a blame-free environment

d) Retrospectives give agile team members a forum where they focus on discussing the plan and technical decisions for the next iteration

Select ONE option.

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34. Consider the following rule: “for every SDLC activity there is a corresponding test activity”. In which SDLC models does this rule hold?

a) Only in sequential SDLC models

b) Only in iterative SDLC models

c) Only in iterative and incremental SDLC models

d) In sequential, incremental, and iterative SDLC models

Select ONE option.

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35. Your team analyzes the following user story in order to define the acceptance criteria:

As a registered customer, I want to be able to view my previous orders on the company's website, so that I can keep track of my purchases.

Which of the following test cases will NOT be relevant for this user story?

a) Input: the customer logs into their account on the website and clicks the “see order history” button Expected output: the system shows a list of all the customer’s previous orders, including the date, order number, and total cost

b) Input: the customer clicks on an order from the order list Expected output: the system displays the individual items purchased, along with their prices and quantities

c) Input: the customer clicks “Sort ascending” button on the order history screen Expected output: the system shows the order history sorted by order number in ascending order

d) Input: an unregistered customer registers as a new customer with a valid e-mail address that does not already exist in the customer database Expected output: the system accepts the registration and creates the account

Select ONE option.

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36. Given the following roles in reviews:

1. Scribe
2. Review leader
3. Facilitator
4. Manager

And the following responsibilities in reviews:

A. Ensures the effective running of review meetings and the setting up a safe review environment
B. Records review information, such as decisions and new anomalies found during the review meeting
C. Decides what is to be reviewed and provides resources, such as staff and time for the review
D. Takes overall responsibility for the review such as organizing when and where the review will take place

Which of the following BEST matches the roles and responsibilities?

a) 1A, 2B, 3D, 4C

b) 1A, 2C, 3B, 4D

c) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C

d) 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A

Select ONE option.

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37. Which of the following options shows an example of test activities that contribute to success?

a) Having testers involved during various software development lifecycle (SDLC) activities will help to detect defects in work products

b) Testers try not to disturb the developers while coding, so that the developers write better code

c) Testers collaborating with end users help to improve the quality of defect reports during component integration and system testing

d) Certified testers will design much better test cases than non-certified testers

Select ONE option.

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38. You have been assigned as a tester to a team producing a new system incrementally. You have noticed that no changes have been made to the existing regression test cases for several iterations and no new regression defects were identified. Your manager is happy, but you are not. Which testing principle explains your skepticism?

a) Tests wear out

b) Absence-of-errors fallacy

c) Defects cluster together

d) Exhaustive testing is impossible

Select ONE option.

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39. What is the MAIN difference between black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques?

a) The test object

b) The test level at which the test technique is used

c) The test basis

d) The software development lifecycle (SDLC) in which the test technique can be used

Select ONE option.

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40. Which of the following BEST define EXIT criteria in a testing project?

a) The budget is approved

b) Budget runs out

c) Test basis is available

d) Test cases achieved at least 80% statement coverage

e) All test analysts are ISTQB certified at the Foundation Level

Select TWO options.

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