ISTQB Learning

Test your knowledge

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Created on By Admin

Exam 5 - 75 minutes

1 / 40

1. Given the following review types:

1. Technical review
2. Informal review
3. Inspection
4. Walkthrough

And the following descriptions:

A. Includes objectives such as gaining consensus, generating new ideas, and motivating authors to improve
B. Includes objectives such as educating reviewers, gaining consensus, generating new ideas and detecting potential defects
C. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it requires metrics collection to support process improvement
D. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it generates no formal documented output

Which of the following BEST matches the review types and the descriptions?

Select ONE option.

2 / 40

2. Given the following descriptions of review activities:

1. Detected anomalies are deliberated upon, and determinations are reached regarding their status, ownership, and any further steps needed
2. Issues are recorded, and any needed updates are addressed prior to the acceptance of the work product
3. Reviewers employ techniques to come up with suggestions and questions about the work product and to spot anomalies
4. The objective of the review and its schedule are established to ensure a focused and efficient review
5. Participants are provided with access to the item being reviewed

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence in the review process of the activities that correspond to the descriptions?

Select ONE option.

3 / 40

3. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a test plan?

Select ONE option.

4 / 40

4. Which of the following provides the BEST example of a scenario-oriented acceptance criterion?

Select ONE option.

5 / 40

5. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test automation?

 

Select ONE option.

6 / 40

6. Which test activity does a data preparation tool support?

Select ONE option.

7 / 40

7. The following is a list of the work products produced in the SDLC.

i. Business requirements
ii. Schedule
iii. Test budget
iv. Third-party executable code
v. User stories and their acceptance criteria

Which of them can be reviewed?

Select ONE option.

8 / 40

8. During risk analysis the team considered the following risk: “The system allows too high a discount for a customer”. The team estimated the risk impact to be very high.

What can one say about the risk likelihood?

Select ONE option.

9 / 40

9. The ‘absence-of-defects fallacy’ is one of the principles of testing. Which of the following is an example of addressing this principle in practice?

Select ONE option.

10 / 40

10. Consider the following test categories (1-4) and agile testing quadrants (A-D):

1. Usability testing
2. Component testing
3. Functional testing
4. Reliability testing

A. Agile testing quadrant Q1: technology facing, supporting the development team
B. Agile testing quadrant Q2: business facing, supporting the development team
C. Agile testing quadrant Q3: business facing, critique the product
D. Agile testing quadrant Q4: technology facing, critique the product

How do the following test categories map onto the agile testing quadrants?

Select ONE option.

11 / 40

11. Which of the following factors (i-v) have SIGNIFICANT influence on the test process?

i. The SDLC
ii. The number of defects detected in previous projects
iii. The identified product risks
iv. New regulatory requirements forcing formal white-box testing
v. The test environment setup

Select ONE option.

12 / 40

12. What does the test pyramid model show?

Select ONE option.

13 / 40

13. Consider the following testware.

Which test activity produces this testware as an output?

Select ONE option.

14 / 40

14. Your test suite S for a program P achieves 100% statement coverage. It consists of three test cases, each of which achieves 50% statement coverage.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Select ONE option.

15 / 40

15. Which of the following statements is a CORRECT example of the value of traceability?

Select ONE option.

16 / 40

16. Which of the following skills (i-v) are the MOST important skills of a tester?

i. Having domain knowledge
ii. Creating a product vision
iii. Being a good team player
iv. Planning and organizing the work of the team
v. Critical thinking

Select ONE option.

17 / 40

17. Which of the following is an example of how product risk analysis may influence the thoroughness and scope of testing?

Select ONE option.

18 / 40

18. You are using acceptance test-driven development and designing test cases based on the following user story:

Which test case is the MOST reasonable one to test AC3?

Select ONE option.

19 / 40

19. You are working on a project to develop a system to analyze driving test results. You have been asked to design test cases based on the following decision table.

What test data will show that there are contradictory rules in the decision table?

Select ONE option.

20 / 40

20. Given the following example defects:

i. Two different parts of the design specification disagree due to the complexity of the design
ii. A response time is too long and so makes users lose patience
iii. A path in the code cannot be reached during execution
iv. A variable is declared but never subsequently used in the program
v. The amount of memory needed by the program to generate a report is too high

Which of the following BEST identifies example defects that could be found by static testing (rather than dynamic testing)?

Select ONE option.

21 / 40

21. Which of the following are product risks?

Select TWO options.

22 / 40

22. Which of the following BEST describes how using checklist-based testing can result in increased coverage?

Select ONE option.

23 / 40

23. Which of the following statements about the value of static testing is CORRECT?

Select ONE option.

24 / 40

24. How can white-box testing be useful in support of black-box testing?

Select ONE option.

25 / 40

25. You are testing a sort function that gets a set of numbers as input and returns the same set of numbers sorted in ascending order. The log from the test execution looks as follows.

Which of the following provides the BEST description of the failure that can be used in a defect report?

Select ONE option.

26 / 40

26. Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?

Select ONE option.

27 / 40

27. Which of the following statements describe a valid test objective?

Select ONE option.

28 / 40

28. How is the whole team approach present in the interactions between testers and business representatives?

Select ONE option.

29 / 40

29. Your team follows the process that uses the DevOps delivery pipeline. The first three steps of this process are:

(1) Code development
(2) Submit code into a version control system and merge it into the “test” branch
(3) Perform component testing for the submitted code

Which of the following is BEST suited to be the entry criterion for step (2) of this pipeline?

Select ONE option.

30 / 40

30. A phone ringing in a neighboring cubicle distracts a programmer causing him to improperly program the logic that checks the upper boundary of an input variable. Later, during system testing, a tester notices that this input field accepts invalid input values.

Which of the following correctly describes an incorrectly coded upper bound?

Select ONE option.

31 / 40

31. A storage system can store up to three elements and is modeled by the following state transition diagram. The variable N represents the number of currently stored elements.

Which of the following test cases, represented as sequences of events, achieves the highest level of valid transitions coverage?

Select ONE option.

32 / 40

32. Which of the following provides the BEST description of the shift-left approach?

Select ONE option.

33 / 40

33. Which of the following are advantages of DevOps?

i. Faster product release and faster time to market
ii. Increases the need for repetitive manual testing
iii. Constant availability of executable software
iv. Reduction in the number of regression tests associated with code refactoring
v. Setting up the test automation framework is inexpensive since everything is automated

Select ONE option.

34 / 40

34. What task may management take on during a formal review?

Select ONE option.

35 / 40

35. Which of the following is a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

Select ONE option.

36 / 40

36. You have been assigned as a tester to a team producing a new system incrementally. You have noticed that no changes have been made to the existing regression test cases for several iterations and no new regression defects were identified. Your manager is happy, but you are not. Which testing principle explains your skepticism?

Select ONE option.

37 / 40

37. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test automation?

Select ONE option.

38 / 40

38. You are testing a PIN validator, which accepts valid PINs and rejects invalid PINs. A PIN is a sequence of digits. A PIN is valid if it consists of four digits, at least two of which are different. You have identified the following valid equivalence partitions:

Variable: PIN code length

• The partition “length correct” - four-digit PINs
• The partition “length incorrect” - PINs with length other than 4

Variable: Number of different digits

• The partition “number of different digits correct” - PINs with at least two different digits
• The partition “number of different digits incorrect” - PINs with all digits being the same

Which of the following is a MINIMUM set of input test data that covers all identified equivalence partitions?

Select ONE option.

39 / 40

39. Which of the following CANNOT be examined by static testing?

Select ONE option.

40 / 40

40. Which types of failures (1-4) fit which test levels (A-D) BEST?

1. Failures in system behavior as it deviates from the user’s business needs
2. Failures in communication between components
3. Failures in logic in a module
4. Failures in not correctly implemented business rules

A. Component testing
B. Component integration testing
C. System testing
D. Acceptance testing

Select ONE option.

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