Exam 5 – 75 minutes – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 23, 2024 By

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Exam 5 - 75 minutes

Name

1 / 40

1. Which of the following activities in the test process makes the MOST use of test progress reports?

a) Test design

b) Test completion

c) Test analysis

d) Test planning

Select ONE option.

2 / 40

2. Which of these statements is NOT a factor that contributes to successful reviews?

a) Participants should dedicate adequate time for the review

b) Splitting large work products into small parts to make the required effort less intense

c) Participants should avoid behaviors that might indicate boredom, exasperation, or hostility to other participants

d) Failures found should be acknowledged, appreciated, and handled objectively

Select ONE option.

3 / 40

3. Which of the following is NOT an example of the shift left approach?

a) Reviewing the user requirements before they are formally accepted by the stakeholders

b) Writing a component test before the corresponding code is written

c) Executing a performance efficiency test for a component during component testing

d) Writing a test script before setting up the configuration management process

Select ONE option.

4 / 40

4. You are applying state transition testing to the hotel room reservation system modeled by the following state transition table, with 4 states and 5 different events:

Assuming all test cases start in the ‘Requesting’ state, which of the following test cases, represented as sequences of events, achieves the highest valid transitions coverage?

a) NotAvailable, Available, ChangeRoom, NotAvailable, Cancel

b) Available, ChangeRoom, NotAvailable, Available, Pay

c) Available, ChangeRoom, Available, ChangeRoom, NotAvailable

d) NotAvailable, Cancel, ChangeRoom, Available, Pay

Select ONE option.

5 / 40

5. You run two test cases, T1 and T2, on the same code. Test T1 achieved 40% statement coverage and test T2 achieved 65% statement coverage.

Which of the following sentences must be necessarily true?

a) The test suite composed with tests T1 and T2 achieves 105% statement coverage

b) There exists at least one statement that must have been executed by both T1 and T2

c) At least 5% of the statements in the code under test are non-executable

d) The test suite composed of tests T1 and T2 achieves full branch coverage

Select ONE option.

6 / 40

6. You are preparing a test execution schedule for executing seven test cases TC 1 to TC 7.

The following figure includes the priorities of these test cases (1=highest priority, 3 = lowest priority).

The figure also shows the dependencies between test cases using arrows. For instance, the arrow from TC 4 to TC 5 means that TC 5 can only be executed if TC 4 was previously executed.

Which test case should be executed sixth?

a) TC 3

b) TC 5

c) TC 6

d) TC 2

Select ONE option.

7 / 40

7. Which of the following is the BEST example of how traceability supports testing?

a) Performing the impact analysis of a change will give information about the completion of the tests

b) Analyzing the traceability between test cases and test results will give information about the estimated level of residual risk

c) Performing the impact analysis of a change will help selecting the right test cases for regression testing

d) Analyzing the traceability between the test basis, the test objects and the test cases will help in selecting test data to achieve the assumed coverage of the test object

Select ONE option.

8 / 40

8. Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?

a) Component Test-Driven Development

b) Integration Test-Driven Development

c) System Test-Driven Development

d) Acceptance Test-Driven Development

Select ONE option.

9 / 40

9. You were given a task to analyze and fix causes of failures in a new system to be released.

Which activity are you performing?

a) Debugging

b) Software testing

c) Requirement elicitation

d) Defect management

Select ONE option.

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10. You want to apply branch testing to the code represented by the following control flow graph.

How many coverage items do you need to test?

a) 2

b) 4

c) 8

d) 7

Select ONE option.

11 / 40

11. Which of the arguments below would you use to convince your manager to organize retrospectives at the end of each release cycle?

a) Retrospectives are very popular these days and clients would appreciate it if we added them to our processes

b) Organizing retrospectives will save the organization money because without them end user representatives do not provide immediate feedback about the product

c) Process weaknesses identified during the retrospective can be analyzed and serve as a to do list for the organization’s continuous process improvement program

d) Retrospectives embrace five values including courage and respect, which are crucial to maintain continuous improvement in the organization

Select ONE option.

12 / 40

12. Which of the following is an advantage of the whole team approach?

a) Improved communication between team members

b) Decreased individual accountability for quality

c) Faster deployment of deliverables to the end users

d) Reduced collaboration with external business users

Select ONE option.

13 / 40

13. Consider the following defect report for a web-based shopping application:

What is the MOST important information that is missing from this report?

a) Name of the tester and date of the report

b) Test environment elements and their version numbers

c) Identification of the test object

d) Impact on the interests of stakeholders

Select ONE option.

14 / 40

14. Which work product can be used by an agile team to show the amount of work that has been completed and the amount of total work remaining for a given iteration?

a) Acceptance criteria

b) Defect report

c) Test completion report

d) Burndown chart

Select ONE option.

15 / 40

15. Consider the following defect report for a Book Lending System.

Which of the following is MOST likely to help the developer reproduce the failure quickly?

a) Adding information about which users and which books the issue affects to the “Description” section

b) Filling in the missing value for the “Priority” field

c) Adding memory dumps and database snapshots taken after each step described in the “Steps to Reproduce” section to the “Attachments” section.

d) Repeating the same test case for different environments and writing defect reports for each of them separately

Select ONE options.

16 / 40

16. How is the whole team approach present in the interactions between testers and business representatives?

a) Business representatives decide on test automation approaches

b) Testers help business representatives to define test strategy

c) Business representatives are not part of the whole team approach

d) Testers help business representatives to create suitable acceptance tests

Select ONE option.

17 / 40

17. Which of the following statements is a CORRECT example of the value of traceability?

a) Traceability between the mitigated risks and passing test cases provides a means of determining the level of residual risk

b) Traceability between user requirements and test execution results provides a means of measuring project progress against business goals

c) Traceability between testers and failing test cases provides a means of determining the skill level of the testers

d) Traceability between the identified risks and written test conditions provides a means of determining which risks are worth testing

Select ONE option.

18 / 40

18. What does the test pyramid model show?

a) That tests may have different priorities

b) That tests may have different granularity

c) That tests may require different coverage criteria

d) That tests may depend on other tests

Select ONE option.

19 / 40

19. The following is a list of the work products produced in the SDLC.

i. Business requirements
ii. Schedule
iii. Test budget
iv. Third-party executable code
v. User stories and their acceptance criteria

Which of them can be reviewed?

a) i and iv can be reviewed

b) i, ii, iii and iv can be reviewed

c) i, ii, iii, and v can be reviewed

d) iii, iv, v can be reviewed

Select ONE option.

20 / 40

20. Which of the following BEST describes the way acceptance criteria can be documented?

a) Performing retrospectives to determine the actual needs of the stakeholders regarding a given user story

b) Using the given/when/then format to describe an example test condition related to a given user story

c) Using verbal communication to reduce the risk of misunderstanding the acceptance criteria by others

d) Documenting risks related to a given user story in a test plan to facilitate the risk-based testing of a given user story

Select ONE option.

21 / 40

21. Which TWO of the following options are common metrics used for reporting on the quality level of the test object?

a) Number of defects found during system testing

b) Total effort on test design divided by the number of designed test cases

c) Number of executed test procedures

d) Number of defects found divided by the size of a work product

e) Time needed to repair a defect

Select TWO options.

22 / 40

22. Which of the following pieces of information contained in a test progress report is the LEAST useful for business representatives?

a) Impediments to testing

b) Branch coverage achieved

c) Test progress

d) New risks within the test cycle

Select ONE option.

23 / 40

23. The following list contains risks that have been identified for a new software product to be developed:

i. Management moves two experienced testers to another project
ii. The system does not comply with functional safety standards
iii. System response time exceeds user requirements
iv. Stakeholders have inaccurate expectations
v. Disabled people have problems when using the system

Which of them are project risks?

a) i, iv are project risks

b) iv, v are project risks

c) i, iii are project risks

d) ii, v are project risks

Select ONE option.

24 / 40

24. Your team analyzes the following user story in order to define the acceptance criteria:

As a registered customer, I want to be able to view my previous orders on the company's website, so that I can keep track of my purchases.

Which of the following test cases will NOT be relevant for this user story?

a) Input: the customer logs into their account on the website and clicks the “see order history” button Expected output: the system shows a list of all the customer’s previous orders, including the date, order number, and total cost

b) Input: the customer clicks on an order from the order list Expected output: the system displays the individual items purchased, along with their prices and quantities

c) Input: the customer clicks “Sort ascending” button on the order history screen Expected output: the system shows the order history sorted by order number in ascending order

d) Input: an unregistered customer registers as a new customer with a valid e-mail address that does not already exist in the customer database Expected output: the system accepts the registration and creates the account

Select ONE option.

25 / 40

25. Your team uses the three-point estimation technique to estimate the test effort for a new high-risk feature. The following estimates were made:

• Most optimistic estimation: 2 person-hours
• Most likely estimation: 11 person-hours
• Most pessimistic estimation: 14 person-hours

What is the final estimate?

a) 9 person-hours

b) 14 person-hours

c) 11 person-hours

d) 10 person-hours

Select ONE option.

26 / 40

26. Which of the following is a typical test objective?

a) Finding and fixing defects in the test object

b) Maintaining effective communications with developers

c) Validating that legal requirements have been met

d) Building confidence in the quality of the test object

Select ONE option.

27 / 40

27. Which of the following provides the BEST description of the shift-left approach?

a) When agreed by the developers, manual activities on the left-hand side of the test process are automated to support the principle of ‘early testing saves time and money’

b) Where cost-effective, test activities are moved to be performed earlier in the software development lifecycle (SDLC) to reduce the total cost of quality by reducing the number of defects found later in the SDLC

c) When they have spare time available, testers are required to automate tests for regression testing, starting with component tests and component integration tests

d) When available, testers are trained to perform tasks early in the SDLC to allow more test activities to be automated later in the SDLC

Select ONE option.

28 / 40

28. Which of the following statements about DevOps is CORRECT?

a) To speed up releases, continuous integration is used to encourage developers to submit code quickly without the need to complete component testing

b) To be able to update and release systems on a more frequent basis, many automated regression tests are required to reduce the danger of regression

c) To treat both developers and operations equally, the testers will allocate more effort to release testing by operations using a shift-right approach

d) To create increased synergy between testers, developers and operations, the testing must become fully automated with no manual testing

Select ONE option.

29 / 40

29. Which of the following BEST define EXIT criteria in a testing project?

a) The budget is approved

b) Budget runs out

c) Test basis is available

d) Test cases achieved at least 80% statement coverage

e) All test analysts are ISTQB certified at the Foundation Level

Select TWO options.

30 / 40

30. Which of the following BEST fits as an element of the checklist used in checklist-based testing?

a) “The developer made an error when implementing the code”

b) “The achieved statement coverage exceeds 85%”

c) “The program works correctly regarding functional and non-functional requirements”

d) “The error messages are written in language that the user can understand”

Select ONE option.

31 / 40

31. Which of the following statements BEST describes the acceptance test-driven development (ATDD) approach?

a) In ATDD, acceptance criteria are typically created based on the given/when/then format

b) In ATDD, test cases are mainly created at component testing and are code-oriented

c) In ATDD, tests are created, based on acceptance criteria to drive the development of the related software

d) in ATDD, tests are based on the desired behavior of the software, which makes it easier for team members to understand them

Select ONE option.

32 / 40

32. Given the following testware:

i. Test completion report
ii. Data held in a database used for test inputs and expected results
iii. The list of elements needed to build the test environment
iv. Documented sequences of test cases in execution order
v. Test cases

Which of the following BEST shows the testware produced as a result of performing test implementation?

a) ii, iv

b) iii, v

c) i, ii, v

d) i, iii, iv

Select ONE option.

33 / 40

33. Consider the following user story:

As an Editor
I want to review content before it is published
so that I can assure the grammar is correct

and its acceptance criteria:

• The user can log in to the content management system with "Editor" role
• The editor can view existing content pages
• The editor can edit the page content
• The editor can add markup comments
• The editor can save changes
• The editor can reassign to the "content owner" role to make updates

Which of the following is the BEST example of an ATDD test for this user story?

a) Test if the editor can save the document after edit the page content

b) Test if the content owner can log in and make updates to the content

c) Test if the editor can schedule the edited content for publication

d) Test if the editor can reassign to another editor to make updates

Select ONE option.

34 / 40

34. You are testing a PIN validator, which accepts valid PINs and rejects invalid PINs. A PIN is a sequence of digits. A PIN is valid if it consists of four digits, at least two of which are different. You have identified the following valid equivalence partitions:

Variable: PIN code length

• The partition “length correct” - four-digit PINs
• The partition “length incorrect” - PINs with length other than 4

Variable: Number of different digits

• The partition “number of different digits correct” - PINs with at least two different digits
• The partition “number of different digits incorrect” - PINs with all digits being the same

Which of the following is a MINIMUM set of input test data that covers all identified equivalence partitions?

a) 1, 1111, 1234

b) 111, 1111, 1112

c) 1, 12345

d) 12345, 1234

Select ONE option.

35 / 40

35. Which of the following statements about the value of static testing is CORRECT?

a) The defect types found by static testing are different from the defect types that can be found by dynamic testing

b) Dynamic testing can detect the defect types that can be found by static testing plus some additional defect types

c) Dynamic testing can identify some of the defects that can be found by static testing but not all of them

d) Static testing can identify the defect types that can be found by dynamic testing as well as some extra defect types

Select ONE option.

36 / 40

36. Your organization’s test strategy suggests that once a system is going to be retired, data migration shall be tested. As part of what test type is this testing MOST likely to be performed?

a) Maintenance testing

b) Regression testing

c) Component testing

d) Integration testing

Select ONE option.

37 / 40

37. Consider the following list:

• Correct input not accepted
• Incorrect input accepted
• Wrong output format
• Division by zero

What test technique is MOST PROBABLY used by the tester who uses this list when performing testing?

a) Exploratory testing

b) Fault attack

c) Checklist-based testing

d) Boundary value analysis

Select ONE option.

38 / 40

38. You work as a tester in a project on a mobile application for food ordering for one of your clients. The client sent you a list of requirements. One of them, with high priority, says

“The order must be processed in less than 10 seconds in 95% of the cases”.

You created a set of test cases in which a number of random orders were made, the processing time measured, and the test results were checked against the requirements.

What test type did you perform?

a) Functional, because the test cases cover the user’s business requirement for the system

b) Non-functional, because the measure the system’s performance

c) Functional, because the test cases interact with the user interface

d) Structural, because we need to know the internal structure of the program to measure the order processing time

Select ONE option.

39 / 40

39. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a) Regression tests increase in number as the project progresses, whereas the number of confirmation tests decreases as the project progresses

b) Regression tests are created and run when the test object is fixed, whereas confirmation tests are run whenever the test object is enhanced

c) Regression testing is concerned with checking that the operational environment remains unchanged, whereas confirmation testing is concerned with testing changes to the test object

d) Regression testing is concerned with adverse effects in unchanged code, whereas confirmation testing is concerned with testing changed code

Select ONE option.

40 / 40

40. Given the following review types:

1. Technical review
2. Informal review
3. Inspection
4. Walkthrough

And the following descriptions:

A. Includes objectives such as gaining consensus, generating new ideas, and motivating authors to improve
B. Includes objectives such as educating reviewers, gaining consensus, generating new ideas and detecting potential defects
C. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it requires metrics collection to support process improvement
D. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it generates no formal documented output

Which of the following BEST matches the review types and the descriptions?

a) 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D

b) 1A, 2D, 3C, 4B

c) 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A

d) 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B

Select ONE option.

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed review types:

1. Technical review - This type of review is performed by technically qualified reviewers and led by a moderator. The objectives are to gain consensus and make decisions on technical problems while also evaluating quality and building confidence in the work product, generating new ideas, motivating and enabling authors to improve, and detecting anomalies
2. Informal review - The main objective is to detect anomalies. The process is not defined and does not require formal documented output
3. Inspection - This is the most formal review type, and it follows the complete generic review process. The primary objective is to find the most anomalies, and other objectives include evaluating quality and building confidence in the work product, motivating and enabling authors to improve, and collecting metrics that can be used to enhance the software development life cycle (SDLC), including the inspection process. The author cannot act as the review leader or scribe
4. Walkthrough - Led by the author, this type of review serves various objectives such as evaluating quality and building confidence in the work product, educating reviewers, gaining consensus, generating new ideas, motivating and enabling authors to improve, and detecting anomalies. Reviewers might perform an individual review before the walkthrough, but this is not mandatory

A. Includes objectives such as gaining consensus, generating new ideas, and motivating authors to improve (A)
B. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it generates no formal documented output (D)
C. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it requires metrics collection to support process improvement (C)
D. Includes objectives such as educating reviewers, gaining consensus, generating new ideas and detecting potential defects (B)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct. The correct match is: 1A, 2D, 3C, 4B
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

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