Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The test case is related to viewing previous orders in the order history
b) Is not correct. The test case is related to viewing previous orders
c) Is not correct. The test case is related to viewing previous orders in the order history
d) Is correct. The test case is related to the registration process, which is not discussed in the user story. The user story is about viewing previous orders

Explanation / Rationale

Risk assessment can use a quantitative or qualitative approach, or a mix of them. In the quantitative approach the risk level is calculated as the multiplication of risk likelihood and risk impact. So, Risk level = Risk likelihood * Risk impact
Then, Risk impact = Risk level / Risk likelihood.
In our case, Risk impact = $1,000 / 50% = $1,000 / 0.5 = $2,000.
Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Regression tests increase in number as the project progresses, as new regression tests are typically required as changes are made to the system. Similarly, the number of confirmation tests also typically increases as the project progresses as new confirmation tests are needed for each fix made to a system
b) Is not correct. It is the other way round. Confirmation tests are created and run when the test object is fixed, and regression tests are (ideally) run whenever the test object is enhanced (changed)
c) Is not correct. Confirmation testing verifies that a defect has been fixed correctly and so is concerned with testing changes to the test object. However, regression testing ensures that changes (including changes to the operational environment) do not have negative effects on unchanged software and so does not check that the operational environment remains unchanged
d) Is correct. Regression testing ensures that changes do not have negative effects on unchanged software. Confirmation testing verifies that a defect has been fixed – and so is concerned with changed code

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Quality control applies to all development activities, meaning that every software development activity has a corresponding test activity. However, here we are attempting to equate test levels with development levels, and, although we know what is meant by ‘test levels’, there is no common understanding of the term ‘ development level’
b) Is not correct. Every software development activity has a corresponding test activity; however test objectives are quite different. For instance, there might be a test objective of ensuring that a test object adheres to a contractual requirement that a certain type of testing must be performed before delivery. In this case there is no reason for there to be a corresponding development objective
c) Is not correct. Quality control applies to all development activities, meaning that every software development activity has a corresponding test activity. However, the same symmetry does not apply to testing and user activities. For instance, for some systems it is difficult to even identify the end users. Also, some test activities are focused on developers (e.g., testing for ease of maintainability), which has no user aspect to it
d) Is correct. Quality control applies to all development activities, meaning that every software development activity has a corresponding test activity

Explanation / Rationale

There are three equivalence partitions: {…, –2, –1}, {0, 1, 2}, {3, 4, …}.
For 2-value BVA all the boundary values for all the equivalence partitions must be covered.
The boundary values are –1 (for the “temperature too low” partition), 0, 2 (for the “temperature OK” partition) and 3 (for the “temperature too high” partition).

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is correct. The correct option is: –1, 0, 2, 3
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The root cause is the distraction that the programmer experienced while programming
b) Is not correct. Accepting invalid inputs is a failure
c) Is not correct. The error is the mistaken thinking that resulted in putting the defect in the code
d) Is correct. The problem in the code is a defect

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Debugging is the process of finding, analyzing, and removing the causes of failures in a component or system
b) Is not correct. Testing is the process concerned with planning, preparation and evaluation of a component or system and related work products to determine that they satisfy specified requirements, to demonstrate that they are fit for purpose and to detect defects. It is not related to fixing causes of failures
c) Is not correct. Requirement elicitation is the process of gathering, capturing, and consolidating requirements from available sources. It is not related to fixing causes of failures
d) Is not correct. Defect management is the process of recognizing, recording, classifying, investigating, resolving, and disposing of defects. It is not related to fixing causes of failures

Explanation / Rationale

In branch testing the coverage items are branches, which are represented by the edges of a control flow graph. There are 8 edges in the control flow graph.
Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed testware, and the test activity that produces it:

i. The test completion report is an output of the test completion activity
ii. Data held in a database used for test inputs and expected results is the test data - output of test implementation activity
iii. The list of elements needed to build the test environment is the test environment requirements - output of test design activity.
iv. Documented sequences of test cases in execution order are the test procedures - output of test implementation activity
v. Test cases - output of test design activity

Test implementation produces the following outputs: test procedures (iv), automated test scripts, test suites, test data (ii), test execution schedule, and test environment elements such as stubs, drivers, simulators, and service virtualizations.

Thus:
a) Is correct. Items ii and iv in the list are produced as a result of test implementation
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The approval of the budget is an example of an entry criterion. It would make no sense to approve the budget for some activity that has already been done
b) Is correct. Running out of budget can be viewed as a valid exit criterion
c) Is not correct. Availability of resources is an example of an entry criterion for testing
d) Correct. Coverage is a measure of thoroughness, so it is a typical exit criterion
e) Is not correct. This is an example of an entry criterion, checked before the project starts

Explanation / Rationale

The average development effort is $900,000 and the average test effort is $90,000 (calculated from the four projects).
The average test-to-development effort ratio is 1:10 ($90,000 : $900,000), which means that historically, on average, the test effort is 10% of the development effort.
So if the development effort is estimated to be $800,000, the estimated test effort is estimated as:

10% * $800,000 = 0.1 * $800,000 = $80,000.

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

Test TC 001 must come first, followed by TC 002, to satisfy dependencies. Afterwards, TC 003 to satisfy priority and then TC 004, followed by TC 005.
Thus:
a) Is correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

Consider:

i. These behaviors are easily detectable while the software is running. Hence, dynamic testing shall be used to identify them
ii. This is an example of deviations from standards, which is a typical defect that is easier found with static testing
iii. If the software is executed during the test, it is dynamic testing
iv. Identifying defects as early as possible is the test objective of both static testing and dynamic testing
v. This is an example of gaps in the test basis traceability or coverage, which is a typical defect that is easier found with static testing

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is correct

Explanation / Rationale

The equivalence partitions are: {…, 99, 100}, {101, 102, …, 198, 199}, {200, 201, …}.
Thus, there are 4 boundary values, which are: 100, 101, 199 and 200.
In 2-value BVA, for each boundary value there are two coverage items (the boundary value and its closest neighbor belonging to the adjacent partition). As the closest neighbors are also boundary values in the adjacent partition, then there are just four coverage items.

Thus:
a) Is not correct. Only 100 and 200 are valid coverage items for 2-value BVA, so we achieve 50% coverage
b) Is not correct. Only 100 and 200 are valid coverage items for 2-value BVA, so we achieve 50% coverage
c) Is not correct. Only 100 and 101 are valid coverage items for 2-value BVA, so we achieve 50% coverage
d) Is correct. 101, 199 and 200 are valid coverage items for 2-value BVA, so we achieve 75% coverage

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Component Test-Driven Development is not a correct example of a test-first approach to development
b) Is not correct. Integration Test-Driven Development is not a correct example of a test-first approach to development
c) Is not correct. System Test-Driven Development is not a correct example of a test-first approach to development
d) Is correct. Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD) is a well-known example of a test-first approach to development

Explanation / Rationale

The following three transitions:

“REQUESTING -> CONFIRMED”
“WAITING LIST -> CONFIRMED”
“WAITING LIST -> END”

cannot appear in the same test case, which suggests that at least three test cases are required. All the other transitions can appear in combination with one or more of these three transitions, so we need a minimum of three test cases. In fact, only three sequences are possible:

TC1: START (Room request) → REQUESTING (Available) → CONFIRMED (Pay) → END
TC2: START (Room request) → REQUESTING (Not available) → WAITING LIST (Available) → CONFIRMED (Pay) → END
TC3: START (Room request) → REQUESTING (Not available) → WAITING LIST (Cancel) → END

Thus:
a) Is correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. This should be a team activity and not overruled by one team member
b) Is correct. If test estimates are not the same, but the variation in the results is small, applying rules like “accept the number with the most votes” can be applied
c) Is not correct. There is no consensus yet as some say 13, others say 8
d) Is not correct. A feature should not be removed only because the team cannot agree on the test estimates

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed roles:

1. Scribe (or Recorder) - responsible for gathering feedback from reviewers and documenting review information, such as decisions made, and any new anomalies identified during the review meeting. (Records review information, such as decisions and new anomalies found during the review meeting - B)
2. Review Leader - responsible for overseeing the review process, such as selecting the review team members, scheduling review meetings, and ensuring that the review is completed successfully.
(Takes overall responsibility for the review such as organizing when and where the review will take place - D)
3. Facilitator (or Moderator) - responsible for ensuring that the review meetings run effectively, including managing time, mediating discussions, and creating a safe environment where everyone can voice their opinions freely. (Ensures the effective running of review meetings and the setting up of a safe review environment - A)
4. Manager - responsible for deciding what needs to be reviewed and allocating resources, such as staff and time, for the review. (Decides what is to be reviewed and provides resources, such as staff and time for the review - C)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is correct. The correct match is: 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C
d) Is not correc

Explanation / Rationale

Using the three-point estimation technique, the final estimate (E) is calculated as:

E = (a + 4*m + b) / 6,

where a is the most optimistic estimate, m is the most likely estimate, and b is the most pessimistic estimate.

Thus:
a) Is correct. In this case, the estimate for executing a single test case is:

E = (1h + 4*3h + 8h) / 6 = 3.5 hours

So, the total time needed for the tester to execute 4 test cases is:

3.5h * 4 = 14 hours

b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Planning poker can estimate effort for a user story that is already written. It does not help in understanding what should be delivered
b) Is not correct. Reviews are not a collaborative user story writing practice
c) Is not correct. Iteration planning is a project-related practice, used to plan the work, not to understand what needs to be delivered
d) Is correct. Conversation explains how the software will be used and often allows the team to define meaningful acceptance criteria, thus obtaining a shared vision of what should be delivered

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed test activities and their output testware:

A. Test analysis - prioritized test conditions (4) (e.g., acceptance criteria), and defect reports for defects identified in the test basis
B. Test design - prioritized test cases, test charters, coverage items (1), test data requirements, and test environment requirements
C. Test implementation - test procedures, automated test scripts, test suites, test data, test execution schedule (3), and test environment elements such as stubs, drivers, simulators, and service virtualizations
D. Test completion - test completion report, documented lessons learned, action items for improvement, and change requests (2) (as product backlog items)

Thus:
a) Is correct. The correct match is: 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The whole-team approach allows any team member with the requisite skills and knowledge to undertake any task, however that does not mean that team members can take on any role at any time. Typically, they only take on roles in which they are competent, and there is no suggestion that every team member can do every role
b) Is not correct. The whole-team approach applies to how a single team (typically in Agile software development) works; it does not cover how multiple teams are supposed to work on larger projects, and it does not suggest that only one ‘whole’ team is needed for a complete project
c) Is not correct. The whole-team approach does not expect every team member to be involved in every important decision. For instance, there is no need for the business representative (i.e. the Product Owner) to be involved in every technical decision that does not affect the business outcome and implementing such an approach would unnecessarily slow down the team’s progress
d) Is correct. By leveraging the diverse skill sets of each team member most effectively, the whole-team approach fosters superior team dynamics, promotes robust communication and collaboration, and generates a team synergy that benefits the entire project

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. To ensure successful reviews, it's important to secure management's support for the review process, however that does not mean that they should participate as reviewers
b) Is correct. To ensure successful reviews, it's important to break the work product into parts that are small enough to be reviewed in a reasonable timescale to prevent reviewers from losing focus during individual review or review meetings
c) Is not correct. To ensure successful reviews, it's important to clearly define objectives and measurable exit criteria, without evaluating participants
d) Is not correct. To ensure successful reviews, it's important to break down the review into smaller chunks to prevent reviewers from losing focus during individual review or review meetings. So you should not plan to cover one document per review

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. A member without a missed deadline can get a discount and a gift T-Shirt after 15 bicycle rentals
b) Is not correct. A member without a missed deadline can get a discount but no gift T-Shirt until they rented a bicycle 15 times
c) Is not correct. Non-members cannot get a discount, even if they did not miss a deadline yet
d) Is correct. No discount as a non-member that has also missed a deadline, but only members can receive a gift T-Shirt. Hence, the action is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. When a user reports a software failure, thanks to the unique identification of commits, it is possible to reassemble the files from the software version which was used by the user (as well as the corresponding versions of the test scripts) and thus reproduce the failure and locate the defect faster
b) Is not correct. If a change to the test environment causes unexpected issues during testing, configuration management allows testers to roll back to a previous version of the environment. This ensures that testing can continue without being affected by the change
c) Is not correct. Configuration management ensures that all identified documentation (e.g., requirement specifications) and software items are referenced unambiguously in test documentation (e.g., test plans)
d) Is correct. This is ensured by the defect management, not configuration management process

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed task descriptions:

1. The quality characteristics to be evaluated and the exit criteria are selected - (Planning (C): Defining the review scope, purpose, work product to be reviewed, quality characteristics to be evaluated, areas of focus, exit criteria, supporting information such as standards, effort, and timeframes.)
2. Everyone has access to the work product - (Review initiation (B): Ensuring all participants have access to the work product and necessary resources, and clarifying their roles and responsibilities.)
3. Anomalies are identified in the work product - (Individual review (A): Evaluating the work product's quality, identifying and logging anomalies, recommendations, and questions using review techniques like checklist-based and scenario-based reviewing.)
4. Anomalies are analyzed and discussed - (Communication and analysis (D): Analyzing and discussing each anomaly, determining its status, ownership, and required actions, and making review decisions, normally in a meeting. This could include determining the need for a follow-up review.)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is correct. The correct match is: 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Test monitoring involves the ongoing checking of all activities and comparison of actual progress against the test plan. Test control involves taking the actions necessary to meet the test objectives of the test plan. No test data are prepared during these activities
b) Is not correct. Test analysis includes analyzing the test basis to identify test conditions and prioritize them. Test design includes elaborating the test conditions into test cases and other testware. Test data are not prepared during these activities
c) Is correct. Test implementation includes creating or acquiring the testware necessary for test execution (e.g., test data)
d) Is not correct. Test completion activities occur at project milestones (e.g., release, end of iteration, test level completion), so it is too late for preparing test data

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Feedback can improve the test process, but if one only wants to improve future projects, the feedback does not need to come early or frequently
b) Is not correct. Feedback is not used to prioritize requirements
c) Is not correct. The quality of changes can be measured in multiple ways
d) Is correct. Early and frequent feedback allows for the early communication of potential quality problems

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. This principle means that if the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually these tests no longer find any new defects. This is probably why the tests all passed in this release as well
b) Is not correct. This principle says about the mistaken belief that just finding and fixing a large number of defects will ensure the success of a system
c) Is not correct. This principle says that a small number of components usually contain most of the defects
d) Is not correct. This principle states that testing all combinations of inputs and preconditions is not feasible

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Adequate time for individuals is a success factor
b) Is not correct. Splitting work products into small adequate parts is a success factor
c) Is not correct. Avoiding behaviors that might indicate boredom, exasperation, etc. is a success factor
d) Is correct. During reviews one can find defects, not failures

Explanation / Rationale

i. Is true. The SDLC has an influence on the test process
ii. Is false. The number of defects detected in previous projects may have some influence, but this is not as significant as i, iii and iv
iii. Is true. The identified product risks are one of the most important factors influencing the test process
iv. Is true. Regulatory requirements are important factors influencing the test process
v. Is false. The test environment has no significant influence on the test process

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. It is often possible to use dynamic testing to cause a test object to fail in ways that could never be achieved by the users, such as by using fault injection. However, if the failure can never occur with real end users, then identifying it is not especially valuable as testing is ultimately aimed at improving the work product for the end users. Spending time testing for failures that cannot occur with real users is not an efficient use of a tester’s time
b) Is not correct. Static testing in the form of static analysis is used by developers to identify defects in their program code earlier than can be achieved through dynamic testing. Note, however, that static testing (and static analysis) is used to detect defects, not failures, which are found by dynamic testing. Thus it is the use of the term ‘failures’ that makes this an incorrect option
c) Is not correct. Static analysis directly detects anomalies in code, which may be defects, and this is normally for the developer, not the customer. The provision of evidence for release by the use of static analysis of elements that provide no output is nonsense
d) Is correct. Reviews are a form of static testing that can be applied from the very start of the software development lifecycle and are used to find defects that can be removed before subsequent development activities waste effort on faulty requirements. If the defects are not detected and removed early on, then when the defect is found derived work products, such as the design and code, will need to be changed as they were based on faulty requirements

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. For a complex configuration item (e.g., a test environment), CM records the items it consists of, their relationships, and versions
b) Is not correct. CM tools do not execute test cases and do not calculate coverage
c) Is not correct. A CM tool is not a license management tool
d) Is not correct. CM tools do not generate test data

Explanation / Rationale

There are two equivalence partitions that are not yet covered, which correspond to “student discount” and “pensioner discount”.
a) Is not correct. CY – BY = 64, so these inputs correspond to the already covered “no discount” partition
b) Is correct. CY – BY = 65, so these inputs correspond to a partition that is not yet covered (“pensioner discount”)
c) Is not correct. CY – BY = –65, so these inputs correspond to the already covered “error message” partition
d) Is not correct. CY – BY = 18, so these inputs correspond to the already covered “no discount” partition
e) Is correct. CY – BY = 0, so these inputs correspond to a partition that is not yet covered (“student discount”)

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The fact that the requirement about the system’s performance comes directly from the client and that the performance is important from the business point of view (i.e., high priority) does not make these tests functional, because they do not check “what” the system does, but “how” (i.e., how fast the orders are processed)
b) Is correct. This is an example of performance testing, a type of non-functional testing
c) Is not correct. From the scenario we do not know if interacting with the user interface is a part of the test conditions. But even if we did, the main test objective of these tests is to check the performance, not the usability
d) Is not correct. We do not need to know the internal structure of the code to perform the performance testing. One can execute performance efficiency tests without structural knowledge

Explanation / Rationale

The ‘exhaustive testing is impossible’ principle is concerned with the fact that it is not feasible to test every possible variation of test inputs in all different circumstances, except in trivial cases. Instead, testing utilizes test techniques, test case prioritization, and risk-based testing to sample from the set of possibilities and focus testing efforts.
a) Is not correct. The principle states that it is not feasible to test everything except in trivial cases. Testing everything would require testing every possible variation of test inputs in all different circumstances, which is generally infeasible as there will be a practically infinite number. Testing every possible specified output will not address this problem as the relationship between inputs and specified outputs can be different for each test object. Sometimes there may be a practically infinite number of possible specified outputs (e.g., when there are several variables representing real numbers), whereas at other times there may be just two specified outputs, such as with a single variable that can be either true or false
b) Is not correct. The principle states that it is not feasible to test every possible variation of test inputs in all different circumstances. This is because for non-trivial systems there is a practically infinite number. Therefore, in practice, documenting all possible test input variations would be impractical as it would take an infinite length of time
c) Is not correct. Starting testing as early as possible with reviews and other static testing approaches will not address the problem of there being too many possible test cases. The ‘early testing saves time and money’ principle is concerned with fixing defects early on to prevent the occurrence of subsequent defects in derived work products, thereby reducing costs and the likelihood of failures
d) Is correct. The use of equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to generate test cases is one way to address the principle as these test techniques provide a systematic way to derive a finite subset of all possible test cases

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. A fundamental strength that all white-box test techniques share is that the entire software implementation is taken into account during testing, which facilitates defect detection even when the software specification is vague, outdated or incomplete. This means white-box testing can find defects such as an extra feature added to the code (either accidentally or deliberately) that is not supposed to be there, which black-box testing cannot detect
b) Is not correct. The fact that the coverage can be precisely defined is not the right reason. The achieved level of coverage would have much more impact than the possibility to measure the coverage
c) Is not correct. If the software does not implement one or more requirements, white-box testing is unlikely to detect the resulting defects of omission
d) Is not correct. While this is true, this is not the right answer, because there is no connection between the capability to be used in both static testing and dynamic testing and the claim that white-box testing facilitates defect detection with poor specifications

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. In most cases both black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques can be used for the same test objects
b) Is not correct. Both black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques can be used at all test levels
c) Is correct. Black-box test techniques (also known as specification-based techniques) are based on an analysis of the specified behavior of the test object without reference to its internal structure. So, the test basis is usually a specification. Experience-based test techniques effectively use the knowledge and experience of testers for the design and implementation of test cases. This means that the tester, when designing tests, may not use the specification at all
d) Is not correct. Experience-based test techniques can detect defects that may be missed using black-box (and white-box) test techniques. Hence, experience-based test techniques are complementary to black-box test techniques and white-box test techniques and both black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques can be used in all SDLCs

Explanation / Rationale

“Small garden” and “large garden” can go only with “ground floor”, so we need two test cases with “ground floor” which cover these two “garden type” partitions.
We need two more test cases to cover the two other “floor” partitions and a remaining ”garden type” partition of “no garden”.
We need a total of four test cases:

TC1 (ground floor, small garden)
TC2 (ground floor, large garden)
TC3 (first floor, no garden)
TC4 (second or higher floor, no garden)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. DevOps enhances testing in several ways, such as by providing fast feedback on code quality, automated regression testing that minimizes regression risk, and promoting a shift-left approach with high-quality code submission and component tests. This is largely provided through continuous integration, where the developers submit component (unit) tests with their new code, which must pass for the code to be admitted to the build. Therefore, developers do need to complete component testin
b) Is correct. DevOps enhances testing in several ways, such as by providing fast feedback on code quality, automated regression testing that minimizes regression risk, and promoting a shift-left approach with high-quality code submission and component tests
c) Is not correct. DevOps enhances testing in several ways, such as by providing fast feedback on code quality, automated regression testing that minimizes regression risk, and promoting a shift-left approach with high-quality code submission and component tests. Testers do not attempt to treat developers and operations equally by spending more time on release testing, although a shift-right approach to testing (testing in production) may well be used
d) Is not correct. Automated processes like continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD) in DevOps facilitate stable test environments and reduce the need for manual testing, however, there is a risk of overlooking the importance of manual testing, especially from a user's perspective