Exam 5 – 75 minutes – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 23, 2024 By

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Exam 5 - 75 minutes

Name

1 / 40

1. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test automation?

a) It provides coverage measures that are too complicated for humans to derive

b) It shares responsibility for the testing with the tool vendor

c) It removes the need for critical thinking when analyzing test results

d) It generates test cases from an analysis of the program code

Select ONE option.

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2. Which of the following is the BEST example of how traceability supports testing?

a) Performing the impact analysis of a change will give information about the completion of the tests

b) Analyzing the traceability between test cases and test results will give information about the estimated level of residual risk

c) Performing the impact analysis of a change will help selecting the right test cases for regression testing

d) Analyzing the traceability between the test basis, the test objects and the test cases will help in selecting test data to achieve the assumed coverage of the test object

Select ONE option.

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3. Which of the following BEST fits as an element of the checklist used in checklist-based testing?

a) “The developer made an error when implementing the code”

b) “The achieved statement coverage exceeds 85%”

c) “The program works correctly regarding functional and non-functional requirements”

d) “The error messages are written in language that the user can understand”

Select ONE option.

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4. You are designing test cases based on the following decision table.

So far you have designed the following test cases:

• TC1: 19-year-old, unregistered man with no experience; expected result: category A
• TC2: 65-year-old, unregistered woman with 5 years of experience; expected result: category B
• TC3: 66-year-old, registered man with no experience; expected result: category C
• TC4: 65-year-old, registered woman with 4 years of experience; expected result:
category D

Which of the following test cases, when added to the existing set of test cases, will increase the decision table coverage?

a) 66-year-old, unregistered man with no experience; expected result: category B

b) 55-year-old, unregistered woman with 2 years of experience; expected result: category A

c) 19-year-old, registered woman with 5 years of experience; expected result: category D

d) No additional test case can increase the already achieved decision table coverage

Select ONE option.

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5. Which of the following are product risks?

a) Scope creep

b) Poor architecture

c) Cost-cutting

d) Poor tool support

e) Response time too long

Select TWO options.

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6. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent feedback?

a) It improves the test process for future projects

b) It forces customers to prioritize their requirements based on agreed risks

c) It is the only way to measure the quality of changes

d) It helps avoid requirements misunderstandings

Select ONE option.

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7. Which of the following pieces of information contained in a test progress report is the LEAST useful for business representatives?

a) Impediments to testing

b) Branch coverage achieved

c) Test progress

d) New risks within the test cycle

Select ONE option.

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8. Which of the following activities in the test process makes the MOST use of test progress reports?

a) Test design

b) Test completion

c) Test analysis

d) Test planning

Select ONE option.

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9. Which of these statements is NOT a factor that contributes to successful reviews?

a) Participants should dedicate adequate time for the review

b) Splitting large work products into small parts to make the required effort less intense

c) Participants should avoid behaviors that might indicate boredom, exasperation, or hostility to other participants

d) Failures found should be acknowledged, appreciated, and handled objectively

Select ONE option.

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10. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent stakeholder feedback?

a) Managers are aware of which developers are less productive

b) It allows project managers to prioritize their stakeholder interactions

c) It facilitates early communication of potential quality issues

d) End users better understand why the delivery of the work product is delayed

Select ONE option.

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11. You were given a task to analyze and fix causes of failures in a new system to be released.

Which activity are you performing?

a) Debugging

b) Software testing

c) Requirement elicitation

d) Defect management

Select ONE option.

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12. In many software organizations the test department is called the Quality Assurance (QA) department. Is this sentence correct or not and why?

a) It is correct. Testing and QA mean exactly the same thing

b) It is correct. These names can be used interchangeably because both testing and QA focus their activities on the same quality issues

c) It is not correct. Testing is something more; testing includes all activities with regard to quality. QA focuses on quality-related processes

d) It is not correct. QA is focused on quality-related processes while testing concentrates on demonstrating that a component or system is fit for purpose and to detect defects

Select ONE option.

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13. Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between decision table testing and branch testing?

a) In decision table testing, the test cases are derived from the decision statements in the code. In branch testing, the test cases are derived from knowledge of the control flow of the test object.

b) In decision table testing, the test cases are derived from the specification that describes the business logic. In branch testing the test cases are based on anticipation of potential defects in the source code.

c) In decision table testing, the test cases are derived from knowledge of the control flow of the test object. In branch testing, test cases are derived from the specification that describes the business logic.

d) In decision table testing, the test cases are independent of how the software is implemented. In branch testing, test cases can be created only after the design or implementation of the code.

Select ONE option.

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14. Consider the following user story:

As an Editor
I want to review content before it is published
so that I can assure the grammar is correct

and its acceptance criteria:

• The user can log in to the content management system with "Editor" role
• The editor can view existing content pages
• The editor can edit the page content
• The editor can add markup comments
• The editor can save changes
• The editor can reassign to the "content owner" role to make updates

Which of the following is the BEST example of an ATDD test for this user story?

a) Test if the editor can save the document after edit the page content

b) Test if the content owner can log in and make updates to the content

c) Test if the editor can schedule the edited content for publication

d) Test if the editor can reassign to another editor to make updates

Select ONE option.

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15. Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and debugging?

a) Testing causes failures while debugging fixes failures

b) Testing is a negative activity while debugging is a positive activity

c) Testing determines that defects exist while debugging removes defects

d) Testing finds the cause of defects while debugging fixes the cause of defects

Select ONE option.

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16. You are designing test cases based on the following state transition diagram:

What is the MINIMUM number of test cases required to achieve 100% valid transitions coverage?

a) 3

b) 2

c) 5

d) 6

Select ONE option.

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17. Which TWO of the following options are the exit criteria for testing a system?

a) Test environment readiness

b) The ability to log in to the test object by the tester

c) Estimated defect density is reached

d) Requirements are translated into given/when/then format

e) Regression tests are automated

Select TWO options.

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18. Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?

a) Ensure management participate as reviewers

b) Split large work products into smaller parts

c) Set reviewer evaluation as an objective

d) Plan to cover one document per review

Select ONE option.

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19. Consider the following rule: “for every SDLC activity there is a corresponding test activity”. In which SDLC models does this rule hold?

a) Only in sequential SDLC models

b) Only in iterative SDLC models

c) Only in iterative and incremental SDLC models

d) In sequential, incremental, and iterative SDLC models

Select ONE option.

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20. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independence of testing?

a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team

b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines

c) An independent test team can work separately from the developers, need not be distracted with project requirement changes, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system

d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer

Select ONE option.

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21. Tools from which of the following categories help with the organization of test cases, detected defects and configuration management?

a) Test execution and coverage tools

b) Test design and implementation tools

c) Defect management tools

d) Test management tools

Select ONE option.

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22. Which of the following is NOT a valid purpose for a test report?

a) Tracking test progress and identifying areas that require further attention

b) Providing information on the tests executed, their results, and any issues or defects found

c) Providing information about each defect, such as the steps to reproduce it

d) Providing information on testing planned for the next period

Select ONE options.

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23. Which of the following is an example of a defect that can be found by static testing but NOT by dynamic testing?

a) Lack of usability provided through the user interface

b) Code with no path that reaches it

c) Poor response times for most of the expected users

d) Required features that are not implemented in the code

Select ONE option.

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24. The system for selling cinema tickets calculates the discount type based on the client’s birth year (BY) and on the current year (CY) as follows:

Let D be the difference between CY and BY, that is, D = CY – BY

• If D < 0 then print the error message “birth year cannot be greater than current year”

• If 0 ≤ D < 18 then apply the student discount

• If 18 ≤ D < 65 then apply no discount • If D ≥ 65 then apply the pensioner discount

Your test suite already contains two test cases:

• BY = 1990, CY = 2020, expected result: no discount
• BY = 2030, CY = 2029, expected result: print the error message

Which of the following test data sets should be added to achieve full valid equivalence partitioning coverage for the discount type?

a) BY = 2001, CY = 2065

b) BY = 1900, CY = 1965

c) BY = 1965, CY = 1900

d) BY = 2011, CY = 2029

e) BY = 2000, CY = 2000

Select TWO options.

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25. You work in a team that develops a mobile application for food ordering. In the current iteration the team decided to implement the payment functionality.

Which of the following activities is a part of test analysis?

a) Estimating that testing the integration with the payment service will take 8 person-days

b) Deciding that the team should test if it is possible to properly share payment between many users

c) Using boundary value analysis (BVA) to derive the test data for the test cases that check the correct payment processing for the minimum allowed amount to be paid

d) Analyzing the discrepancy between the actual result and expected result after executing a test case that checks the process of payment with a credit card, and reporting a defect

Select ONE option.

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26. How can white-box testing be useful in support of black-box testing?

a) White-box coverage measures can help testers evaluate black-box tests in terms of the code coverage achieved by these black-box tests

b) White-box coverage analysis can help testers identify unreachable fragments of the source code

c) Branch testing subsumes black-box test techniques, so achieving full branch coverage guarantees achieving full coverage of any black-box technique

d) White-box test techniques can provide coverage items for black-box techniques

Select ONE option.

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27. Which of the following is NOT an example of the shift left approach?

a) Reviewing the user requirements before they are formally accepted by the stakeholders

b) Writing a component test before the corresponding code is written

c) Executing a performance efficiency test for a component during component testing

d) Writing a test script before setting up the configuration management process

Select ONE option.

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28. Which of the following is a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

a) For each test level, there is a corresponding development level

b) For each test objective, there is a corresponding development objective

c) For every software test activity, there is a corresponding user activity

d) For every software development activity, there is a corresponding test activity

Select ONE option.

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29. Customers of the TestWash car wash chain have cards with a record of the number of washes they have bought so far. The initial value is 0. After entering the car wash, the system increases the number on the card by one. This value represents the number of the current wash. Based on this number the system decides what discount the customer is entitled to.

For every tenth wash the system gives a 10% discount, and for every twentieth wash, the system gives a further 40% discount (i.e., a 50% discount in total).

Which of the following sets of input data (understood as the numbers of the current wash) achieves the highest equivalence partition coverage?

a) 19, 20, 30

b) 11, 12, 20

c) 1, 10, 50

d) 10, 29, 30, 31

Select ONE option.

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30. W A developer was asked to implement the following business rule:

You design the test cases using 2-value boundary value analysis.

Which of the following sets of test inputs achieves the greatest coverage?

a) 100, 150, 200, 201

b) 99, 100, 200, 201

c) 98, 99, 100, 101

d) 101, 150, 199, 200

Select ONE option.

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31. You test a system whose lifecycle is modeled by the state transition diagram shown below. The system starts in the INIT state and ends its operation in the OFF state.

What is the MINIMAL number of test cases to achieve valid transitions coverage?

a) 4

b) 2

c) 7

d) 3

Select ONE option.

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32. Given the following review types:

1. Technical review
2. Informal review
3. Inspection
4. Walkthrough

And the following descriptions:

A. Includes objectives such as gaining consensus, generating new ideas, and motivating authors to improve
B. Includes objectives such as educating reviewers, gaining consensus, generating new ideas and detecting potential defects
C. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it requires metrics collection to support process improvement
D. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it generates no formal documented output

Which of the following BEST matches the review types and the descriptions?

a) 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D

b) 1A, 2D, 3C, 4B

c) 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A

d) 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B

Select ONE option.

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed review types:

1. Technical review - This type of review is performed by technically qualified reviewers and led by a moderator. The objectives are to gain consensus and make decisions on technical problems while also evaluating quality and building confidence in the work product, generating new ideas, motivating and enabling authors to improve, and detecting anomalies
2. Informal review - The main objective is to detect anomalies. The process is not defined and does not require formal documented output
3. Inspection - This is the most formal review type, and it follows the complete generic review process. The primary objective is to find the most anomalies, and other objectives include evaluating quality and building confidence in the work product, motivating and enabling authors to improve, and collecting metrics that can be used to enhance the software development life cycle (SDLC), including the inspection process. The author cannot act as the review leader or scribe
4. Walkthrough - Led by the author, this type of review serves various objectives such as evaluating quality and building confidence in the work product, educating reviewers, gaining consensus, generating new ideas, motivating and enabling authors to improve, and detecting anomalies. Reviewers might perform an individual review before the walkthrough, but this is not mandatory

A. Includes objectives such as gaining consensus, generating new ideas, and motivating authors to improve (A)
B. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it generates no formal documented output (D)
C. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it requires metrics collection to support process improvement (C)
D. Includes objectives such as educating reviewers, gaining consensus, generating new ideas and detecting potential defects (B)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct. The correct match is: 1A, 2D, 3C, 4B
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

33 / 40

33. Which of the following statements about DevOps is CORRECT?

a) To speed up releases, continuous integration is used to encourage developers to submit code quickly without the need to complete component testing

b) To be able to update and release systems on a more frequent basis, many automated regression tests are required to reduce the danger of regression

c) To treat both developers and operations equally, the testers will allocate more effort to release testing by operations using a shift-right approach

d) To create increased synergy between testers, developers and operations, the testing must become fully automated with no manual testing

Select ONE option.

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34. Which of the following statements describe a valid test objective?

a) To prove that there are no unfixed defects in the system under test

b) To prove that there will be no failures after the implementation of the system into production

c) To reduce the risk level of the test object and to build confidence in the quality level

d) To verify that there are no untested combinations of inputs

Select ONE option.

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35. Which work product can be used by an agile team to show the amount of work that has been completed and the amount of total work remaining for a given iteration?

a) Acceptance criteria

b) Defect report

c) Test completion report

d) Burndown chart

Select ONE option.

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36. During a risk analysis the following risk was identified and assessed:

• Risk: Response time is too long to generate a report
• Risk likelihood: medium; risk impact: high
• Response to risk:

o An independent test team performs performance testing during system testing
o A selected sample of end users performs alpha and beta acceptance testing before the release

What measure is proposed to be taken in response to this analyzed risk?

a) Risk acceptance

b) Contingency plan

c) Risk mitigation

d) Risk transfer

Select ONE option.

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37. Consider the following testware.

Which test activity produces this testware as an output?

a) Test planning

b) Test monitoring and control

c) Test analysis

d) Test design

Select ONE option.

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38. Which of the following is NOT anticipated by the tester while applying error guessing?

a) The developer misunderstood the formula in the user story for calculating the interest

b) The developer wrote “FA = A*(1+IR^N)” instead of “FA = A*(1+IR)^N” in the source code

c) The developer missed the seminar on new compound interest rate legislation

d) The accuracy of the interest calculated by the system is not precise enough

Select ONE option.

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39. What is the MAIN difference between black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques?

a) The test object

b) The test level at which the test technique is used

c) The test basis

d) The software development lifecycle (SDLC) in which the test technique can be used

Select ONE option.

40 / 40

40. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a test plan?

a) To define test data and expected results for component tests and component integration tests

b) To define as exit criteria from the component test level that “100% statement coverage and 100% branch coverage must be achieved”

c) To describe what fields the test progress report shall contain and what should be the form of this report

d) To explain why system integration testing will be excluded from testing, although the test strategy requires this test level

Select ONE option.

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