Exam 5 – 75 minutes – ISTQB Learning

Created on June 23, 2024 By

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Exam 5 - 75 minutes

Name

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1. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the test pyramid?

a) The test pyramid emphasizes having a larger number of tests at the lower test levels

b) The closer to the top of the pyramid, the more formal your test automation should be

c) Usually, component testing and component integration testing are automated using API-based tools

d) For system testing and acceptance testing, the automated tests are typically created using GUI-based tools

Select ONE option.

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2. You are testing a form that verifies the correctness of the length of the password given as input. The form accepts a password with the correct length and rejects a password that is too short or too long. The password length is correct if it has between 6 and 12 characters inclusive. Otherwise, it is considered incorrect.

At first, the form is empty (password length = 0). You apply boundary value analysis to the “password length” variable.

Your set of test cases achieves 100% 2-value boundary value coverage. The team decided that due to the high risk of this component, test cases should be added to ensure 100% 3-value boundary value coverage.

Which additional password lengths should be tested to achieve this?

a) 4, 5, 13, 14

b) 7, 11

c) 1, 5, 13

d) 1, 4, 7, 11, 14

Select ONE option.

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3. You are testing a simplified apartment search form which has only two search criteria:

• floor (with three possible options: ground floor; first floor; second or higher floor)
• garden type (with three possible options: no garden; small garden; large garden)

Only apartments on the ground floor have gardens. The form has a built-in validation mechanism that will not allow you to use the search criteria which violate this rule.

Each test has two input values: floor and garden type. You want to apply equivalence partitioning (EP) to cover each floor and each garden type in your tests.

What is the minimal number of test cases to achieve 100% EP coverage?

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

Select ONE option

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4. Given the following descriptions:

1. Support workflow tracking
2. Facilitate communication
3. Virtual machines
4. Support reviews

And the following test tool categories:

A. Static testing tools
B. Tools supporting scalability and deployment standardization
C. DevOps tools
D. Collaboration tools

Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions and categories?

a) 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D

b) 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A

c) 1C, 2D, 3B, 4A

d) 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B

Explanation / Rationale

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5. Given the following example defects:

i. Two different parts of the design specification disagree due to the complexity of the design
ii. A response time is too long and so makes users lose patience
iii. A path in the code cannot be reached during execution
iv. A variable is declared but never subsequently used in the program
v. The amount of memory needed by the program to generate a report is too high

Which of the following BEST identifies example defects that could be found by static testing (rather than dynamic testing)?

a) ii, v

b) iii, v

c) i, ii, iv

d) i, iii, iv

Select ONE option.

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6. Which of the following BEST fits as an element of the checklist used in checklist-based testing?

a) “The developer made an error when implementing the code”

b) “The achieved statement coverage exceeds 85%”

c) “The program works correctly regarding functional and non-functional requirements”

d) “The error messages are written in language that the user can understand”

Select ONE option.

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7. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of static testing?

a) Having less expensive defect management due to the ease of detecting defects later in the SDLC

b) Fixing defects found during static testing is generally much less expensive than fixing defects found during dynamic testing

c) Finding coding defects that might not have been found by only performing dynamic testing

d) Detecting gaps and inconsistencies in requirements

Select ONE option.

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8. You have just started designing test cases for the following user story.

In all test cases the precondition is as follows: there are only two products available, products A and B. Product A costs $100 and product B costs $110.

Which of the following is the BEST example of a test case for this user story?

a) Enter webpage and set filter to show prices between $90 and $100. Expected result: results show product A only. Set maximum price to $110. Expected result: results now include both products A and B

b) Enter webpage. Expected result: the default minimum and maximum prices are $100 and $110 respectively. Add product C to stock, with price $120. Refresh the client’s webpage. Expected result: the default maximum price changes to $120

c) Enter webpage and set filter to show prices between $90 and $115. Expected result: results show both products A and B. Change currency from USD to EUR. Expected result: the filter range changes correctly to EUR values, according to the current exchange rate

d) Enter webpage with three different browsers: Edge, Chrome and Opera. In each browser set filter between $90 and $110. Expected result: results include both products A and B and the results layout is the same in all three browsers

Select ONE option.

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9. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a risk of test automation?

a) The detection of additional high-severity defects

b) Providing measures that are too complicated for humans to derive

c) Incompatibility with the development platform

d) Substantially reduced test execution times

Select ONE options.

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10. Which collaborative user story writing practice enables the team to achieve a collective understanding of what needs to be delivered?

a) Planning poker, so that a team can achieve consensus on the effort needed to implement a user story

b) Reviews, so that a team can detect inconsistencies and contradictions in a user story

c) Iteration planning, so that user stories with the highest business value for a customer can be prioritized for implementation

d) Conversation, so that team members can understand how the software will be used

Select ONE option.

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11. Which of the following BEST describes retrospectives?

a) Retrospectives allow team members to identify other team members who did not fully contribute to achieving quality as required by the whole-team approach

b) Retrospectives give testers an opportunity to identify activities that were successful so that these are retained when potential improvements are made in the future

c) Retrospectives are where agile team members are allowed to voice their concerns about management and customers in a blame-free environment

d) Retrospectives give agile team members a forum where they focus on discussing the plan and technical decisions for the next iteration

Select ONE option.

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12. What does the test pyramid model show?

a) That tests may have different priorities

b) That tests may have different granularity

c) That tests may require different coverage criteria

d) That tests may depend on other tests

Select ONE option.

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13. Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed if the testing is focused on validation and is not being performed by testers?

a) Component testing

b) Component integration testing

c) System integration testing

d) Acceptance testing

Select ONE option.

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14. What is the MAIN difference between black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques?

a) The test object

b) The test level at which the test technique is used

c) The test basis

d) The software development lifecycle (SDLC) in which the test technique can be used

Select ONE option.

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15. Which TWO of the following options are common metrics used for reporting on the quality level of the test object?

a) Number of defects found during system testing

b) Total effort on test design divided by the number of designed test cases

c) Number of executed test procedures

d) Number of defects found divided by the size of a work product

e) Time needed to repair a defect

Select TWO options.

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16. You are testing a system that calculates the final course grade for a given student.

The final grade is assigned based on the final result, according to the following rules:

• 0 – 50 points: failed
• 51 – 60 points: fair
• 61 – 70 points: satisfactory
• 71 – 80 points: good
• 81 – 90 points: very good
• 91 – 100 points: excellent

You have prepared the following set of test cases:

What is the 2-value Boundary Value Analysis (BVA) coverage for the final result that is achieved with the existing test cases?

a) 50%

b) 60%

c) 33.3%

d) 100%

Select ONE option.

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17. Given the following descriptions of review activities:

1. Detected anomalies are deliberated upon, and determinations are reached regarding their status, ownership, and any further steps needed
2. Issues are recorded, and any needed updates are addressed prior to the acceptance of the work product
3. Reviewers employ techniques to come up with suggestions and questions about the work product and to spot anomalies
4. The objective of the review and its schedule are established to ensure a focused and efficient review
5. Participants are provided with access to the item being reviewed

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence in the review process of the activities that correspond to the descriptions?

a) 4 – 3 – 5 – 2 – 1

b) 4 – 5 – 3 – 1 – 2

c) 5 – 4 – 1 – 3 – 2

d) 5 – 4 – 3 – 2 – 1

Select ONE option.

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18. At the beginning of each iteration, the team estimates the amount of work (in person-days) they will need to complete during the iteration. Let E(n) be the estimated amount of work for iteration n, and let A(n) be the actual amount of work done in iteration n. From the third iteration, the team uses the following estimation model based on extrapolation:

The graph shows the estimated and actual amount of work for the first four iterations.

What is the estimated amount of work for iteration #5?

a) 10.5 person-days

b) 8.25 person-days

c) 6.5 person-days

d) 9.4 person-days

Select ONE option.

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19. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independence of testing?

a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team

b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines

c) An independent test team can work separately from the developers, need not be distracted with project requirement changes, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system

d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer

Select ONE option.

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20. The following decision table contains the rules for determining the risk of atherosclerosis.

You designed the test cases with the following test input data:

TC1: Cholesterol = 125 mg/dl Blood pressure = 141 mm Hg
TC2: Cholesterol = 200 mg/dl Blood pressure = 201 mm Hg
TC3: Cholesterol = 124 mg/dl Blood pressure = 201 mm Hg
TC4: Cholesterol = 109 mg/dl Blood pressure = 200 mm Hg
TC5: Cholesterol = 201 mg/dl Blood pressure = 140 mm Hg

What is the decision table coverage achieved by these test cases?

a) 40%

b) 60%

c) 80%

d) 100%

Select ONE option.

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21. Which of the following is a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

a) Testers should review work products as part of the next development phase

b) Testers should review work products as soon as drafts are available

c) Testers should review work products before test analysis and design begins

d) Testers should review work products immediately after they are published

Select ONE option.

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22. Consider the following acceptance criteria for a user story written from the perspective of an online store owner.

Given that the user is logged in and on the homepage,
When the user clicks on the "Add Item" button,
Then the "Create Item" form should appear,
And the user should be able to input a name and price for the new item.

In what format is this acceptance criteria written?

a) Rule-oriented

b) Scenario-oriented

c) Product-oriented

d) Process-oriented

Select ONE option.

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23. Which of the following are product risks?

a) Scope creep

b) Poor architecture

c) Cost-cutting

d) Poor tool support

e) Response time too long

Select TWO options.

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24. Which of the following statements about DevOps is CORRECT?

a) To speed up releases, continuous integration is used to encourage developers to submit code quickly without the need to complete component testing

b) To be able to update and release systems on a more frequent basis, many automated regression tests are required to reduce the danger of regression

c) To treat both developers and operations equally, the testers will allocate more effort to release testing by operations using a shift-right approach

d) To create increased synergy between testers, developers and operations, the testing must become fully automated with no manual testing

Select ONE option.

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25. You work as a tester in a project on a mobile application for food ordering for one of your clients. The client sent you a list of requirements. One of them, with high priority, says

“The order must be processed in less than 10 seconds in 95% of the cases”.

You created a set of test cases in which a number of random orders were made, the processing time measured, and the test results were checked against the requirements.

What test type did you perform?

a) Functional, because the test cases cover the user’s business requirement for the system

b) Non-functional, because the measure the system’s performance

c) Functional, because the test cases interact with the user interface

d) Structural, because we need to know the internal structure of the program to measure the order processing time

Select ONE option.

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26. Which of the following are advantages of DevOps?

i. Faster product release and faster time to market
ii. Increases the need for repetitive manual testing
iii. Constant availability of executable software
iv. Reduction in the number of regression tests associated with code refactoring
v. Setting up the test automation framework is inexpensive since everything is automated

a) i, ii, iv are advantages

b) iii, v are advantages

c) i, iii are advantages

d) ii, iv, v are advantages

Select ONE option.

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27. You are working on a project to develop a system to analyze driving test results. You have been asked to design test cases based on the following decision table.

What test data will show that there are contradictory rules in the decision table?

a) C1 = T, C2 = T, C3 = F

b) C1 = T, C2 = F, C3 = T

c) C1 = T, C2 = T, C3 = T and C1 = F, C2 = T, C3 = T

d) C1 = F, C2 = F, C3 = F

Select ONE option.

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28. You want to estimate the test effort for the new project using estimation based on ratios. You calculate the test-to-development effort ratio using averaged data for both development effort and test effort from four historical projects similar to the new one. The table shows this historical data.

The estimated development effort for the new project is $800,000. What is your estimate of the test effort in this project?

a) $40,000

b) $80,000

c) $81,250

d) $82,500

Select ONE option.

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29. Which of the following is MOST likely to describe a task performed by someone in a test management role?

a) Evaluate test basis and test object

b) Define test environment requirements

c) Assess testability of test object

d) Create test completion report

Select ONE option.

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30. You are testing a PIN validator, which accepts valid PINs and rejects invalid PINs. A PIN is a sequence of digits. A PIN is valid if it consists of four digits, at least two of which are different. You have identified the following valid equivalence partitions:

Variable: PIN code length

• The partition “length correct” - four-digit PINs
• The partition “length incorrect” - PINs with length other than 4

Variable: Number of different digits

• The partition “number of different digits correct” - PINs with at least two different digits
• The partition “number of different digits incorrect” - PINs with all digits being the same

Which of the following is a MINIMUM set of input test data that covers all identified equivalence partitions?

a) 1, 1111, 1234

b) 111, 1111, 1112

c) 1, 12345

d) 12345, 1234

Select ONE option.

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31. Which of the following statements is a CORRECT example of the value of traceability?

a) Traceability between the mitigated risks and passing test cases provides a means of determining the level of residual risk

b) Traceability between user requirements and test execution results provides a means of measuring project progress against business goals

c) Traceability between testers and failing test cases provides a means of determining the skill level of the testers

d) Traceability between the identified risks and written test conditions provides a means of determining which risks are worth testing

Select ONE option.

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32. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a challenge encountered when implementing DevOps?

a) Making sure that non-functional quality characteristics are not overlooked

b) Managing continuously changing test environments

c) The need for more manual testers with suitable experience

d) Setting up the test automation as part of the delivery pipeline

Select ONE option.

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33. Which of the following is a characteristic of experience-based test techniques?

a) Test cases are created based on detailed design information

b) Items tested within the interface code section are used to measure coverage

c) The techniques heavily rely on the tester’s knowledge of the software and the business domain

d) The test cases are used to identify deviations from the requirements

Select ONE option.

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34. Which of the following is NOT true for white-box testing?

a) During white-box testing the entire software implementation is considered

b) White-box coverage metrics can help identify additional tests to increase code coverage

c) White-box test techniques can be used in static testing

d) White-box testing can help identify gaps in requirements implementation

Select ONE option.

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35. One of the ‘principles of testing’ states that exhaustive testing is impossible. Which of the following is an example of addressing this principle in practice?

a) Creating test cases that cover every possible specified output

b) Documenting all possible test input variations and prioritizing these based on importance

c) Starting testing as early as possible with reviews and other static testing approaches

d) Using equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to generate test cases

Select ONE option.

Explanation / Rationale

The ‘exhaustive testing is impossible’ principle is concerned with the fact that it is not feasible to test every possible variation of test inputs in all different circumstances, except in trivial cases. Instead, testing utilizes test techniques, test case prioritization, and risk-based testing to sample from the set of possibilities and focus testing efforts.
a) Is not correct. The principle states that it is not feasible to test everything except in trivial cases. Testing everything would require testing every possible variation of test inputs in all different circumstances, which is generally infeasible as there will be a practically infinite number. Testing every possible specified output will not address this problem as the relationship between inputs and specified outputs can be different for each test object. Sometimes there may be a practically infinite number of possible specified outputs (e.g., when there are several variables representing real numbers), whereas at other times there may be just two specified outputs, such as with a single variable that can be either true or false
b) Is not correct. The principle states that it is not feasible to test every possible variation of test inputs in all different circumstances. This is because for non-trivial systems there is a practically infinite number. Therefore, in practice, documenting all possible test input variations would be impractical as it would take an infinite length of time
c) Is not correct. Starting testing as early as possible with reviews and other static testing approaches will not address the problem of there being too many possible test cases. The ‘early testing saves time and money’ principle is concerned with fixing defects early on to prevent the occurrence of subsequent defects in derived work products, thereby reducing costs and the likelihood of failures
d) Is correct. The use of equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to generate test cases is one way to address the principle as these test techniques provide a systematic way to derive a finite subset of all possible test cases

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36. Which of the following BEST describes how using checklist-based testing can result in increased coverage?

a) Checklist items can be defined at a sufficiently low level of detail, so the tester can implement and execute detailed test cases based on these items

b) Checklists can be automated, so each time an automated test execution covers the checklist items, it results in additional coverage

c) Each checklist item should be tested separately and independently, so the elements cover different areas of the software

d) Two testers designing and executing tests based on the same high-level checklist items will typically perform the testing in slightly different ways

Select ONE option.

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37. The system for selling cinema tickets calculates the discount type based on the client’s birth year (BY) and on the current year (CY) as follows:

Let D be the difference between CY and BY, that is, D = CY – BY

• If D < 0 then print the error message “birth year cannot be greater than current year”

• If 0 ≤ D < 18 then apply the student discount

• If 18 ≤ D < 65 then apply no discount • If D ≥ 65 then apply the pensioner discount

Your test suite already contains two test cases:

• BY = 1990, CY = 2020, expected result: no discount
• BY = 2030, CY = 2029, expected result: print the error message

Which of the following test data sets should be added to achieve full valid equivalence partitioning coverage for the discount type?

a) BY = 2001, CY = 2065

b) BY = 1900, CY = 1965

c) BY = 1965, CY = 1900

d) BY = 2011, CY = 2029

e) BY = 2000, CY = 2000

Select TWO options.

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38. Which of the following is the BEST example of how traceability supports testing?

a) Performing the impact analysis of a change will give information about the completion of the tests

b) Analyzing the traceability between test cases and test results will give information about the estimated level of residual risk

c) Performing the impact analysis of a change will help selecting the right test cases for regression testing

d) Analyzing the traceability between the test basis, the test objects and the test cases will help in selecting test data to achieve the assumed coverage of the test object

Select ONE option.

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39. Which of the following is true about exploratory testing?

a) Test cases are designed before the exploratory testing session starts

b) The tester can perform test execution, but cannot perform test design

c) Exploratory testing results are good predictors of the number of remaining defects

d) During exploratory testing the tester may use black-box test techniques

Select ONE option.

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40. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes:

• There is the role of a scribe
• The main purpose is to evaluate quality
• The meeting is led by the author of the work product
• There is individual preparation
• A review report is produced

Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used?

a) Informal review

b) Walkthrough

c) Technical review

d) Inspection

Select ONE option.

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