Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Adding this information allows the developer to use the same input data, so it is more likely they will be able to reproduce the failure quickly and so identify the defect faster
b) Is not correct. Adding the value of Priority will not help in reproducing the defect itself
c) Is not correct. Although some of this information may be of value, adding the memory dumps and database snapshots after each step will be too much, because most of these artefacts will contain useless information for the developer, and make the report less readable. It will also require the developer to spend a lot of time analyzing this information, which will lengthen the repair process
d) Is not correct. The question was about helping the developer to reproduce the defect observed for a specific environment configuration

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. It is impossible to prove that there are no defects anymore in the system under test. See testing principle 1
b) Is not correct. See testing principle 7
c) Is correct. Testing finds defects and failures which reduces the level of risk and at the same time gives more confidence in the quality level of the test object
d) Is not correct. It is impossible to test all combinations of inputs (see testing principle 2)

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Collaborative user story writing means that all stakeholders create the user stories collaboratively, to obtain the shared vision
b) Is correct. Collaborative user story writing means that all stakeholders create the user stories collaboratively, to obtain the shared vision
c) Is not correct. Collaborative user story writing means that all stakeholders create the user stories collaboratively, to obtain the shared vision
d) Is not correct. This is the list of properties that each user story should have, not the description of the collaboration-based approach

Explanation / Rationale

Consider:

i. It is a Project risk
ii. It is a Product risk
iii. It is a Product risk
iv. It is a Project risk
v. It is a Product risk

Thus:
a) Is correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

In the three-point estimation technique:

E = (optimistic + 4*most likely + pessimistic)/6

E = (2+(4*11)+14)/6 = 10

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is correct

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed example defects:

i. Two different parts of the design specification disagree due to the complexity of the design – this is an example of a specification defect, which includes inconsistencies, ambiguities, contradictions, omissions, inaccuracies, and duplications, which can most easily be found by static testing
ii. A response time is too long and so makes users lose patience – this is an example of a response time defect, which can only be detected in practice by executing the program and measuring the response time, which can most easily be found by dynamic testing
iii. A path in the code cannot be reached during execution - this is an example of a coding defect, which includes variables with undefined values, undeclared variables, duplicated or unreachable code, and excessive code complexity, which can most easily be found by static testing
iv. A variable is declared but never subsequently used in the program - this is an example of a coding defect, which includes variables with undefined values, undeclared variables, duplicated or unreachable code, and excessive code complexity, which can most easily be found by static testing
v. The amount of memory needed by the program to generate a report is too high – this is an example of a performance defect, which can only be detected in practice by executing the program and measuring the memory used, which can most easily be found by dynamic testing

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is correct. The correct match for static testing is i, iii, and iv

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. This should be a team activity and not overruled by one team member
b) Is correct. If test estimates are not the same, but the variation in the results is small, applying rules like “accept the number with the most votes” can be applied
c) Is not correct. There is no consensus yet as some say 13, others say 8
d) Is not correct. A feature should not be removed only because the team cannot agree on the test estimates

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The expected result is “the application should accept the provided input and create the user”. The actual result is “The application hangs up after entering “Test input. $ä””.
b) Is not correct. There is a reference to the test case and to the related requirement and it states that the defect is rejected. Also, the defect status would not be very helpful for the developers
c) Is correct. We do not know in which test environment the anomaly was detected, and we also do not know which application (and its version) is affected
d) Is not correct. The defect report states that the anomaly is urgent, that it is a global issue (i.e., many, if not all, test administration accounts are affected) and states the impact is high for business stakeholders

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. A fundamental strength that all white-box test techniques share is that the entire software implementation is taken into account during testing, which facilitates defect detection even when the software specification is vague, outdated or incomplete. This means white-box testing can find defects such as an extra feature added to the code (either accidentally or deliberately) that is not supposed to be there, which black-box testing cannot detect
b) Is not correct. The fact that the coverage can be precisely defined is not the right reason. The achieved level of coverage would have much more impact than the possibility to measure the coverage
c) Is not correct. If the software does not implement one or more requirements, white-box testing is unlikely to detect the resulting defects of omission
d) Is not correct. While this is true, this is not the right answer, because there is no connection between the capability to be used in both static testing and dynamic testing and the claim that white-box testing facilitates defect detection with poor specifications

Explanation / Rationale

The five listed descriptions and the corresponding review process activities are:

1. This describes part of the ‘communication and analysis’ activity
2. This describes part of the ‘fixing and reporting’ activity
3. This describes part of the ‘individual review’ activity
4. This describes part of the ‘planning’ activity
5. This describes part of the ‘review initiation’ activity

The generic review process from ISO/IEC 20246, which is outlined in the syllabus, comprises the following activities in this logical order:

• Planning (4)
• Review initiation (5)
• Individual review (3)
• Communication and analysis (1)
• Fixing and reporting (2)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct. The correct sequence of activities is: 4 – 5 – 3 – 1 – 2
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

Considering:

• Usability testing is in Q3 (1 – C)
• Component testing is in Q1 (2 – A)
• Functional testing is in Q2 (3 – B)
• Reliability testing is in Q4 (4 – D)

Thus:
a) Is correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. In exploratory testing, test cases are usually created during the exploratory testing session, alongside test analysis, test implementation and test execution
b) Is not correct. In exploratory testing, tests are simultaneously designed, executed, and evaluated while the tester learns about the test object
c) Is not correct. Exploratory testing results depend heavily on the tester’s experience, so even if the results of exploratory testing can be used as a predictor of risk and used to assess whether there will be fewer or more defects, for example, compared to the previous exploratory testing session, they are not a good example of reliable defect prediction models that can predict the number of remaining defects
d) Is correct. During exploratory testing, the testers can use any techniques that they find useful

Explanation / Rationale

There are five columns in the decision table. Each test case covers one of them.

TC1 and TC2 both cover Rule 4
TC3 and TC4 both cover Rule 2
TC5 covers Rule 5

So, these five test cases cover three out of five columns, achieving a coverage of (3/5)*100% = 60%. Therefore, option b) is the CORRECT option.
Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The feedback is from stakeholders (e.g., business representative, end user), not from developers, so this feedback is not likely to inform managers which developers are more or less productive
b) Is not correct. Early and frequent feedback from stakeholders is not used by project managers to prioritize how they interact with the different stakeholders
c) Is correct. Obtaining feedback from stakeholders early and often in the software development process can be highly beneficial as it facilitates early communication of potential quality issues, can prevent misunderstandings about requirements, and ensures that any changes in stakeholder requirements are understood and implemented sooner
d) Is not correct. Early and frequent feedback can prevent the development of a product that does not meet stakeholder needs, and results in costly rework and missed deadlines, so, ideally there should be no delay. Also, the feedback is from stakeholders (not to them), which includes the end users, so the end users providing feedback will not aid the end users’ understanding

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The test automation approach is defined by testers with the help of developers and business representatives
b) Is not correct. The test strategy is decided in collaboration with the developers
c) Is not correct. Testers, developers, and business representatives are part of the whole team approach
d) Is correct. Testers will work closely with business representatives to ensure that the desired quality levels are achieved. This includes supporting and collaborating with them to help them create suitable acceptance tests

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Value “1” covers “length incorrect” and covers “number of different digits incorrect”, however the system would not validate against this partition when hitting the first incorrect partition. Value “1111” covers “length correct” and “number of different digits incorrect. Value “1234” again covers “length correct” and also “number of different digits correct”
b) Is not correct. These three values achieve full coverage of the equivalence partitions, but full coverage can be achieved with two values
c) Is not correct. These two values only cover “number of different digits
d) Is not correct. These two values does not cover “number of different digits incorrect” equivalence partition

Explanation / Rationale

TC1 achieves the highest coverage (4/7 – Req1, Req3, Req4 and Req7), so should be executed first.
Req2, Req5 and Req6 are still not covered.
The next test case that achieves the highest additional coverage of the remaining requirements is TC3, covering 2 out of these 3 requirements (Req5 and Req6). So, TC3 should be executed as the second one.
Now the only requirement still not covered is Req2, which is covered by TC4. Therefore, TC4 should be executed as the third test case.
So, the last test case executed will be TC2.

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Quality control applies to all development activities, meaning that every software development activity has a corresponding test activity. However, here we are attempting to equate test levels with development levels, and, although we know what is meant by ‘test levels’, there is no common understanding of the term ‘ development level’
b) Is not correct. Every software development activity has a corresponding test activity; however test objectives are quite different. For instance, there might be a test objective of ensuring that a test object adheres to a contractual requirement that a certain type of testing must be performed before delivery. In this case there is no reason for there to be a corresponding development objective
c) Is not correct. Quality control applies to all development activities, meaning that every software development activity has a corresponding test activity. However, the same symmetry does not apply to testing and user activities. For instance, for some systems it is difficult to even identify the end users. Also, some test activities are focused on developers (e.g., testing for ease of maintainability), which has no user aspect to it
d) Is correct. Quality control applies to all development activities, meaning that every software development activity has a corresponding test activity

Explanation / Rationale

The ‘absence-of-defects fallacy’ is concerned with the idea that ensuring correctness in accordance with the requirements (i.e., verifying the absence of implementation defects) does not guarantee user satisfaction with the system. To address this it is also necessary to validate that the system meets users' needs and expectations, fulfills business objectives, and outperforms competing systems.
a) Is not correct. The ‘testing shows the presence, not the absence of defects’ principle explains that while testing can detect the existence of defects in the test object, it is not possible to demonstrate that there are no defects and, therefore, guarantee its correctness. Therefore, explaining that it is not possible for testing to show the absence of defects would partially address this principle, not the ‘absence-of-defects’ fallacy
b) Is correct. By supporting the end user to perform acceptance testing it should be possible to validate that the system meets users' needs and expectations
c) Is not correct. It is not possible to ensure that no implementation defects remain in the delivered system as the ‘testing shows the presence, not the absence of defects’ principle explains that while testing can detect the existence of defects in the test object, it is not possible to demonstrate that there are no defects and, therefore, guarantee its correctness
d) Is not correct. Modifying tests that cause no failures to ensure few defects remain is one way to address the ‘tests wear out’ principle. This principle is concerned with the idea that repeating identical tests on unaltered code is unlikely to uncover novel defects and therefore, modifying tests may be essential. This will not validate that the system meets users' needs and expectations

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Risk impact and risk likelihood are independent
b) Is not correct. Risk impact and risk likelihood are independent
c) Is correct. Risk impact and risk likelihood are independent
d) Is not correct. We need both factors to calculate risk level

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. The fundamental strength of white-box test techniques is that the entire software implementation is taken into account during testing
b) Is not correct. White-box coverage measures provide an objective measure of coverage and provide the necessary information to allow additional tests to be generated to increase this coverage
c) Is not correct. White-box test techniques can be used to perform reviews (static testing)
d) Is correct. This is the weakness of the white-box test techniques. They are not able to identify the missing implementation, because they are based solely on the test object structure, not on the requirements specification

Explanation / Rationale

Only third-party executable code cannot be reviewed.
Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) It is correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Component testing (also called unit testing) involves testing individual components in isolation and is mostly verification against a specification, rather than validation against user needs. However, this testing is not normally performed by testers, as developers usually carry out this testing in their development environment
b) Is not correct. Component integration testing involves testing the interfaces and interactions between components and is mostly verification against a specification, rather than validation against user needs. However, this testing is not normally performed by testers, as developers usually carry out this testing
c) Is not correct. System integration testing examines the interfaces with other systems and external services and is mostly verification against a specification, rather than validation against user needs. This type of testing is also most often performed by testers
d) Is correct. Acceptance testing focuses on validating that the system meets the user's business needs and is ready for deployment. Ideally, this testing is carried out by the end users

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed testware, and the test activity that produces it:

i. The test completion report is an output of the test completion activity
ii. Data held in a database used for test inputs and expected results is the test data - output of test implementation activity
iii. The list of elements needed to build the test environment is the test environment requirements - output of test design activity.
iv. Documented sequences of test cases in execution order are the test procedures - output of test implementation activity
v. Test cases - output of test design activity

Test implementation produces the following outputs: test procedures (iv), automated test scripts, test suites, test data (ii), test execution schedule, and test environment elements such as stubs, drivers, simulators, and service virtualizations.

Thus:
a) Is correct. Items ii and iv in the list are produced as a result of test implementation
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. This sequence of five events covers 4 different valid transitions (both “NotAvailable” events correspond to the same transition between S1 and S3). This test case covers 4 out of 7 valid transitions
b) Is correct. This sequence of five events covers 5 different transitions (the first “Available” event corresponds to a transition between S1 and S2, and the second “Available” event corresponds to a transition between S3 and S2, so two different transitions are covered). This test case covers 5 out of 7 valid transitions and achieves the highest valid transitions coverage
c) Is not correct. This sequence of five events covers 3 different transitions (both “Available” events correspond to the same transition from S1 to S2; both “ChangeRoom” events correspond to the same transition from S2 to S1). This test case covers 3 out of 7 valid transitions
d) Is not correct. This sequence of five events does not represent a feasible test case, because after “Cancel” the system ends up in the End state and no further valid transitions can be executed

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Traceability between the mitigated risks and passing test cases provides little information, because to be mitigated (by testing) the risks would need to have a corresponding passing test case. To be able to assess residual risk, traceability between all risks and test results needs to be available, so that the risks that do not have a corresponding passing test can be identified as the residual risks
b) Is correct. Traceability between user requirements and test execution results provides an indication of which user requirements have been tested and so provides a means of measuring project progress (in the context of testing) against business goals
c) Is not correct. It is not clear that failing test cases provide an indication of tester skills any more than passing test cases. It would partly depend on the test objective (e.g., building confidence or causing failures). Also, such measurement of testers based on passing and failing test cases can be counter-productive as it could cause the testers to optimize their testing based on that metric rather than the test objective
d) Is not correct. Traceability between the identified risks and written test conditions provides a means of determining which further test conditions need to be written. Determining which risks are worth testing is part of risk management, and risk mitigation in particular

Explanation / Rationale

Given the following description of test analysis:
To identify the features that require testing, the test basis is analyzed and defined as test conditions, which are then prioritized along with related risks. The systematic identification of test conditions as coverage items often involves using test techniques both during test analysis and as part of the test design activity.
From the above description, it can be seen that test techniques are often used in the test analysis and test design activities. Boundary value analysis and equivalence partitioning are test techniques.
a) Is not correct. Test implementation is not likely to involve the use of test techniques as it is mostly concerned with assembling test cases into test procedures, while test techniques create test cases
b) Is correct. Test design is likely to involve the use of test techniques to create test cases from test conditions and coverage items
c) Is not correct. Test execution is not likely to involve the use of test techniques as it is mostly concerned with executing test procedures (and so test cases), while test techniques create test cases
d) Is not correct. Test monitoring is not likely to involve the use of test techniques. Test monitoring is mostly concerned with ongoing checks to ensure the plan is being followed, while test techniques create test cases
e) Is correct. Test analysis is likely to involve the use of test techniques to identify test conditions

Explanation / Rationale

According to the dependencies, SEARCH tests must be executed first, then VIEW tests, then ADD tests and, at the end, ORDER tests. Within each of these groups the order is determined by the priorities of the test cases.
So, TC1 must be executed first, then TC2, then TC4 followed by TC3, and then TC5 as the last one.
So, the ordering is: TC1, TC2, TC4, TC3, TC5.
Thus:
a) Is correct. TC3 will be the fourth test case executed
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. A lack of usability provided through the user interface can be detected through a review using a suitable checklist, but the lack of usability can also be identified by getting several typical users to dynamically test the user interface and provide feedback on its usability
b) Is correct. A code review can detect code that cannot be reached by any path, however dynamic tests can only exercise reachable code and cannot determine that code cannot be reached without running every possible combination of inputs and input states, which is impractical for real code
c) Is not correct. Poor response times for most of the expected users are difficult to determine without executing the code (i.e., by static testing), so in this situation dynamic testing could find a defect, but static testing is unlikely to find it
d) Is not correct. A review of the code by someone who is aware of the required features could detect that the required features had not been implemented in the code, and dynamic testing could also be used to determine that these required features had not been implemented

Explanation / Rationale

There are three equivalence partitions: {…, –2, –1}, {0, 1, 2}, {3, 4, …}.
For 2-value BVA all the boundary values for all the equivalence partitions must be covered.
The boundary values are –1 (for the “temperature too low” partition), 0, 2 (for the “temperature OK” partition) and 3 (for the “temperature too high” partition).

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is correct. The correct option is: –1, 0, 2, 3
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Practices involved in shift-left testing are aimed at implementing more testing activities in the early phases of the development life cycle, portraying the SDLC as moving from left to right. There is no such thing as the left-hand side of the test process
b) Is correct. Shift-left emphasizes the importance of starting testing earlier in the software development lifecycle (SDLC). Implementing shift-left testing necessitates additional training, and increased effort and costs during the early stages of the SDLC, nevertheless, overall savings should be higher
c) Is not correct. Although automated component tests and component integration tests for regression testing are generally valuable, the creation of these tests is normally the responsibility of the developers, and if a continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD) approach is followed, then these tests will have been submitted with the code. In some situations the tester may automate tests for regression testing, and sometimes even for component tests and component integration tests, however this is not part of a ‘shift-left’ approach which moves testing earlier in the SDLC
d) Is not correct. Training testers to perform tasks early in the SDLC would support a shift-left approach by emphasizing the importance of starting testing earlier in the SDLC. However, automating more test activities to be performed later in the SDLC is not part of a ‘shift-left’ approach

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. A line with a defect, when executed, does not have to cause a failure. For example, a line x := y / z will cause a failure only when z equals 0
b) Is not correct. 100% statement coverage does not guarantee 100% branch coverage. For example, a test case with x=0 for the code

1. IF (x=0) THEN
2. A;
3. ENDIF

achieves 100% statement coverage but does not cover the branch from 1 to 3
c) Is correct. 100% statement coverage means that each executable statement was executed at least once
d) Is not correct. The removed test case may provide coverage of some statements that are not covered by either of the other two test cases, in which case the remaining two test cases together will not achieve 100% statement coverage

Explanation / Rationale

Considering each of the listed test activities and their tasks:

A. Test analysis - To identify the features that require testing, the test basis is analyzed and defined as test conditions, which are then prioritized along with related risks. During this test analysis, defects in the test basis are typically uncovered, and the test object's testability may also be assessed. (Task 4)
B. Test design - Involves using test conditions to create test cases and other necessary testware, such as test data requirements and test charters for exploratory testing. (Task 1)
C. Test implementation - Test procedures, such as manual and automated test scripts, are created from test cases and may be assembled into test suites. Test procedures are prioritized and arranged in a test execution schedule. (Task 3)
D. Test completion - Occurs at project milestones, such as release, end of iteration or end of test level. Testware is identified and archived or handed to the appropriate teams for reuse, the test environment is shut down, and the test activities are analyzed for lessons learned and future improvements. (Task 2)

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct. The CORRECT match is: 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Estimating the test effort is part of test planning
b) Is correct. This is an example of defining test conditions which is a part of test analysis
c) Is not correct. Using test techniques to derive coverage items is a part of test design
d) Is not correct. Reporting defects found during dynamic testing is a part of test execution

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Product quality metrics measure quality characteristics. Mean time to failure measures maturity, so it is a product quality metric
b) Is not correct. This is an example of a defect metric, not a product quality metric
c) Is not correct. This is an example of a coverage metric, not a product quality metric
d) Is not correct. This is an example of a defect metric, not a product quality metric

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Priorities for user stories are determined by the business representative together with the development team
b) Is not correct. Testers focus on both functional and non-functional aspects of the system to be tested
c) Is correct. According to the syllabus, this is one of the ways testers add value to iteration and release planning
d) Is not correct. Early test design is not part of release planning. Early test design does not automatically guarantee the release of quality software

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is not correct. Traceability is the relationship between two or more work products, not between different versions of the same work product
b) Is not correct. Maintenance testing is about testing changes; it is not related closely to versioning
c) Is correct. To support testing, configuration management may involve the version control of all test items
d) Is not correct. Requirements engineering is the elicitation, documentation, and management of requirements; it is not closely related to test script versioning

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. This is done by the testers
b) Is not correct. The product backlog is built and maintained by the product owner
c) Is not correct. This is done by the development team
d) Is not correct. This is a managerial role
e) Is correct. This is done by the testers

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. The number of defects found is related to the test object quality
b) Is not correct. This is the measure of the test efficiency not the test object quality
c) Is not correct. The number of test cases executed does not tell us anything about the quality; test results might do
d) Is correct. defect density is related to the test object quality
e) Is not correct. Time to repair is a process metric. It does not tell us anything about the product quality

Explanation / Rationale

a) Is correct. Test design involves using test conditions to create test cases and other necessary testware, such as test data requirements and test charters for exploratory testing. Test environment requirements are also specified, including the necessary infrastructure and tools
b) Is not correct. Test execution involves executing test cases (as part of test procedures), however it does not directly cover the other testware mentioned in the question, such as test data requirements, test environment requirements and test conditions
c) Is not correct. Test analysis is used to identify the features that require testing. The test basis is analyzed and defined as test conditions, which are then prioritized along with related risks. While this activity involves working with test conditions, it does not cover the other testware mentioned in the question, such as test data requirements, test environment requirements and test cases
d) Is not correct. Test implementation includes the generation of test procedures, such as manual and automated test scripts, which are created from test cases and may be assembled into test suites. Test procedures are prioritized and arranged in a test execution schedule. Test data is created, and the test environment built, and its set up verified. While this activity involves explicitly working with test cases, and may use test data requirements and test environment requirements to create test data and the test environment, it does not cover test conditions